Monday, November 29, 2010

John 1:3,10- Panta (πάντα) and Kosmos (κόσμος)


{John 1:3} All were made through him. Without him not one was made that has been made.

{John 1:10} He was in the world, and the world was made through him, and the world did not recognize him.

This is partly in response to a post entitled "κόσμος (kosmos) in Johannine writings".

We will have to disagree with the idea that "panta" combined with "oude" in John 1:3 means any other than what the context and the rest of the scriptures indicate it to mean, that is, "all" as pertaining to the world of mankind. (John 1:10) We believe in past studies we have given ample evidence of this. Therefore, we are confident that in John 1:3, John intended his use of "panta" in that verse to be "universal" only to that which is being spoken of, that is, the world of mankind, the "beginning" of which is that spoken of in John 1:1. Throughout the New Testament, one will be strained to find where forms of the word "pas" (Strong's #3956) are used to mean the entire universe (which would include the Creator), or even the entire created universe (which would be universal only in a limited scope, since the Creator would be excluded). We do note that it is used a very few times with the exclusion of the Creator, as well as with the exclusion of the firstborn creature. Nevertheless, it is always constrained in its application by the context as well as common evidence.  Paul provides an example of this as recorded in 1 Corinthians 15:27. As yet, we have not found any place in the Bible where it means absolutely "all" in the total universe, which would include the Creator.

One should note that the usage of oude with panta in Hebrews 2:8 refers only to all that is spoken of in Psalm 8:6-9. It is not saying that God subjected absolutely everything in the universe to man.

See our resource page, God's Creation Through Jesus, for links to studies regarding God's creation through, by means of, of His firstborn son,

In examining John's use of the word often transliterated as "kosmos" in his writings, we find that he does indeed ALWAYS use it with the same reference and meaning; he never uses it to mean the entire "universe", or even the entire created universe. 

It is claimed that "When John says that Word came into the World it has one meaning but when the World rejects the Word it has a slightly different meaning, and when the Word makes the World it has yet another meaning." While it may be that John uses the word with a "slightly" different meaning, the word still is speaking of the same "world" throughout.

John 1:10
en tw kosmw een kai ho kosmos di autou
IN THE WORLD HE WAS, AND THE WORLD THROUGH HIM
1722 3588 2889 1511_3 2532 3588 2889 1223 0846_3
egeneto kai ho kosmos auton ouk egnw
CAME TO BE, AND THE WORLD HIM NOT KNEW.
1096 2532 3588 2889 0846_7 3756 1097 -- Westcott & Hort Interlinear

 
In John 1:10, one has to stretch the imagination to think that Jesus used the word "kosmos" as meaning two different "worlds". It is very clear that the world (kosmos) that God made through Jesus is the same world into which Jesus came, and it is the same world that did not recognize him. One should recognize, however, that the world that God made through His Logos became corrupted through sin (Romans 5:12-19; 2 Peter 1:4), and thus God has subjected the whole [Strong's #3856] creation  (Romans 8:22 -- referring to the world of mankind) to a bondage of vanity and corruption (Ecclesiastes 1:2,13-18; 7:13; Romans 8:20-22)  and thus this world that God made through Jesus did not recognize who Jesus was.  John is speaking of the same "world" in all three instances of John 1:10. The only difference in the usage is that the world of mankind, when God made it through Logos, was not corrupted (Ecclesiastes 7:29), but now it is corrupted through sin (Romans 5:12; 8:22; 2 Peter 1;4), and the corrupted world -- the old order corrupted through sin  (Romans 8:20-22) -- needs to pass away in order to be made new. -- 2 Corinthians 5:17; 1 John 2:17; Revelation 20:1-5.

Most scholars give several meanings to the Greek word "Kosmos", but most often in the New Testament, this word is referring to the world of mankind here on the earth.
http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/kosmos.html
https://biblehub.com/greek/2889.htm

See:
Does Jehovah Speak to Jehovah? - Regarding Hebrews 1:10-12.

As Bible students, we should be more interested in the usage as found in the Bible itself. Lexicons and Greek dictionaries often give many meanings found in other Greek writings other than the Bible, or that have been attributed to words by man's doctrine, which may or may not represent the way the Bible actually uses the words. Often, due to man's doctrine, scholars may misapply various applications from non-Biblical sources to the various usages in the Bible. The basic meaning of "Kosmos" is that of order or arrangement, and most often in the Bible is related to the order of the world of mankind, the world that God created through Jesus, which world has become corrupted through sin. Indeed, we have not found any exception of this usage in John's writings, although one may find a few exceptions elsewhere in the New Testament writings. For instance, there are at least three exceptions to the usage of the word "kosmos" in Peter's writings, and yet none of which however express "kosmos" as meaning the entire universe, or even the entire created universe. (1 Peter 3:3; 2 Peter 2:5; 3:6) We need to realize that the word "universe" itself in English, while it can mean everything that exists, or everything created, most often it is limited in scope to that which is being spoken of. The word "universal", for instance, most often refers to world of mankind on the earth.

Peter, however, would have us understand that God's dealings with man is related to three worlds -- three heavens and three earths -- in which he uses the word "kosmos" as related to the first period before the flood.

World (Kosmos) #1 would be the heaven and earth that were before the flood. -- 2 Peter 3:5,6.

World (Kosmos) #2 would be the heavens and earth are now, and which are to be dissolved .-- 2 Peter 3:7,10,12.

World (Kosmos) #3 would be the new heavens and new earth. -- 2 Peter 3:13. 

I believe that Paul speaks of the third heaven and paradise in 2 Corinthians 12:2,4. See our studies: Jehovah's Plan of the Ages and The Third Heaven and Paradise.

Peter also uses a form of the word  "kosmos" as related to cosmetics. -- 1 Peter 3:3.

http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/aion.html
https://biblehub.com/greek/165.htm

In Romans 11:12 the word "kosmos" is used in contrast with Israel. However, in John 1:10; 12:46,47, Jesus includes Israel as of the world "kosmos", the world that was made through him, that did not recognize him and thus rejected him, for Jesus had only come to Israel. (Matthew 15:24) Nevertheless, "world", in Romans 11:12 still represents the world that was made through Jesus, but which was condemned through the sin of Adam, while Israel, as a whole, was considered a new creation (as a nation, not as individuals) of God separate from the world. The Law Covenant, however, serves to prove the sinful and crooked nature of the people of Israel; no one was justified, made straight, by keeping the Law, thus the condemnation of the world through Adam remained upon them.

See:
Seed of David
The Law Gives Everlasting Life?
The Passing Away of the Law
The Fulfilling of the Law

Of course, the world that was made through Jesus, and into which Jesus came, and which world did nor recognize Jesus, is now a world of people estranged from God. The people of the world are, by nature of Adam's sin, children of wrath, sons of disobedience, not new creatures, children of God. (Ephesians 2:1-10) The world made through Jesus, into which Jesus came, and which rejected Jesus, is indeed represented on the surface of the earth as the dwelling place of mankind, in contrast with God and the spiritual creation, as well as with the sun, moon, stars, planets, etc (except that these are represented in their being made to appear in the sky -- the heavens --  of the earth -- Genesis 1:14-18; John 1:10; Acts 17:24; Hebrews 1:10); the Bible says nothing about a "world below," nor of its creation, although some translators have forced that expression into their translation of some scriptures.

One last point, the kosmos that God made through Jesus (John 1:10) came cannot include the angels in heaven who are always able to see the face of God,  since those angels certainly recognized who Jesus was while Jesus was in the days of his flesh. Even the angels that sinned recognized who Jesus was. Thus, this gives further evidence that KOSMOS, as well as PANTA, in John 1:3,10 does not include the invisible spirit realm, but rather refers to the world of mankind only.


Ronald R. Day, Sr.

**********






Saturday, November 27, 2010

Is Jesus the Creator?

Connected with the idea that Jesus is Jehovah (Yahweh) is the assumption that Jesus is the Creator. (By "the Creator" is meant the title often given to God -- the Supreme Being -- as being the Source of creation.) Scriptures often cited as proof of that Jesus is the Creator are John 1:3; Colossians 1:16,17 and sometimes Hebrews 1:3,10,11. The claim is that these verses prove that Jesus is "the Creator", and hence that Jesus is Jehovah, the Supreme Being, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. (Exodus 3:15; Acts 3:13) Additionally, Isaiah 44:24 is often offered as proof that Jehovah was alone at creation, and thus, if Jesus was at the creation, Jesus must have been Jehovah. 

Actually, there is nothing in any of the above verses that identify Jesus as the Creator -- the source of creation. The word “creator” is never used of Jesus in the Bible. That thought is being imagined, assumed, added to, and read into the scriptures. Jesus himself applied the words “creator” and “creation” to his God and Father, but never to himself. — Mark 10:6; 13:19.

John 1:3

John 1:1-10 shows that Father, the only true God of John 17:1,3, created the world of mankind through His Logos.

In John 1:3,10, we have the Logos as being the one through whom ELOHIM of Genesis 1:1 made the world [kosmos] of mankind, the world into which the Logos came, the same world [kosmos] that became corrupted through the sin of one man. (Romans 5:12-19; 8:20-22) The world being spoken in John 1:3,10 does not include the angels, for Job 38:4-6 lets us know that the angels were already in existence at the "beginning" of Genesis 1:1 and John 1:1.

Many point out that in John 1:3, John says that not one thing was made without the Word, and they like to stress that John used both a form of the Greek word often transliterated as "pas" and it is alleged that he emphasized that this includes absolutely all creation by using a form of the word often transliterated as oude (negative - not, none, no) to say that without him not (oude) one (hen, neuter) thing was created. It is claimed that this means that it is "universal in scope", meaning that it absolutely refers to everything that was created, and thus it is claimed that this would exclude Jesus from having been created. However, the Greek words used rarely mean absolutely "all" in such a sense. A study of forms of the word often transliterated "pas" (all, every, etc.) shows that it is rarely, if ever, used as that which is often assumed in John 1:3; all forms of "pas" always look to context as well as to common evidence (1 Corinthians 15:27)  for what is included or excluded in the "all" being spoken of.

For instance, we have a similar usage in Hebrews 2:6-8, based on Psalm 8:4-6, discussing God's original purpose that "all" be made subject to man. Hebrews 2:8 likewise uses a similar positive form of pas and a similar negative form of oude; if one is consistent with the assumed reasoning as often applied to John 1:3, one would also have to say that that which was subjected to man is "universal in scope." And yet Psalm 8:7,8 limits whatever universal scope might be applied to the usage of Hebrews 2:8; the original dominion given to man pertains universally only to the things on the earth. -- Genesis 1:26,28.

To elaborate, in Hebrews 2:8, in speaking of what has been subjected to man as spoken of in Psalm 8:6, we read: "For in that he subjected all things to him, he left nothing that is not subject to him. But now [due to the sin of Adam, man has been subjected to futility -- Romans 5:12-19; 8:20] we don’t see all things subjected to him, yet." Note that the scripture says that God left nothing that is not subject to him (man). Does this mean that God subjected absolutely everything in the entire universe to man? Absolutely not! Psalm 8:7,8 describes the "all things" that was subjected to man, which corresponds with Genesis 1:26,28. All that was subjected to man pertains to all the earth, not absolutely all in the universe.

Likewise, there is an indication of the same limitation of the scope of panta in John 1:3. John 1:10 speaks of the world (kosmos) that the Logos came into as the world that was made through the Logos. That world did not recognize Jesus (the Logos who lived among the disciples, and whose human glory was seen by them. -- John 1:.14. The world in John 1:10 It is this same "world" that Jesus spoke of as recorded in John 17:5. Matthew 24:21 and Mark 13:19 refer to the beginning of the world (kosmos); this world is described in John 1:10 as the world into which the Word came, but which world did not recognize the Word in their midst. Likewise, it is the same "world" that Paul wrote about in Romans 5:12 and Peter spoke of in  2 Peter 1:4. This "world" does not include the spirit sons of God, the angels who are always able to see God's face, even though we have every reason to believe that these invisible spirit sons of God were at some time created. The scriptures indicate that these invisible spirit sons of God were created before the beginning, the creation, of the world of mankind, since scripture shows that the spirit sons of God were already in existence at the beginning of the world of mankind. (Job 38:4-8; Colossians 1:15,16) This brings us to the conclusion that John 1:3,10 is speaking of the world of mankind, not the entire material universe, nor of the angels. This is the "world" that the Word came into, and that did not recognize him. (John 1:10) Thus, it can be seen that the NT writers in connection with "the beginning" of creation understood that this beginning was in reference to things upon the planet earth, not to the entire universe itself.

The Greek word "hen" -- one -- of John 1:3 refers back to "the beginning" spoken of in John 1:1, which is the beginning, not of the entire universe, but of the world (kosmos spoken of in John 1:10), the six days of creation of the land (earth) and the sky (heavens) and the things in them as seen from the surface of the planet. -- Genesis 1:1,3-31; Exodus 20:11; 31:17.

To illustrate further, another form of the Greek word "pas" is used in Romans 8:22: "For we know that all [pasa] creation groans and travails in pain together until now." The "all creation" that is being referred to in Romans 8:22 is not the angels, the stars, the sun, the moon, etc., but rather the world of mankind that has been subjected to vanity (Romans 8:20; Ecclesiastes 1:2,13-15) due to Adam’s sin. (Romans 5:12-19) Thus, absolutely "all creation" in the universe is not included in "all creation", neither in Romans 8:20, nor in what is said in John 1:3. Indeed, if one does a study of the usage of all forms of the word "pas" in the New Testament, one will see that this word rarely means absolutely everything in the universe, but that it is always understood in the context as well as common evidence. John 1:10 indicates that in John 1:3, the "all" that is being referred to is the world of mankind, as it is in Romans 8:22. The only true God (John 17:1,3) is the Creator (Mark 10:6; 13:19); the prehuman Jesus is the instrument — the agent — that the Creator used to bring into being the creation that is being spoken of.


Colossians 1:15-18

In Colossians 1:15-18 the use of the Greek transliterated as "en" as related to the Son and "God" begins in Colossians 1:12 where it shows that the God and Father of Jesus is the original source of the action and Colossians 1:13,14 shows that the action is done by means (Greek, en) the Son. As throughout the New Testament, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is spoken of in Colossians 1:3 as only one person, and that is the God and Father of Jesus. It is the one who is identified as a unipersonal "God" who is "Father" in Colossians 1:12, who is distinguished from his son in Colossians 1:13, and who "by means of" the son in verse 14 that God redeems through the blood of Jesus. In Colossians 1:15, "God" is again distinguished from the son, and in verse 15 we again find the word "en" being used in an instrumental sense, referring back to the Creator in Colossians 1:15, of whom Jesus is designated the firstborn of his creation. God, then, by means of Jesus, made the all in heavens and earth, both visible and invisible thrones, dominions, principalities, etc., (that is the living dominions both in heaven and earth, which excludes the material universe itself. The Bible indicates that God was alone when he created the material universe. Isaiah 44:24 does not refer to the creation of the heavens and earth, the beginning, of Genesis 1:1 and John 1:1, but rather of the actual creation of the material universe itself, before the six days of creation spoken of in Genesis 1:3-2:1; Exodus 20:11; 31:17,  and the singular "day" of creation spoken of in Genesis 2:4. The planet earth itself already "was" before the beginning of the six days of creation. -- Genesis 1:2.


Isaiah 44:24

Isaiah 44:24 - Thus saith Jehovah, thy Redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb: I am Jehovah, that maketh all things (Strong's Hebrew #3605 - KOL); that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth (who is with me?);

The word "things" above is added by the translators. Jehovah formed Israel and made all. The Hebrew word often transliterated as KOL, meaning "all", rarely, if ever, in the Bible means absolutely everything in the universe. Absolutely everything would include God himself.

Jehovah stretched the heavens and spread abroad the earth. The latter part especially appears to be referring to the creation of the material universe itself. While "alone" here could be in comparison to the idol gods of the nations who did not form Israel or bring forth the universe, if Jehovah was totally alone when he created the material universe, it would mean that he who is the Logos was not yet created. Jehovah was definitely not totally alone at the beginning spoken of in Genesis 1:1 and John 1:1, since Job 38:4-7 speaks of the spirit sons of God as being present at that time. Thus, Isaiah 44:24 would have to be speaking of an event before the "beginning" of the world of mankind spoken of in John 1:1-3,10; 17:5, and before God brought forth his firstborn son. -- Colossians 1:15.

If Isaiah 44:24 is speaking of the creation of the material universe, as I presented, the creation spoken of in Isaiah 44:24 takes place before the creation of the firstborn son of Colossians 1:15, and before the "all" spoken of in Colossians 1:16. The creation spoken of in Isaiah 44:24 was before the "beginning" of Genesis 1:1 and John 1:1-3,10, since there many sons of God present at that beginning. -- Job 38:4-7l.


Hebrews 1:10,11

Hebrews 1:10,11 indicates that in perishing, the present world, the present heavens and earth will be "changed". Jesus spoke of the present heavens and earth as passing away. (Matthew 24:35; Mark 13:31;  Luke 21:33; see also 2 Peter 3:10 and Revelation 21:1) This is not speaking of the heavens where the angels always are able to see the face of God (Matthew 18:10), nor is it speaking of the physical sun, moon, planets, and stars above. Isaiah 65:17 shows that God is creating a new heavens and new earth, a new creation, and that this new heavens and new earth will remain. (Isaiah 66:22) Revelation 21:1-5 reveals that God is to make all things new -- a regeneration of that which was lost through Adam. 
See also:


A careful examination of the scriptures, therefore, does not give us any reason to think that Jesus is the Creator, but rather that the Creator, his God and Father, created all that is being spoken of through, or by means of, of his son.

See also our resource page for links to studies related to Jesus and Creation

******  



Friday, November 26, 2010

Matthew 1:23: Immanuel - Does This Mean that Jesus is God?

Matthew 1:23 "Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son. They shall call his name Immanuel;" which is, being interpreted, "God with us." -- World English.

See, the virgin will become pregnant, and they will name Him Immanuel , which is translated "God is with us." -- Matthew 1:23, Holman Christian Standard Bible version 

The above scripture is often quoted by trinitarians without any explanation as to how this verse is supposed to mean that Jesus is God or a person of "God".  This verse is often referred to as saying "Jesus is God with us." Actually, Matthew 1:23 does not say "Jesus is God with us", nor is any such thought found anywhere in the Bible. There is definitely nothing in Matthew 1:23 that says that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is three persons, and that Jesus is a person of Jehovah. Rather it says that they -- those who believe in him -- will call the one whom Jehovah anointed (Isaiah 61:1) by the name Emmauel (Immanuel), and that this name means, "God with us", as this reads in many translations. Such names are usually given a translation in sentence form, and thus many give the meaning of the name as "God is with us." Indeed, the phrase is rendered in practically all translations in Isaiah 8:10 with the linking verb "is". Unlike English and many other languages, ancient Hebrew, as well as Koine Greek, did not always require a verb. Such linking verbs such as "is" and "are" are often supplied by translators.

Nevertheless, we know of no one who is consistent in the kind of application that many like to the name Immauel in Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew 1:23. Many other names given to many people are with similar construction speaking of God, but no one thinks that the usage of God or Jah in those names is being applied to the bearer of those names. 

"Jehu", for instance, means "Jah he" or actually in English with the verb supplied: "Jah is he." "Jah" is a short form of the name often rendered as Jehovah. No one, however, thinks that the bearer of the name Jehu is Jehovah. Some references give the meaning as "He is God." This actually changes the shortened form of the Holy Name to "God"; God has nowhere given anyone authorization to change His eternal Holy Name to other words that do not even mean the same. The point, however, is that the bearer of this name is not who is being referred to as "Jah" or "God", but rather it is Jehovah Himself that is being spoken of. 

The scriptures show that "God" (one person, not three persons) was "with" Jesus. This is the same one person who spoke through the prophets of old, and who now speaks through His son, Jesus. (Hebrews 1:1,2) Peter spoke of "Jesus of Nazareth, how God anointed him with the Holy Spirit  (Isaiah 11:2; 61:1) and with power, who went about [in the days of his flesh -- Hebrews 5:7] doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with him." (Acts 10:38, World English) Peter used the word "God" twice while speaking of Jesus. He first stated how "God" anointed Jesus. Earlier Peter stated: "God has made him both Lord and Christ [meaning, anointed one], this Jesus whom you crucified." (Acts 2:36) Was it three persons that anointed Jesus, or was it one person? Isaiah quotes the Messiah prophetically as stating: "Jehovah hath anointed me" (Isaiah 61:1, American Standard Version) This is the same Jehovah who proclaimed Himself to be "the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob." (Exodus 3:14,15) The one person who is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob speaks and performs His works through His son. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; John 3:34; 5:19; 6:38; 7:16,28,29; 8:28,38,40; 12:29; 14:10; 17:8; Acts 3:13-26; Hebrews 1:1,2.

But when Peter said: "God was with him" (Acts 10:38), who was Peter speaking of as being "God"? Again, it is only one person spoken of as God that Peter speaks of who was with Jesus. However, the fact that "God was with him," and the fact that Jesus was with Israel, demonstrates that God, being with the one whom He anointed, was also with His people Israel through Jesus' presence. However, only a few recognized Jesus for who he really was. -- John 1:10-12.

There is no scriptural reason to add to the scriptures dogma that would make Jesus a person of the Most High, or any teaching that Jesus is the Most High.


For more on this see:

*************

Monday, May 31, 2010

Isaiah 9:6 and The Deity of Jesus

Trinitarian False Definition of Christian

In the registration process of a forum one is asked to give an answer to a question, but one is limited to three answers.
Have you made a decision to follow Christ? (Definition)
Yes, I am a Christian.   No, I am not a Christian.   No I am not, but I am seeking Christ.
The (Definition) link provided gives the following as the definition of a Christian:

For the purpose of posting as Christian on this board, we believe:

A Christian is a follower of Jesus of Nazareth, referred to as Christ or Messiah. Christians believe Jesus to be the only Son of God, who lived a sinless life. He is eternal, uncreated God, and has always been and will always be God, the creator of the universe. At the end of his earthly life He was crucified, on the third day He rose from the dead, and later ascended into heaven.

Christians further believe that Jesus alone offers salvation, and that it is only possible through and by Him. Apart from Jesus Christ, there is no salvation. Ephesians 2:8-9 states that "It is by grace you have been saved, through faith, and that not of yourselves it is the gift of God that no one should boast". Humans cannot save themselves through good works, only Jesus can save them. Good works, however, are a result of living according to the Word of God.

Christians identify themselves as monotheistic, believing that there is one God.

If, by checking the block saying that one is a Christian, a Christian who believes that Jesus is as the Bible teaches him to be, the Son of God, the firstborn creature, the Christian would be agreeing to the false definition of Christian as supplied, and thus that one would be lying. If that Christian believer should check either of the blocks saying that I am not Christian, that would also be lying. And since the registration requires one to answer the question by one of the answers provided, such a follower of the Lord Jesus could get not complete the registration.

Of course, the Bible no where requires that, for one to be a follower of Jesus, that such person has to add to the scriptures that Jesus is the uncreated God who, in actuality, the scriptures tell us sent Jesus. The scriptures no where declare Jesus to be the creator of the universe.

To believe the second paragraph would, in effect, negate belief in the third paragraph, the paragraph concerning salvation in Christ, for there could be no salvation in Christ if Jesus is the Most High. Rather than condemning sin the flesh (Romans 8:3), Jesus would have justified sin in the flesh, for it would have proven that man has to be the Supreme Being in order to perfectly obey the Supreme Being.

Nor do the scriptures anywhere require that the atoning sacrifice for sin has to be the Supreme Being. That which was required was one sinless man, as Adam was sinless before his disobedience, and, God provided such a man through the miraculous birth of Jesus. By condemning all of the offspring of Adam in one man, only one uncondemned man was needed to offset what Adam had done. Thus, the man Christ Jesus gave himself as a ransom for all.

What Paul said was to be required for a Christian to believe is that "if you will confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus, and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved." (Romans 10:9) He said nothing about believing that Jesus is the God of Abraham, who in reality raised Jesus from the dead. (Acts 3:13-26) Nor is there anything in the Bible that says the part of the faith once delivered to the saints was the belief that Jesus is a person of the God of Abraham.

We do agree, that salvation is only through, by means of Jesus, whom Jehovah sent.

The trinitarian definition of Christian has to be actually added to, and read into, what the Bible says, for the Bible nowhere says that one has add to the scriptures the trinitarian dogma in order to be a follower of the one who was sent by the only true God. -- John 17:1,3.

Wednesday, May 26, 2010

Jesus is not the Most High

This post is in response to a message we received in our youtube account from a trinitarian. We will consider the points that were raised here, as the youtube platform is not designed for such long posts. We will not be presenting a lot of detail in this post, but will be mostly giving a few words and providing links to where we have discuss the points in greater detail.

Our trinitarian neighbor first informs us that the "Jehovah God does not bow down to or worship and honor anyone."

Yes, Jehovah God, being the only Most High, does not bow down to or worship anyone, for there is none higher than Him (Psalm 103:19; John 10:29; 14:28; Hebrews 6:13); but the son of the only Most High (Luke 1:32) does indeed pray to and worship the One whom he called the "only true God." -- John 17:1,3.

The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, by means of his holy spirit, reveals through the scriptures that He Himself (Jehovah/Yahweh) is the only true God, the unipersonal God and Father of the Lord Jesus. Jesus has One who is the Supreme Being over him; Jesus is not his Supreme Being whom he worships, prays to, and who sent him, and whose will he carried out in willful obedience. (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 [Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4]; Matthew 4:7 [Deuteronomy 6:16]; Matthew 4:10 [Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8]; Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 [Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23]; Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12)

In Luke 1:32, is the Most High (rendered "highest" in some translations) one person, or is it three persons? Most evidently it is one person, not three persons. The trinitarian has to imagine some kind of assumptions that would have to be placed over Luke 1:32 in order to get that verse to harmonize with the added-on trinitarian dogma, but they often run into self-contradictions in trying to apply the trinity assumptions to this verse.

The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, by means of his holy spirit, reveals through the scriptures that Jesus is son of the one person who is Most High, Jehovah. Jesus is never spoken of as the "Most High"; he is not the only Most High Jehovah of whom he is the son. — Genesis 14:22; Psalm 7:17; 83:18; 92:1; Luke 1:32; John 13:16.
See: "Most High" Scriptures

God does not give honor to anyone?

However, we do not know of any scripture that says that Jehovah (Yahweh) does not honor anyone; nevertheless, Jehovah certainly does not honor anyone in the sense of honoring anyone as his superior, or even as being his equal as being the source of all (1 Corinthians 8:6), if that is what is assumed concerning the word "honor".

Deuteronomy 26:18 and Yahweh [Jehovah] has declared you this day to be a people for his own possession, as he has promised you, and that you should keep all his commandments;
Deuteronomy 26:19 and to make you high above all nations that he has made, in praise, and in name, and in honor; and that you may be a holy people to Yahweh [Jehovah] your God, as he has spoken. -- World English.

Was not Jehovah giving honor to the children of Israel in choosing them out of the nations as a people for his name?

And Jesus told his disciples: "If anyone serves me, the Father will honor him." -- John 12:26.

Our trinitarian neighbor tells us that all Honor, worship and praise belong to Jehovah God!

Again, we do not know any scripture that says this. We have looked up the expressions "all honor," "all worship" and "all praise" using Crosswalk's Bible study tools, and provide links to the results below.


CLICK HERE for all praise" (World English)

CLICK HERE for "all worship" (World English)

We should also note that there is a usage of the Hebrew word (transliterated "Kol") for "all" that would indicate supreme "all." This usage is found in Deuteronomy 6:5: "You shall love Yahweh your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your might." (World English) This does not mean that one should love no one else but Yahweh in our hearts, but it does mean to love Yahweh with such fullness that any other love would be in harmony with our love for Yahweh. Likewise, if we use the word "all" in this sense, we can agree with the statement made by our trinitarian neighbor.

Jesus stated: "I honor my Father." (John 8:49) Was this the Most High honoring the Most High?

Paul speaks of seeking honor:

Romans 2:7 - to those who by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and incorruptibility, eternal life.

Paul wrote:
Romans 2:10 - glory and honor and peace to every man who works good, to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

Romans 13:7 - Give therefore to everyone what you owe: taxes to whom taxes are due; customs to whom customs; respect to whom respect; honor to whom honor.

Ephesians 6:2 - "Honor your father and mother," which is the first commandment with a promise:

Concerning Jesus, we read that the one person who is  God  in 1 Corinthians 8:6 and Hebrews 1:1,2 has crowned him with glory and honor (Hebrews 2:9) while he was in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), having prepared him an incorrupt body that could be presented for sacrifice. -- Hebrews 10:5,10.

See our discussion on Hebrews 1:1-3:
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/2017/04/heb1-1.html

Our trinitarian neighbor, advocating that all honor belongs to Jehovah, tells us that this is why John 5:23 tells us that "ALL MEN" should honor the SON EVEN as they honor the FATHER. Evidently the thought must be that because our trintarian neighbor assumes that Jesus is Jehovah (Yahweh), that is why Jesus said what he said in John 5:23. Let us look at this:

John 5:23
hina pantes timwsi ton huion kathws
IN ORDER THAT ALL THEY MAY HONOR THE SON ACCORDING AS
2443 3956 5091 3588 5207 2531
timwsi ton patera ho mee timwn ton huion
THEY ARE HONORING THE FATHER. THE (ONE) NOT HONORING THE SON
5091 3588 3962 3588 3361 5091 3588 5207
ou tima ton patera ton pempsanta auton
NOT IS HONORING THE FATHER THE (ONE) HAVING SENT HIM.
3756 5091 3588 3962 3588 3992 0846_7
Westcott & Hort Interlinear

No, there is nothing in this that says that the reason that one should honor Jesus as they honor his Father is because Jesus is the Most High. Indeed, it is the Most High who placed Jesus as the means by which we have access to the only Most High. Jesus' words in verse 23 is relating back to what he had stated in verse 22.

John 5:22 For neither does the Father judge any man, but he has given all judgment to the Son,
John 5:23 that all may honor the Son [of the Most High -- Luke 1:32], even as they honor the Father [the Most High]. He who doesn't honor the Son doesn't honor the Father who sent him.

Thus, the reason that this honor is given to the Son of the Most High is because the only Most High has given all judgment to His son (Luke 1:32; Hebrews 2:1,2), that all would honor the Son, even as they honor the only Most High. Since this honor is connected with the authority to judge that was given by the Most High to His son, if the honor means that Jesus is the Most High, then the logical conclusion would be that Jesus became the Most High because the Most High gave him this authority and power. In reality, Jesus is not the Most High, since the Most High no need of anyone to give him authority or power.

Our trinitarian neighbor claims that what we have gotten wrong is that we deny Jesus the Christ's deity AS Jehovah God. In reality, since the Bible never once proclaims Jesus to be Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, we have no reason to imagine and assume such. The default reasoning is that Jesus is not the Most High, not that Jesus is the Most High. Indeed, the thing that trinitarians get fundamentally wrong is in promoting the idea that Jesus is Jehovah God, when there is absolutely nothing at all in the entire Bible that reveals Jesus as being Jehovah. In truth, from Genesis to Revelation, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, is presented as only one person -- not once is He presented as being more than one person. All through the New Testament, forms of the word transliterated as THEOS, when applied to the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, is always used to speak of one person, and not once as more than one person. Throughout the New Testament, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is distinguished from His son in hundreds of verses. (Acts 3:13-26; Hebrews 1:1,2) In all of the scriptures claimed to present otherwise, the fanciful spirit of human imagination has be consulted, and the resulting imaginations and assumptions have to added to, and read into, each and every scripture to get added-on dogma appear to be supported by the scripture.

See our presentation on Jesus is not Jehovah:

Our trinitarian neighbor reports that throughout the entire content of inspired scripture, the fact of Christ's identity is clearly taught. We agree with this; the scriptures consistently present Jesus as the son of the Most High, and never once as the Most High of whom he is presented as the son.

However, our trinitarian neighbor tells us that Jesus is revealed as Jehovah God in human form, and he provides a series of scriptures evidently with the thought that those scriptures support the assumption that Jesus is revealed as Jehovah in human form. We will be examining these scriptures one by one below, but we can say that in absolutely none of these scriptures do we find that Jesus is revealed at Jehovah God.

Isaiah 9:6

Isaiah 9:6 (Isaiah 9:5 in the JPS) - For a child is born unto us, a son is given unto us; and the government is upon his shoulder; and his name is called Pele-joez-el-gibbor-Abi-ad-sar-shalom; - JPS.

Isaiah 9:7 Of the increase of his government and of peace there shall be no end, on the throne of David, and on his kingdom, to establish it, and to uphold it with justice and with righteousness from henceforth even forever. The zeal of Yahweh [Jehovah] of Hosts will perform this. - World English

The verse speaks of a singular name, not a series of names as many like to make it out to be. The child born to Israel was Jesus, spoken of in Isaiah 9:6, and was given by Yahweh, who is spoken of in Isaiah 9:7. When it says the zeal of Jehovah will perform this, does "Jehovah" mean one person, or three persons? The trinitarian has to imagine and assume that Jehovah in verse seven speaks of one of their alleged persons of Jehovah, while the son given by the given the one person of Jehovah is another person of Jehovah. Luke 1:32 refers back to Isaiah 9:6,7, saying: "He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Most High. [Jehovah] God will give to him the throne of his father, David." Correlating this with Isaiah 9:6,7, Jehovah is the Most High who gives the son, who is the son of the Most High in Luke 1:32. It should be self-evident that the "Most High" in Luke 1:32 means one person, and not three persons, and that "the son" is not being included as "Most High." Some imagine, assume, add to, and read into this, that Luke 1:32 applies the imagined their "dual nature" theory, and that "son" here must be referring only to the human nature of the son, and not his "nature" as the Most High. Often these same trinitarians will turn right around and say that "Son of God" means that the "Son" has the nature of the only Most High, without realizing the self-contradiction. Others have used the spirit of human imaginations so as to claim that "Most High" simply refers to the Father as the Most High, and that the "son" is still another person of the Most High. Of course, again, this has to be imagined and assumed beyond what is written, since no such idea is anywhere presented in the Bible. In reality, the Bible is totally and completely harmonious without using the spirit of human imagination so as to assume and add the idea of a triune God to the scriptures.

As far as Isaiah 9:6,7 is concerned, there is nothing in the verse that reveals the son given to Israel by Jehovah is being Jehovah, or a person of Jehovah. It does not say that Jehovah gave himself as the son to Israel; indeed, Jehovah is distinguished from His son in the two verses. The idea that Jehovah became a human being has to be imagined in the spirit of human imagination, the imaginative assumption has to be added to, and read into, what is stated. A God of three persons is definitely not revealed in Isaiah 9:6,7.

CLICK HERE for links to more information on our websites.


Micah 5:2

Micah 5:2 - But you, O Bethlehem Eph'rathah, who are little to be among the clans of Judah, from you shall come forth for me one who is to be ruler in Israel, whose origin is from of old, from ancient days. (Revised Standard)
Micah 5:3 Therefore he will abandon them until the time that she who is in labor gives birth. Then the rest of his brothers will return to the children of Israel.
Micah 5:4 He shall stand, and shall shepherd in the strength of Yahweh, In the majesty of the name of Yahweh his God: And they will live, for then he will be great to the ends of the earth.

Again, we find nothing that reveals Jesus as the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob except that one would wish to make it appear to be so. Actually, in the context, Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is distinguished from the "ruler", and we are told this ruler (Jesus) will shepherd in the strength of his God, Jehovah. Thus, Jesus, rather than being depicted as the Most High, is shown to be receiving his strength from the Most High. Thus in Micah 5:4, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Yahweh) is identified as one person and also as the God of Jesus.

Many translations, based on the assumption that Jesus is God, and thus assuming that he had no beginning, like to render Micah 5:2 in some form that would have have Jesus as having no beginning, and by this they would seek to offer Micah 5:2 as proof of their trinitarian dogma. However, it is only in this verse that many trinitarians would like the Hebrew phrase used to mean such, since in all of verses where the phrase is use in the Hebrew, it is rendered in the King James Version and many other translations similar to the way the Revised Standard Version has rendered the phrase in Micah 5:2. Thus, this argument ends up being circular, as we have shown on our other websites.

We have written in more detail concerning Micah 5:2 at:

Isaiah 7:14

Isaiah 7:14 Therefore [Jehovah] himself will give you a sign: behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

His name, Immanuel, means that the God of Jesus is with us. Nothing in such a name means that the bearer of the name is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. There is definitely nothing in the name Immanuel that says anything about Jesus' being the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, nor is there anything in Isaiah 7:14 about Yahweh being more than one person.

See:

****below still needs to be edited...
John 1:14

John 1:14 The Word became flesh, and lived among us. We saw his glory, such glory as of the only Son of the Father, full of grace and truth. (World English)

Yes, the mighty (theos) Word of Jehovah became, or was made, flesh. Having a sinless human body separate from the condemned world (kosmos), he had the full sinless glory of his God as a human being, having the glory "a little lower than the angels". (Romans 3:23; Hebrews 2:9) In the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), he was not of this condemned world, just as his followers, being counted as new creatures, sons of God, are not of this condemned world. -- Matthew 1:20; John 8:23; 17:24; Romans 5:12-19; 2 Corinthians 5:17,21; Philippians 2:15; Galatians 1:4;  Hebrews 7:26; 10:5; 1 Peter 1:4; 2:22; 1 John 3:5.

John 8:58

Jesus declares his existence before Abraham; Jesus did not say that he was the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Jesus was certainly NOT declaring his name to be EHJEH of Exodus 3:14, nor is there anything inherent in the verb eimi that means eternal.

John 17:5

Jesus speaks of his glory that he had with the only true God (John 17:3) before the world (kosmos) of mankind was made, and asks the only true God that he might again receive that glory from the only Most High; he says absolutely nothing about having the glory that only belongs to the Most High. Indeed, if this glory were to designate him as the Most High, then this would mean that he did not have the glory of being the Most High while he was on earth, which would be contrary the claims of the trinitarian dogma. Actually, Paul explains the two general levels of glory as the celestial and terrestrial, but he does not mix the two glories. (1 Corinthians 15:40) Jesus did indeed have the mighty celestial glory (John 1:1) with the only true Supreme Being (John 17:3) before he was made flesh, but while he was in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), he did not have that glory.

Exodus 3:14

Exodus 3:14 tells of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob designating his name in two different verb forms, often transliterated as EHJEH, JEHOVAH, to Moses. EHJEH and JEHOVAH are two forms of the same name.
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/exodus.html#exo3-14


Hebrews 1:3

"God" is one person, nor more than one person in Hebrews 1:1-3:


Philippians 2:11

Every tongue is to confess that Jesus is Anointed of Jehovah, that Jehovah has made him lord, to the glory of Jehovah; nothing in this means that Jesus is Jehovah. -- Isaiah 61:1; Acts 2:36.
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/philippians.html#phil2-5

Colossians 2:9

Jehovah has given the plentitude of mightiness to Jesus in his mighty spiritual body so that he may carry out the work that Jehovah has given to him. (Colossians 2:10) Nothing in this means that Jesus is Jehovah.
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/colossians.html#col2-9

Revelation 1:8,17-18
Revelation 1:8 quotes the "one God" of Jesus that is spoken of the context.

Jesus was the first and the last firstborn from the dead. When the trinitarian applies his added-on "dual nature" theory to try to explain "the first and the last" as meaning God Most High, he finds himself in a self-contradiction, since they essentially be claiming that the alleged "God nature" "was dead".
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/revelation.html#rev1-8

Our trinitarian neighbor claims that the deity of Jesus Christ is one of the cornerstones of Christianity. While we do not contradict the deity of Jesus in the power, the strength, that he has received from his God, in harmony with the Hebraic usage of the word for deity, the trinitarian goes beyond the Biblical usage to proclaim that Jesus' deity means that he is the Most High. In actuality, this doctrine was proclaimed so by men who perverted the ransom sacrifice of Jesus and replaced that ransom sacrifice with a doctrine that had to imagined by means of the spirit of human imagination, that has to formulated into dogma, and then that dogma has to be added to, and read into, the scriptures.
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/diety.html


Regarding Submitting to the JW leadership: We are not with the JWs, and thus have no reason to submit to their leadership. We do not proclaim the scriptural truths of the Bible because of what Arius stated (Who today knows for sure what Arius taught, since practically everything he wrote was systematically destroyed by the Athanasian sect). Nor do we proclaim the scriptural truths simply because of what Russell, the JWs, or anyone else may say. Our conclusions are our own, whether they agree or disagree with Russell, Arius, or the Watchtower Society. We proclaim the Bible truth because we have personally examined the scriptures to see if Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, and found nothing in the scriptures that shows him to be such. We have personally examined the scriptures to see if the trinitarian dogma can be harmonized the the scriptural basis of Christ's sacrifice, and found that it cannot be so harmonized with that fundamental doctrine of salvation. Thus, the trinitarians have created a series of assumptions beyond what is written that have to a great extent supplanted the scriptural basis of our redemption.

Yes, the testimony of the scripture stands sure: Jesus is indeed the son of the Most High; he is not the Most High of whom he is the son. Jesus did indeed give himself, his human flesh, soul, body, blood, once for all eternity as a ransom sacrifice for sin, which sacrifice the trinitarian dogma would logically end up denying. The scriptures presented by our trinitarian neighbor offers nothing at all to silence the overall testimony of the scriptures pertaining to the "ransom for all," nor do they give any proof at all that Jesus is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Scriptures such as Deuteronomy 6:4; Isaiah 44:6; 1 Timothy 1:17, let us know that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is one, not three. This one person is the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. Praise Yahweh! Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus, who is "one God" and Father of all. -- Exodus 3:6,13,14,15; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 103:1; Isaiah 61:1; John 17:3; 2 Corinthians 11:31; Ephesians 1:3; 4:6; 1 Peter 1:3.

Added May 28, 2010

Our trinitarian neighbor has responded that we have failed to disprove Christ's deity. Evidently the studies linked to above have been ignored; nevertheless, we have no desire to disprove Christ's deity, but rather we show that the Hebrew/Greek words for deity are used of others than Jehovah and false gods.
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/diety.html

However, the default assumption is that Jesus is not the only true God, since he plainly stated that he was sent by the only true God. (John 17:1,3) Thus the onus is on the one who claims otherwise to prove such. It is not for us to prove that Jesus is not the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, although the scriptures over and over and over and over distinguish between the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and the one sent by the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and one sent by the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, as we have shown in the links provided.
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/2016/09/jesusnotjah.html

Our trinitarian neighbor asks regarding Isaiah 9:6, "if this is not a prophecy regarding Christ and his identity..then who?" It is indeed a prophecy regarding Christ as the one sent by Jehovah of hosts (Isaiah 9:7), as we have explained in the studies linked; the singular name, however, describes the God of the one sent, not the one being sent.
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/mighty-god.html

Regarding Immanuel:
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/isaiah.html#isa7-14

Tuesday, March 16, 2010

Is Jesus God and Did Jesus Claim to be God (Supreme Being)?

The post is in response to a post on Bruner's Chapel Blog. We will not be discussing each scripture or each assertion in length here, but will be giving links to where the scriptures and points have been discussed before.

By the word "God", we are assuming that the author of the post is referring to the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and not to the usage of the words for "God" in a more general sense of mightiness by which it may be applied to others than the only true God.

See our study on
The Usage of the Titles for "God."

The author expresses amazement that so many do not "get it" that Jesus is God. One should actually be amazed that so many are being deluded into believing that Jesus is the only true God, but that Jesus is not the only true God who is his God, and that the only true God of Jesus is not Jesus, etc.

Eight Scriptures Alleged to Present Jesus as Theos

The Blog presents eight scriptures claimed to be scriptures where the Greek word THEOS is used of Jesus, and this is evidently offered as proof that Jesus is the only true God, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. As shown in the study linked to above, however, based on Biblical usage of forms of the Hebrew words EL and the Greek word THEOS, the usage of the words for deity as applied to others than Jehovah does not designate any others as being the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and the same principle applies in the very, very few cases where such words may be applied to the son of the Most High. (Luke 1:32) Such words applied to the son of the Most High does not designate the son of the Most High as the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Nevertheless, some of the scriptures presented as having theos applied to Jesus are disputed, even among some trinitarian scholars.

The eight scriptures presented:

John 1:1-3; John 1:18; John 20:28; Romans 9:5; Titus 2:13; Hebrews 1:8; 1 John 5:20.

Regarding John 1:1-3,18; 20:28, click here to see links to studies,

Click below for other studies regarding the other scritpures:

Romans 9:5 – Who is Over All

Titus 2:13 – The Great God

Hebrews 1:8 – Why is Jesus called “Elohim” and “Theos”? Psalm 45:6,7

2 Peter 1:1 – Our God and Savior

1 John 5:20 – This is the True God

It is claimed that the New Testament affirms the deity of Jesus by calling him Yahweh (Jehovah). In reality, no New Testament scripture calls Jesus Yahweh  (Jehovah). It is evidently assumed that we are deny Jesus' diety. Actually, we accept the deity of Christ, as far as applying the Hebraic words for "deity" (forms of the words often transliterated as EL and THEOS) to Christ in harmony with the way that those words are used the Bible, but Christ's deity does not mean that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

It is further claimed that Old Testament prophecies concerning Yahweh (Jehovah) are quoted in the New Testament as being references to Jesus. Some scriptures are given to support this claim: Malachi 3:1 and Luke 1:76; Joel 2:32 and Romans 10:13; Isaiah 45:23 and Romans 14:10; Psalm 45:6 and Hebrews 1:8,9. In reality, none of these offer proof that Jesus is Yahweh.

See the following studies:

Isaiah 40:3 - Malachi 3:1 - The Sent Messenger and His Message

Romans 10:13 – Whoever Will Call On the Name of Yahweh

Hebrews 1:8 – Why is Jesus called “Elohim” and “Theos”? Psalm 45:6,7

It is stated that the angels worship Jesus, and that the angels refuse to receive worship, and yet Jesus willingly receives worship, evidently with the thought that this means that Jesus is Jehovah. The following scriptures are given: Hebrews 1:6; Revelation 19:10; Matthew 2:11, 14:33, 28:9, 17; Luke 24:52; John 9:38.

As we present in our studies, in both the Biblical Hebrew and the Greek the words for "worship" are used of many people; at the same time, there there is a form of worship -- worship in the highest sense -- that is only due to the Most High. Of course, an angel should refuse worship when he has reason to believe that such homage is being given as should only be given to his God. There is no evidence that in the scriptures cited that Jesus received the worship that belongs exclusively to the Most High. Indeed, if one actually reads what is happening in the scriptures, those who gave homage to Jesus did so for various reasons, none of which is said to recognize Jesus as the Most High God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

See the following studies concerning this:

Worship of Jesus (Links)

In reality, from Genesis to Revelation, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, is never presented as more than one person, but is always presented as one person. In all of the scriptures claimed to present otherwise, the great spirit of human imagination has be consulted, and the resulting imaginations and assumptions have to added to, and read into, each and every scripture to get the added-on dogma appear to be supported by the scripture.

The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, by means of his holy spirit, reveals through the scriptures that He Himself (Jehovah/Yahweh) is the only true God, the unipersonal God and Father of the Lord Jesus. Jesus has One who is the Supreme Being over him; Jesus is not his Supreme Being whom he worships, prays to, and who sent him, and whose will he carried out in willful obedience. (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 [Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4]; Matthew 4:7 [Deuteronomy 6:16]; Matthew 4:10 [Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8]; Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 [Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23]; Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12)

The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, by means of His holy spirit, reveals through the scriptures that Jesus is the firstborn creature, existing with his God and Father — whom he identifies as “the only true God”, before the world began. — John 1:1; 6:62; 17:1,3,5; Colossians 1:15; Revelaton 3:14.

The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, by means of his holy spirit, reveals through the scriptures that Jesus was sent by Jehovah, Jesus speaks for Jehovah as being one person who is his God and Father, Jesus represents Jehovah, and Jesus was raised and glorified by one person who the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Jesus never claimed to be, nor do the scriptures present Jesus as, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, whom Jesus represents and speaks for. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 22:32; 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; 12:26; Luke 13:35; 20:37; John 3:2,17,32-35; 4:34; 5:19,30,36,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; 20:17; Acts 2:22,34-36; 3:13-26; 5:30; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 8:6; 11:31; Colossians 1:3,15; 2:9-12; Hebrews 1:1-3; Revelation 1:1.

The default reasoning is that Jesus is NOT Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who sanctified and sent His son into the world of mankind. -- Isaiah 61:1; John 3:17; 5:36,37; 6:38,57; 8:42; 10:36; 17:1,3; Romans 8:3; Galatians 4:4; 1 John 4:9-14.