Wednesday, May 17, 2017

John 1:1 and Trinity Assumptions

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God [TON THEON], and the Word was God [THEOS]. The same was in the beginning with God [TON THEON]. -- John 1:1,2, World English - transliterations from the Westcott & Hort Interlinear.

In order to get trinity into John 1:1, the trinitarian has to assume and read into the verse several things: (1) That Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, is more than one person; (2) that Jesus is a person of God; (3) that two persons of the trinity-god are being spoken of here, and (4) that God whom the Logos was with is their alleged "first person" of the trinity, and (5) that THEOS applied to the Logos is their alleged "second person" of the trinity. Then, (6) they have to add to these assumptions that these two alleged persons of their trinity are both the same one true God, and not two Gods (as it actually reads in most translations). Rather than assuming and adding such to the scriptures, it is best to simply let the scriptures have their own say, applying spiritual revealing with spiritual revealing. -- 1 Corinthians 2:10,13.

The word THEOS is being applied to the LOGOS in John 1:1, but this does not mean that John was saying that Jesus was the only true God whom the LOGOS was with, as it should be apparent since twice John states that the LOGOS was with God. Jesus declares that One whom he was with before the world was made was the only true God (John 17:1,3,5), thus the scriptures make it plain that John is not saying that the Logos was the only true God whom the Logos was with. Paul distinguishes Jesus from being the "one God" of whom are all in 1 Corinthians 8:6. The God of Abraham, Isaaac, and Jacob, who spoke through the prophets of old, is presented as only one person and distinguished from his Son in Hebrews 1:1,2. Isaiah 61:1,2 and Micah 5:4 presents Jehovah as the ELOHIM (God) of the Messiah. The default scriptural reasoning should be that Jesus is not Jehovah, his God. Therefore, the term THEOS as applied to the Logos should be applied with the general meaning of the Hebraic words for deity/divinity (forms of EL, ELOHIM), that is, of strength, power, or might.

While most translations render "kai theos een ho logos" as "the Word was God," Moffat renders this phrase as "the Word was divine." Julius Mantey declares that the phrase means "the Word was deity." We should have no objection to rendering theos as divine or deity, if one applies the terms divine and deity with the general meaning of strength, might, power, rather than as Supreme Being -- the Might of the Universe. James Parkinson, in his footnote of the American Revised Version Improved and Corrected, suggests "mighty was the Word." This would be the better rendering, or a rendering such as "the Word was mighty," both of which would distinguish the Word from the only true God whom the Logos was with. This would be in agreement with the rest of the scriptures, where the words for deity / divinity are applied to persons (and even things) who are not Jehovah in a general sense of might, power or strength.

The best point to begin with to show this usage is with John 10:34,35, where Jesus quotes/references Psalms 82:1,6, where both forms of the Hebrew word EL and ELOHIM are applied to the sons of the Most High, the sons to whom the Logos came (as Jesus explained). In John 10:34,35, the word ELOHIM is rendered as THEOI, a plural form of THEOS. According to the King James Version, God [ELOHIM] standeth in the congregation of the mighty [EL]. (Psalm 82:1) In reference to the sons of the Most High, the KJV renders the term EL as "the mighty." I believe that the KJV is correct in this rendering. Applying this scriptural principle to THEOS in John 1:1, we would likewise have "the Logos was mighty", or the "the Logos was a mighty one". Jesus, before he became flesh with the earthly glory of a sinless man that is a little lower than the angels (Psalm 8:5; 1 Corinthians 15:39-41; Hebrews 2:9; 10:5), as indeed a mighty spirit being when he was with his God in the beginning of the world of mankind. -- John 17:1,3,5.

Of course, Psalm 82:1 is not the only place that the KJV renders forms of the words EL (Strong's Hebrew #410)  and ELOHIM (Strong's Hebrew #430) with terms showing mightiness or strength. Here are a few scriptures: Genesis 23:6 (mighty); Genesis 30:8 (mighty); Genesis 31:29 (power); Deuteronomy 28:32 (might); 1 Samuel 14:15 (great); Nehemiah 5:5 (power); Psalm 8:5 (angels); Psalm 36:6 (great); Proverbs 3:27 (power); Psalm 29:1 (mighty); Ezekiel 32:21 (strong); Jonah 3:3 (exceeding). The point is the King James translators, in all these verses, did not render the word for deity/divinity [EL] as "God" or as "god", but with terms of might, strength, great, power and might.

All of the spirit beings, by "nature" of the superior might given to them by the Almighty are scripturally designated as el or elohim, and thus can be spoken of as divine -- mighty -- in being. -- Psalm 8:5 (compare Hebrews 2:9; also Psalm 50:1 and 96:4 could be speaking of angels as elohim); 45:6,7; Isaiah 9:6,7; John 1:1,2; Acts 2:33; 5:31; Ephesians 1:20,22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2-4,8; 1 Peter 1:21; 3:22.

Likewise, the firstborn creature (Colossians 1:15), who existed before all the creation that was created by means of him (Colossians 1:17), can certainly also have the term theos applied to him without meaning that he is the only true God who sent him. Indeed, before he became a man, he "was" a mighty spirit being, having a heavenly glory that he did not possess while he was a human. -- John 17:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40.


By Ronald R. Day, Sr.



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3 comments:

  1. We now know that the correct reading for God's name is Yehovah. We blogged about how we know, though there is a few other things we've seen since which further support that reading:

    http://stanley-loper.blogspot.com/2017/03/i-am-lord-that-is-my-name.html

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    2. Actually, unless one is several thousand years old, and with a good memory, we can only come up with theories about how the Holy Name was originally pronounced. There are many theories out there, and in their own setting, they each sound plausible. However plausible a theory may appear, however, it could or could not actually represent the original sounding.

      In Bible times, Hebrew names did change in pronunciation in other languages, as they were adapted to the sound patterns common to each language. Since ancient Hebrew had not written vowels, what we today call "transliteration" was not possible. The Hebrew sounds had to to be adapted to sounds available in other languages.

      The Bible does not speak of one "correct" pronunciation of the Holy Name or any other Hebrew name applicable to all languages (which, in reality, would be difficult to apply, since not all languages have the same sound patterns). For instance, the beginning "Y" in some dialects is pronounced similar to the "J" sound in the French "Jacques."

      Such a demand for one "correct" pronunciation comes from man, not from God.
      http://nameofyah.blogspot.com/p/on-this-site.html

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