Tuesday, September 5, 2017

Romans 10:13 – Whoever Will Call On The Name Of Jehovah

“For, `Whoever will call on the name of Jehovah will be saved [Joel 2:32].'” — Romans 10:13
Some try to prove that Jesus is Jehovah (Yahweh) by pointing to Romans 10:13 and Joel 2:32. The argument is made that Paul is here calling Jesus “Lord”. Since this is a reference to Joel 2:32, where it tells us that whoever calls on the name of Jehovah will be delivered, trinitarians as well as oneness believers claim that this means that Jesus is the same (sentient?) being (or person, in the case of our “oneness” neighbors) as Jehovah. Some translations render Romans 10:13 as calling upon Jehovah (or, as some prefer, Yahweh).

The reality is that there is nothing in Romans 10 that warrants the idea that Jesus is Jehovah who spoke through the prophet Joel. Hebrews 1:1,2 shows that He who spoke to the prophets of old is only one person, and now that one person speaks through someone else who is not Himself, that is, His Son, the Lord Jesus.

Certainly, Jesus is the means that Jehovah has provided for salvation (John 3:16,17), no one can come to Jehovah but through Jesus (John 14:6), and no other means has been given by Jehovah for salvation than through the name of Jesus. (Acts 4:12) Jesus’ name means: “Jehovah saves” or “Jehovah is savior,” which ascribes the actual source of salvation to Jehovah, as all things are of Jehovah, through Jesus. (John 3:16; Romans 5:8,10; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 15:57; 2 Corinthians 5:19-21; Titus 3:5,6; Hebrews 13:21; 1 John 4:9,10) Thus to properly call upon the name of Jesus as the spokesperson and one anointed by Jehovah (Deuteronomy 18:15,18,19; Psalm 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Matthew 12:18; Luke 4:18,21; Acts 3:13-26), would essentially be the same as calling upon the name of Jehovah. (Matthew 10:14; Mark 9:37; Luke 9:48; John 13:20; Romans 1:8; 7:25; 14:26; Philippians 1:11; 2:11) But to ascertain whether Romans 10:13 is calling Jesus “Jehovah”, let us go through the tenth chapter of Romans briefly, to see exactly who Paul speaks of.

Romans 10:1: Brothers, my heart’s desire and my prayer to God is for Israel, that they may be saved.

In verse one, Paul says he prays to God for the salvation of Israel. Who is the God of Israel? This, of course, is Jehovah. (Exodus 3:14,15; 16:12; 20:2; 34:32) In the New Testament, we learn that the God of Israel — Jehovah — is the Father of Jesus. (Deuteronomy 18:15,18,19; Matthew 23:39; Luke 13:35; John 5:43; 8:54; 10:25; Hebrews 1:1,2) Paul thus recognizes Jehovah, the God of Israel as the source of salvation. The God of Israel is differentiated from being Jesus in Romans 10:9. Thus, the default reasoning is not to imagine and assume that Jesus is being called Jehovah in verse 13, but rather that the verse is actually speaking of the one person who is Jehovah who sent Jesus, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who raise Jesus from the dead. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3; Acts 3:13-26.

Romans 10:2: For I testify about them that they have a zeal for God, but not according to knowledge.”
Romans 10:3: For being ignorant of God’s righteousness, and seeking to establish their own righteousness, they didn’t subject themselves to the righteousness of God.”
Romans 10:4: For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.

In these verses, Paul discusses Israel’s relationship with God — Jehovah. He says that they are ignorant of God’s righteousness (Romans 3:22), and sought to make themselves righteous by means of obedience to the Law. Then he reveals that the righteousness of God is in Christ, who is the end of the law [covenant] to everyone who believes.
See:
How God’s Son Condemned Sin in the Flesh

Romans 10:5: For Moses writes about the righteousness of the law, “The one who does them will live by them.”

Paul is still speaking about the relationship of Israel with Jehovah, the God of Israel. Anyone who could keep the Law would be totally righteous, having the right to life thereby. If it were possible to do so, then righteousness and life would have come by the Law. — Galatians 3:21.

Romans 10:6: But the righteousness which is of faith says this, “Don’t say in your heart, ‘Who will ascend into heaven?’ (that is, to bring Christ down);
Romans 10:7: or, ‘Who will descend into the abyss?’ (that is, to bring Christ up from the dead.)”

Those who seek righteousness by faith are, to the extent that God permits, not hidden from the truth. It is not something far off in heaven or in the grave. Those of faith do not have go to heaven to find the Anointed One of Jehovah, nor do they have to go to the grave to try to bring him back from the dead. This thing is not hidden from the one of faith, neither is it afar off — difficult to understand. (See also: Deuteronomy 30:11-14; notice that Paul is not directly quoting Deuteronomy, but he does use similar phraseology.)

Nevertheless, we should note that in this Paul is still writing about the relationship of Israel with the God of Israel, Jehovah. He is showing that the proper way to obtain the righteousness of God is through faith, which he goes on to show is through faith in the ransom sacrifice given by the one whom Jehovah has anointed and sent, that is, Jesus. The only way to be reconciled to Jehovah, the God of Israel is through the one whom Jehovah sent. -- John 14:6; Romans 5:10,12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 2 Corinthians 5:18,19; 1 Timothy 2:5,6; 1 John 2:2.

Romans 10:8: But what does it say? “The word is near you, in your mouth, and in your heart;” that is, the word of faith, which we preach:
Romans 10:9: that if you will confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus, and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Here Paul points out the way to Jehovah’s righteousness as provided through Jesus. (John 3:17; Romans 3:22-24; 5:1,9,10; 2 Corinthians 5:18; Galatians 4:7; 1 Thessalonians 5:9) Paul, as usual, presents "|God' as one person who is not Jesus. We must remember that it is Jehovah who made Jesus “Lord” and “Christ” [Christ means “anointed one”] (Psalm 2:2; 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Acts 2:36) Many read this verse as though only Jesus is spoken of, but we note the context is about Jehovah, the God of Israel, and the salvation he provides through Jesus. “God” in Romans 10:9 refers to only one person, the same person Paul wrote about in 1 Corinthians 8:6 as being the source of all, He who is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob of Exodus 3:14,15 and Acts 3:13-26.

Romans 10:10: For with the heart, one believes unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
Romans 10:11: For the scripture says, “Whoever believes in him will not be put to shame.”

In Romans 10:11, Paul uses language similar to that of Isaiah 28:16: “So, the Lord Jehovah says this: Behold, I place in Zion a Stone for a foundation, a tried Stone, a precious Cornerstone, a sure Foundation; he who believes shall not hasten.” (Green’s Literal) Here is it Jehovah who is the provider of the sure foundation, and then he tells us that he who believes in him, that is, in the foundation provided by Jehovah, shall not be in haste. The one of faith does not have to be anxious about trying to find any other source or any other way of salvation, for it is found in the sure foundation provided by Jehovah, nor does the one of faith in this sure foundation have any reason to have any hint of disappointment or shame in the foundation provided by Jehovah. It is still to Jehovah, not to Jesus, that Israel needs to be reconciled to. Jesus, however, is the only way any can be reconciled to Jehovah, Jesus' God and Father. -- Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3.

Romans 10:12: For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, and is rich to all who call on him.

Here the apostle joins the God of Israel — the God and Father of Jesus — with the believing Greeks (representing those outside the law covenant). Jehovah is the same Lord (the One spoken of as Adonay [or, Adonai] in Isaiah 28:16 just referenced) over all, and will richly bless all who call on him. We believe it probable that in the first instance of "Lord" the copyists changed the Holy Name of God to a form of the word often transliterated as Kurios.* If so, then this should read "the same Jehovah is Lord of all," showing that Jehovah is Lord, not only of the Jew, but also of Greek. At any rate, the “Lord of all” is here evidently referring, not to Jesus, but rather the Lord Jehovah of Isaiah 61:1, He who anointed Jesus, making Jesus both Christ and Lord. — Acts 2:36.
*Links to some of our studies related the Holy Name in the New Testament.

Romans 10:13: For, “Whoever will call on the name of Jehovah will be saved.”

This brings us to the scripture in question. As it reads in the extant manuscripts, a word-for-word translation would be: "Whoever for that shall call upon the name of Lord will be saved." The Greek texts do not have a definite article before Kyriou (a form of Kurios, meaning Lord), which could mean that Kyriou has replaced God's Holy Name in Romans 10:13. If Paul was quoting Joel 2:36, then Paul here makes reference to whoever will call upon the name of Jehovah will be saved. If we consider scriptures leading up to this scripture, it supports the probability that Paul is making reference to Jehovah, the God of Israel, with whom both Jew and Gentile need reconciliation. That reconciliation, however, as the apostle points out, is by faith, not by the keeping of the law.  Definitely, however, if Paul was quoting Joel 2:36, we find that God's Holy Name has been changed to Kyriou  (meaning Lord) in Romans 10:13. The conclusion we come to is that throughout the New Testament, later copyists changed God's Holy Name to other words such as forms of Kurios. While we highly doubt that Paul himself substituted  a form of “Kurios” here for God’s name, even if he did it does not mean that he was not referring to Jehovah for it is Jehovah -- not Jesus -- with whom both Jew and Gentile needs to be reconciled (Romans 5:9,10), and it is from Jehovah, the Father, that a means for salvation has been provided, that is, through his Son, Jesus. — Acts 10:43; 20:21; John 3:17; 6:44; Hebrews 1:1,2.

On the other hand, if Paul was referring to the calling upon the name of the Lord Jesus, then it could mean that he was not quoting Joel 2:36, but simply making a statement regarding the one whom Jehovah sent to be our Savior. Nevertheless, Paul could have simply meant that the only way to call upon Jehovah is through Jesus.

However, in the Greek manuscripts of the New Testament, when it is referring to calling upon the name of the Lord Jesus, one usually finds the definite article before Kurios, but we do not find this in Romans 10:13.  

Romans 10:14: How, then, shall they call on him whom they have not believed? And how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? And shall they hear without a preacher?

Again in verse 14 the thought is primarily of Jehovah, who sent his Son. No one can call upon Jehovah if they don’t believe in him through his Son, Jesus. (Romans 3:22-24; 5:1,11; 7:25; 14:26) The vast majority have never come to Jehovah, he who provided the “ransom for all” through the offering of the man, Christ Jesus, which will be testified, made known, in due time. (1 Timothy 2:5,6) Thus, in due time, all heathen will hear, and they will all be brought to a knowledge of Jehovah and his Son Christ Jesus in the age to come. — Isaiah 2:2-4.
See:
Mankind’s Course to the Day of Judgment

What we do not find in Romans 10, or anywhere else in the Bible, is the concept of a triune God. No such God is ever revealed in the Bible. Nor, does Romans 10 reveal the concept that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob of Exodus 3:14,15, as many read into several scriptures. If Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who spoke through Moses and the prophets, then, to be consistent, one would have to reason that it is Jesus in Hebrews 1:1,2 who speaks through his son, which of course, is not true.

ADDENDUM

"Name of the Lord" in the Greek

The expression, the name of the Lord, as it appears in most translations may be found at: Matthew 21:9; 23:39; Mark 11:9; Luke 13:35; 19:38; John 12:13; Acts 2:21; 8:16; 9:28; 10:48; 19:5,17; 21:13; 22:16; Romans 10:13; 1 Corinthians 6:11; Colossians 3:17; James 5:10, and some other places, depending on the translation being used. For instance, translations based on the Textus Receptus may also have it at Mark 11:10. It is interesting to note that in Matthew 21:9; 23:39; Mark  11:9,10; Luke 13:35; 19:38; John 12:13; Acts 2:21; Romans 10:13; Colossians 3:17, 2 Timothy 2:19; and James 5:10, the Greek word KURIOS is anarthrous, without a definite article. This means that in the Greek the phrase is not "name of the Lord," but rather "name of Lord." The Greek phrase for "name of the Lord" -- with the Greek article before KURIOS -- is found at: Acts 5:26; 19:13,17; 21:31; 1 Corinthians 1:2; 5:4l; 6:11; 1 Thessalonians 1:12; James 5:14. In looking at all these scriptures, we find that usually, when the Holy Name has been changed to KURIOS, it is indefinite, without the definite article, whereas, usually, when it is referring to the Lord Jesus, KURIOS is definite, with the definite article. There are exceptions, but there may be other reasons for the lack of the definite article or the use of the definite article beyond designating a proper name or not. 

by Ronald R. Day, Senior -- Restoration Light (ResLight; RlBible) Bible Study Services



Saturday, September 2, 2017

Jeremiah 31:9 – Ephraim As Jehovah’s Firstborn

They shall come with weeping; and with petitions will I lead them: I will cause them to walk by rivers of waters, in a straight way in which they shall not stumble; for I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is my firstborn. — Jeremiah 31:9, World English.

Jeremiah 31:9 (often associated with Genesis 41:51,52) is often quoted as a scripture that is suggested to mean that firstborn means something other than the usual meaning of firstborn in reference to Colossians 1:15.

Genesis 41:51,52 - And Joseph called the name of the first-born Manasseh; for he said, God has made me forget all my toil, and all the house of my father.[52] And the name of the second he called Ephraim; for he said, God has made me fruitful in the land of my affliction.

In Genesis 41, we find that Joseph refers to Manasseh his firstborn and to Ephraim as his secondborn.  The word "firstborn" is certainly not being used here with a meaning of Preeminent One. The actual first to be brought forth of Joseph's sons was Manasseh. In one of our studies on Colossians 1:15, we point out that firstborn of a living group always includes the firstborn in the group of which he is the firstborn. Manasseh was certainly a member of the sons of Joseph. The default meaning of firstborn refers to the first to be brought forth. Trinitarians and some others claim that Jesus was never brought for into existence at any time. What about Manasseh. Was he never brought forth into existence? Obviously, Manasseh certainly was indeed brought forth into being, hence was a creation. He certainly was not never a member of the sons of Joseph. Likewise , in Colossians 1:15, the default reasoning should be that Jesus was a member of "every creature" of God, and that Jesus was actually brought forth into existence.

However, Jeremiah 31:7-9 is often thought to contradict what is said in Genesis 41:51,52:

For so says Jehovah, Sing with gladness for Jacob, and shout among the head of the nations. Cry out, give praise and say, O Jehovah, save Your people, the remnant of Israel.[8] Behold! I will bring them from the north country, and gather them from the recesses of the earth. Among them the blind, and the lame, the pregnant one, and the travailing one together, a great company shall return here.[9] They shall come with weeping, and I will lead them with prayers. I will cause them to walk by rivers of waters, in a right way; they will not stumble in it. For I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is My first-born.

The reasoning of some is that in Genesis 41:51,52 Manasseh is firstborn and Ephraim is the secondborn, but in Jeremiah 31 Ephraim is firstborn, not the secondborn. In some vague way this is thought to mean that firstborn applied to Jesus in Colossians 1:15 does not mean that Jesus is was the first creature to be brought forth. 

This, of course, overlooks several things.

First, it appears that in Jeremiah, it is not Joseph who is calling Ephraim his firstborn, but rather it is Jehovah, so the group is not the same in both scriptures. In Jeremiah 31:9, the group is not the sons of Joseph as such. It is in reference to the ten tribes of the northern kingdom, often called "Ephraim," as opposed to the two tribes often referred to as "Judah." The reference is regarding future blessings. 

Second, in neither scripture is the firstborn not a member of the group of which he is being designated as firstborn.

Third, in neither scripture does it mean the that firstborn was never brought forth into being.

Concerning Jeremiah 31:9, John Gill wrote:

The allusion, perhaps, is to Joseph’s having the birthright, and whose younger son, Ephraim, was preferred to Manasseh the elder, (1 Chronicles 5:2) (Genesis 48:14 Genesis 48:20) . Ephraim intends the same as Israel, the ten tribes, and includes the whole body of the Jewish nation.

Some claim that one of the tribes of the northern kingdom is here called “firstborn”, evidently with the suggestion that this does not mean that there was a beginning related to this usage of firstborn, and thus the same idea should be applied to Colossians 1:15. We should note that Ephraim, as used here, stands for the entire northern kingdom of Israel, and not to the one tribe. (2 Chronicles 25:7; Jeremiah 7:15) Additionally, Israel is used here by extension to the very formation of the entire 12-tribed nation of Israel, whom Jehovah calls his firstborn. Israel was Jehovah’s firstborn son as a covenant nation. (Exodus 4:22; Hosea 11:1; Romans 9:4) There was a time when Israel did not exist, thus there is no suggestion here that firstborn is being used as without a beginning. Therefore, Israel was “brought forth” as God’s first son as a covenant nation. There is nothing in the language of Jeremiah 31:9 to warrant the conclusion that in Colossians 1:15 firstborn means anything other than the meaning of the word, first to be born or brought forth in the class being referred to.

Nevertheless, if the right of the firstborn is taken from one and given to another (Genesis 25:31-34; Hebrews 12:16), this does not mean that the one who has been given the right of the firstborn was not brought forth into existence in the group being designated. Nor does it mean that the word firstborn itself is to be given the meaning of "preeminence". Preeminence in the Bible is given to whoever has the right of the firstborn, whether that person is the actual firstborn or has been designated as firstborn because the right of firstborn has been taken away from the actual firstborn.