Thursday, March 30, 2017

John 5:18 - The Jewish Leaders' "Cause" to Kill Jesus

For this cause therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only broke the Sabbath, but also called God his own Father, making himself equal with God. - John 5:18, World English
Unless otherwise stated, all quotations from the Bible are from
the World English Bible translation.
God's Holy Name is presented as "Jehovah,"
regardless of translation quoted.
.
(1) JESUS was in Judea, probably attending the Feast of the Passover, as was his custom, -- these annual gatherings constituting the very best opportunities for reaching the devout Jews from all parts of the Holy Land, and from surrounding countries.

(2) Our Lord, in his quiet Sabbath walk about Jerusalem, came to the Pool of Bethesda, which had a wonderful reputation for its healing qualities, on account of which its porches and sheds were crowded with sick people with divers ailments, waiting to take advantage of what was considered to be a miraculous action in its waters. The intermittent movement of the water of the Bethesda Pool is referred to in John 5:7, but the explanation about the angel troubling the waters, etc., contained in the last seven words of the third verse, and all of the fourth verse, is omitted from the oldest Greek MSS. (the Sinaitic and Vatican). There was probably nothing whatever miraculous connected with the spring, but some peculiarity of the channel, which caused the water from one compartment to syphon out into the other at intervals; or possibly the action was caused by gas. The healings experienced were quite probably what today would be termed mind cures, a beneficial action of the mind and will upon the physical organism.

(3) We do not know that the Lord made any movement toward the general healing of the multitude who were waiting for the movement of the Pool, and hoping for relief; nor do we know that he extended his beneficence to any, except the one whose healing is the subject of this lesson, who was more helpless than the majority, and whose case was apparently hopeless, in that it was chronic, of thirty-eight years standing. It was to this heart-sick and weary one, hopeless and helpless, that the Lord addressed himself, "Do you want to be made well?" (John 5:6) The man answered, not knowing that he was speaking to the Son of God: "Sir, I have no one to put me into the pool when the water is stirred up, but while I'm coming, another steps down before me." (John 5:7) Jesus did not ask the man: "Do you have faith in me?" He simply told the man: "Arise, take up your mat, and walk." (John 5:8) Jesus allowed the man's faith to be testified by his obedience: and exercising the faith, astonished and bewildered, he obeyed, taking up his couch, not even knowing his benefactor.

(4) So it is with the greater miracles performed by our Lord throughout this Gospel age -- some of the weakest and most hopelessly powerless for good are morally healed, strengthened, renewed, transformed, through the operation of faith and obedience. Yet such cases are but few compared to the world of mankind, similarly or even less diseased with sin, who are all eventually during the Millennium) to be made acquainted with the Great Physician.

(5) This miracle brought upon Jesus the opposition of the Pharisees, who, because of a wrong attitude of heart, mistook the real object and purpose of the Sabbath day, and tacking on to the divine command the tradition of the elders (Mark 7:31), had made of it a mere outward form, robbing it of its true thought. The added traditional rulings of the Jewish leaders were considered to essentially be the Law, but Jesus showed that what they actually did was to make void the true Law. (Matthew 15:1-9; Mark 7:3-16) We are not to consider that our Lord performed so many of his miracles on the Sabbath, apparently in preference to other days, as signifying any disrespect to the day, nor as signifying a desire to provoke the Pharisees. Rather, we may suppose that the performance of the notable miracles on this day was largely in order to thus point out the great Seventh Day Sabbath, the Millennial Day, the seventh thousand-year period of earth's history, when the antitypical and far greater miracles and blessings will come to mankind.

(6) In Matthew 26:4, we read: "They took counsel together that they might take Jesus by deceit, and kill him." In Mark 14:1, we find: "It was now two days before the feast of the Passover and the unleavened bread, and the chief priests and the scribes sought how they might seize him by deception, and kill him." Here, these religious leaders found their deceptive cause for which to kill Jesus. (John 5:16,18) The conduct of the Jews, in wishing to kill one who, according to their own testimony, had done nothing amiss, but had done much good, simply because he interpreted the Law differently, and disregarded the "traditions of the elders," is a parallel to the opposition which is sometimes manifested by present-day Christians -- sectarians of the strictest sort. They might not indeed seek literally to kill the one who would do violence to their theories and traditions, but many of them would have very little hesitancy in assassinating his character, if thereby they could defend the falsities of their systems.

(7) Jesus did not fit the preconceived notions of these Jewish leaders of what the Messiah should be. "He is despised and rejected of men," wrote the Prophet Isaiah (53:3). "His visage was so marred", so different, from what they expected. (Isaiah 52:14) Jesus' works and humility seemed to them an insult to the importance they placed upon themselves. And, they hated Jesus the more because of the works he did in God's name. (John 10:25,32) Thus they sought any kind of deceptive "cause" or reason to kill Jesus. Thus, they, of course, came up with their "reasons", but Jesus himself revealed the real reasons they sought to kill him. (Matthew 21:38; Mark 12:7; John 8:37; 10:32) In no wise is the accusation of these Jewish leaders true. Even from a trinitarian standpoint, they are not true, since, according to trinitarian philosophy, Jesus was not simply a man making himself to be God, for they believe that Jesus is and always has been God, thus there would be no need for him to "make himself" be God.

(8) Thus John wrote: "For this cause the Jews persecuted Jesus, and sought to kill him, because he did these things on the Sabbath." (John 5:16) Please note that John does not say their "cause" was right, or that Jesus actually broke the Sabbath. John simply presents the "cause" or argument that these Jews were using, evidently to make it appear that Jesus was to be condemned under the Law. From Matthew 26:4 and Mark 14:1 we see that this was a deceptive argument. We read in Matthew that Jesus asks them: "Why do you think evil in your hearts?" (Matthew 9:4) In John we read that Jesus said: "My Father is still working, so I am working, too." (John 5:17) Jesus refers to the work that his Father had given him to do. (John 5:36; 10:25,32) Nothing is said by Jesus about his works being equal to the works of God, and that from this we know that Jesus is God. In actuality, Jesus is saying that God was the source of his power to perform the works of healing on the sabbath, that as God did not cease from doing this work, therefore Jesus, as God's Son, does continue to do these works also. Jesus often referred to his Father as God (John 6:27,45; 8:54; 10:36; 13:3; 20:17); this shows that Jesus is not Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, whom he refers to as his Father. -- Matthew 22:32; Mark 12:26; Luke 20:37.

(9) Nevertheless, our Lord's reply respecting his authority gave them more of a deceptive "cause" to seek to kill Jesus, for they did not wish to understand what he was saying, but they were looking for some "cause" in his words whereby they might kill him by deception. In his words, however, Jesus had not declared himself to be God Almighty, as many seem to think; this was not the real reason for the anger of these Jewish leaders, but they were angry because he declared himself to be the Son of Jehovah, who had been given a work to do by the Father. John wrote of them: "For this cause therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only broke the Sabbath, but also called God his own Father, making himself equal with God." (John 5:18) Whether or not the Jews actually understood what Jesus meant by "Son of God", their anger was because, in claiming to be the Son of God, he was claiming an honor and place so much higher than themselves -- a place which implied a closeness of relationship and of nature to Jehovah, a claim which they desire to appear to be blasphemous. The claim that he was making himself God was false, regardless of what "understanding" they may have had. Jesus had earlier said to them: "Why do you not understand what I say? It is because you cannot bear to hear my word." -- John 7:43.

(10) These Jews had already made up their minds to kill Jesus long before (Matthew 12:14; Mark 3:6; 11:18; Luke 4:28,29; 6:11; 19:47; John 5:18; 7:19,20; 8:37); now they were looking for a deceptive 'cause' (Greek, Aitia, Strong's #156; kategoria, Strong's #2723, #2724) to lyingly accuse to him by deception (Greek, dolos, Strong's #1388). (Matthew 12:10; 26:4; 14:1; Mark 3:2; 15:3; Luke 6:7; 11:54; 23:10; John 8:6; 5:16,18; 11:53 -- see World English Bible translation for these verses). Both Matthew and Mark truthfully tell us that "they took counsel together that they might take Jesus by deceit (Greek, dolos), and kill him." (Matthew 26:4; see also Mark 14:1) Thus we can rest assured that their "causes" to kill him are deceitful causes, and they were the liars in their cause to kill Jesus. In John 7:1 we read of one of the instances where it is stated that the Jewish leaders were seeking to kill him. When Jesus confronted them with this, they denied it, proving themselves liars. (John 7:19,20) He then shows that the real reason they were seeking to kill him was because of his works. (verse 21). Jesus had earlier shown that they did not believe because their heart was not right. Matthew 12:24-32; 15:3-12) In Luke 6:7 we find the Jewish leaders were watching him that they might find an accusation against him. In Luke 11:54, we see that they were lying in wait for him, and seeking to catch him in something he might say, that they might accuse him. Thus we have no reason to believe the accusation of these Jewish leaders that Jesus was making himself equal to the Supreme. Again, Jesus pointed out the real reason they sought to kill him as recorded in John 10:32. Therefore, the "causes" were really simply excuses to kill Jesus, not that Jesus had actually broken the sabbath, or that he actually claimed to be equal to God.

(11) Because the Jewish leaders could not bear the words of Jesus (John 7:43) they did not understand his answers, thus whatever they "understood" does not mean that their understanding was correct -- they were seeking something to frame a charge against him, therefore they charged him with "making" himself God (or equal to God). They were looking for some reason to accuse him, and the idea that he was breaking the sabbath by healing on the sabbath provided an excuse for accusation. (Mark 3:2-6) They falsely charged him with having a demon. (Mark 3:22,30; John 7:20; 8:48,52) They falsely denied that they were seeking to kill him. (John 7:20) They falsely charged that Jesus broke the sabbath. (John 9:16) They falsely charged that Jesus was a sinner. (John 9:25) So whatever "understanding" the Jews had is relevant only in that they did not understand the truth, and their excuses to kill him as given in John 5:16,18 were false, just as all of the other accusations were false.

(12) Jesus did not break the sabbath, nor did he make himself equal to God. Jesus plainly stated later: "I have kept my Father's commandments, and remain in his love." (John 15:10) "If Jesus, being "born under the Law," (Galatians 4:4) had actually committed the sin of breaking the sabbath, then he was a sinner as all of us. He would be accursed with the rest of Israel. (John 9:16; Galatians 3:10) If Jesus was breaking the law concerning the sabbath, then that in itself was enough that he should be put to death. -- Exodus 31:14; 35:2

(13) Additionally, if Jesus had been disobedient to God's law, then he could not have redeemed those under the law, for he would have been under its curse even as the rest are condemned under the Law. (Romans 5:19; Galatians 4:3,4) Yet we read that he was obedient to death. (Philippians 2:8) If Jesus, who was born under law, had actually broken one of the ten commandments, he would not have been sinless, and his sacrifice would not have been acceptable, or those under the Law Covenant were not delivered. (Galatians 4:3-5; James 2:10; Hebrews 4:15) Thus the reasoning that Jesus had broken the law is untrue, for as Jesus said: "it is lawful to do good on the Sabbath day." (Matthew 12:12) By this he showed that he had not actually broken the sabbath, but he had broken the sabbath "law" -- the tradition -- of men. Thus the reasoning of the Jewish leaders that he had broken the sabbath is false; likewise their reasoning that he was claiming to be equal to God is false, which reasoning Jesus denied was true in John 5:20-30. As he said, he was sent by God to do the works of God, thus he was not God who sent him.

(14) Some have made this claim: "One also must remember that it was John's comment that Jesus was making himself equal to God." Actually, John simply reports the grounds by which the Jewish leaders gave or thought for their persecution and accusations of Jesus, even as did the other Bible writers. (Matthew 12:10; 13:56; 16:1; 26:65,66; Mark 2:24; Luke 6:7, etc.) John does not say the grounds* for which the Jews sought to kill Jesus are true. As we have shown, the testimony elsewhere of the scriptures is that the Jewish leaders sought to frame a cause to kill Jesus by deceit (not by truth). -- Matthew 26:4.
-----------
*See:
Thayer and Smith. "Greek Lexicon entry for Dia". "The KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon".

The word dia usually means "through", but in view of other passages that use the Greek words Aitia (Strong's #156 - cause, reason, accusation; John 18:38; 19:4; Acts 13:28); kategoria (Strong's #2473, accuse; Matthew 12:10; Mark 3:2; 15:3,4; Luke 6:7; 11:54; 23:2,10,14; 8:6) and kategoria (Strong's #2724 -- accusation, charge; Luke 6:7; John 18:29), as well as the testimony that these accusations were by deceit (Greek, dolos; Matthew 26:4; Mark 14:1), we agree with the World English Bible translation of John 5:16,18, where "dia" is translated as "cause". It could also be translated as "ground" or "grounds". John, in recording these "grounds", is not stating that the "grounds" are true, but only that these are grounds, causes, or reasons promoted by the Jewish leaders who sought Jesus' death. However, it was true that Jesus broke the Jewish added-on traditional law, but he did not break God's sabbath law as given through Moses, nor did he claim to be equal to God, although the Jewish leaders evidently promoted his claim to be the Son of God to mean that he was "equal to God".

(15) The claim is made that Jesus was God Almighty, and Jesus therefore did not have to keep the Sabbath. Of course, the sabbath was made for man (under the law) not for God, who is the Supreme Law-Giver. But is this what Jesus is referring to? Is Jesus saying that he had a right to not obey the sabbath, or that he could change the Law, since he is God Almighty? Such a thought has to be added to what John said. What Jesus was saying was that the Law did not apply to the good work he had done, that is, in healing the crippled man. (Matthew 12:12; Mark 3:4) And these good works that his father had given him to do (John 5:36; 6:29; 10:32,37; 17:4; Acts 2:22) do not pertain to keeping the sabbath. Jesus knew it was "lawful" to do good works of mercy on the sabbath, and had stated such. -- Matthew 12:12; Mark 3:4.
See:
The Sabbath Was Made For Man

(16) The successors of the Pharisees in our day go far beyond our Lord's claims, and claim for him what he never claimed for himself; that is, that he is God Almighty, and that he always has been the same being as the God of whom he is the Son, and that both the Father and the Son are one omniscient being, and not two separate sentiencies of one harmonious mind, purpose, sentiment, will. These take great offence at any of the Lord's "brothers" of today who claim to be sons of God, and who apply that term in its Scriptural force and significance. Many go so far as to claim that Christ's true brothers cannot be true Christians if they do not accept their extra-Biblical, added-on trinitarian dogma.

(17) It is to these false 'causes' or 'grounds' for seeking his death that Jesus answered (John 5:16-19), and disclaimed any equality with God, but rather claimed that he was in subjection to God, could not doing anything of himself, that all he had he received from God, etc. (John 5:19-37) The declaration that "the Son can do nothing of himself," (John 5:19) backed up as it is by a score of other testimonies from the same interested and inspired Teacher, is a contradiction to the common thought of Trinitarians, that the Son is Jehovah: it is in direct conflict with the statement of the catechism, that they are "equal in power and in glory." Indeed, as Jesus himself implied, although he had the glory given to him as a sinless human (John 17:22; Hebrews 2:7; Romans 3:23), he was lacking in the glory he had with the Father before the world was made, and asked that such glory be returned to him. -- John 17:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40.

(18) Nevertheless the Father "loves [filio -- has affection for] the Son," (John 5:20), showing that the two are not one omniscient being, but that each is a separate sentient being. As a consequence of this affection the Father has shown, is showing, and will show forth through him greater marvels, greater wonders. And our Lord Jesus has promised us that, as the Elder Brother (of the Gospel house of sons), whatsoever the Father made known to him he, in turn, makes known to his friends as they are able to bear the truths. (John 15:15; 16:12; 1 Corinthians 3:1,2) This is brought forcibly to our attention in the Book of Revelation, which expressly declares that it is -- "the Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things which must happen soon." (Revelation 1:1) Our Elder Brother, our Captain, has promised further, that in due time we also shall share with him in doing greater works than any that he had performed at his first advent. -- John 14:12.

(19) Amongst the greater works Jesus mentions the resurrection of the dead (John 5:28,29)-- claiming that, as the Father has the power to raise the dead, so also this power is granted to the Son. (John 5:21-26) Nor should we suppose that our Lord, in this statement, referred to the awakening of Lazarus (John 16:33-44), and the son of the widow of Nain (Luke 7:11-18), and the daughter of Jairus. (Luke 8:40-56) These at most were awakenings, and not, in the full sense of the word, resurrections -- these individuals were not lifted up completely out of death into the sinlessness of life. Rather, we conclude that our Lord was looking down into the future -- to the resurrection of the believers in glory, honor and immortality, and to the subsequent "last day" resurrection (under trial or judgment) of the world during the Millennial age. -- John 6:39,40,44,54; 12:47,48; Revelation 20:4,11-13.

(20) This thought is borne out by the statement of John 5:22, that all judgment has been transferred to the Son. Thus Jehovah will judge the world by means of his Son. (Acts 17:31) The resurrection life is to be the reward of those who will successfully pass the judgment. The first resurrection will be the reward of the saints who walk the cramped road leading to the narrow gate of life. The Church is on judgment, on trial, under the terms of the the calling of repentance and faith in Jesus in this age. Jesus and the saints will also judge the world of mankind, redeemed by Jesus' own sacrifice, -- during the Millennial age: and in that judgment of the world he has promised to associate with himself the saints, whose judgment trial is now in progress. (Daniel 7:14;22,27; 1 Corinthians 6:2; 2 Corinthians 5:10; 1 Peter 4:7; Revelation 20:4) Those of the world of mankind, awakened and brought to trial during the Millennial age, who shall develop characters in harmony with righteousness, and fully acceptable to the Judge, shall attain to full resurrection, and enter life, complete and everlasting, at the close of the Millennial age -- at the close of their day of trial, while the residue will be cut off in the Second Death.

(21) That this judgment of the world did not begin at our Lord's first advent, we have his own testimony: "I came not to judge the world." (John 12:47) And again, his declaration, "The word that I spoke, the same will judge [the unbeliever] in the last day." -- the last thousand-year day of the seven, the Millennial Day, the day when the dead are raised. (John 6:39,40,44; 11:24) It is in full harmony with this that the apostle declares that God, "has appointed a day [epoch, period of time] in which he will judge the world in righteousness by the man whom he has ordained" -- the Christ, Head and body. -- John 12:48; Acts 17:31; 1 Corinthians 6:2.

(22) In harmony with this, also, is the statement in John 5:17 and Hebrews 4:4,10. God rested from his work of creation when man became a transgressor, and instead of proceeding with the work, he abandoned it, placing a curse upon it, -- a penalty of death upon his chief handiwork. But although he abandoned the matter, in one sense of the word, he did not abandon it in his purpose, but intended and foretold that he would raise up a seed of the woman which should eventually crush the Evil One (Genesis 3:15), delivering the race from his power -- implying incidentally the revocation of the death penalty, a resurrection. Our Lord Jesus was in person the promised Seed of the woman, but, as we have already seen, the divine plan included also the Church, "members of his body." (Romans 12:4,5) The sufferings of Christ, Head and body, are mentioned in the promise of Eden, as the bruising of the heel by the serpent. This has been in progress throughout the Gospel age; Jesus was crucified by the forces of evil, yielding himself up a sin offering. -- Hebrews 9:26; 10:10,12.

(23) It is the members of his body who are the sons of God, heirs of God according to promise to Abraham. (Romans 8:17; Galatians 3:26,29; Hebrews 6:17) All of these are called for the purpose of becoming, not only heirs, but joint-heirs with Christ, jointly suffering in his sacrifice. Those who complete this sacrifice jointly with Jesus receive his resurrection (Philippians 3:10-14), attaining the glory of the celestial, heavenly body in the resurrection. -- 1 Corinthians 15:40.

(24) Soon the time will come when Jesus will be fully glorified, and the church will share in the glory of the Head, and the whole body will be glorified and revealed as sons of God, in the likeness of Jesus. (Romans 8:19; 1 John 3:2) Then, as the Apostle declares, "The God of peace will crush Satan under your feet shortly." (Romans 16:20, New King James Version) And it is this great Deliverer, whose Head and Lord has redeemed the world with his own precious blood, that the Father has appointed to be the Judge of the redeemed race, when it shall be on trial during the Millennial age, while Satan is bound. (Acts 17:31; Revelation 20:1-3) The work of the Son will not be complete until all evil has been thoroughly subjugated, which will be at the close of the Millennial age. He will reclaim, by a knowledge of the truth, and chastisements and corrections in righteousness, so many as are willing, and the residue shall be destroyed from among the people. (Acts 3:23) And when he shall thus have put down all opposing authority, rule and power, the Apostle assures us, he will deliver up the Kingdom to God even the Father. Thus the Father worked previously to man's fall, and has committed the work of reconciliation of man to the Son, and also the judgment of the race, and will receive it back again under divine jurisdiction, when, through the Son as his agent, he shall have made all things new. -- 1 Corinthians 15:24; Revelation 21:5.

(25) Our Lord's own words assure us that the Father is judging no man, for "he has given all judgment to the Son." (John 5:22) And yet since it is Jehovah who has given the judgment to his Son, it also can be said that Jehovah judges (Psalm 96:10,13; 98:9; 135:14) by means of, or through, his Son. (Psalm 72:2,4; Acts 17:3; Romans 2:16) The judgment of the Church, in progress during this Gospel age, is referred to in John 5:24: "Most assuredly I tell you, he who hears my word, and believes him who sent me, has eternal life, and doesn't come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life." Those who now hear and believe and obey to the extent of their ability have everlasting life guaranteed to them, as a result of thus favorably passing the present judgment or trial. These are assured that they will not need to come into the general judgment of the world during the Millennial age, because they pass from death unto life as the result of the judgment of this age. -- Compare 1 Corinthians 11:32.

(26) "Most assuredly, I tell you, the hour comes, and now is, when the dead will hear the Son of God's voice; and those who hear will live." In John 5:25 the general judgment of mankind during the Millennial age -- the last day (John 12:47,48)is specially referred to, when all the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God, be brought to a knowledge of the truth (1 Timothy 2:4), and when they that hear (obey that knowledge -- Isaiah 2:2-4) shall never die (John 11:26), shall be rescued not only from the tomb but also from all the imperfections, mental, moral and physical, which have come upon the world through sin -- be raised up to perfection of life. The phrase "and now is" more than likely is an interpolation; it does not appear in the Sinaitic Manuscript. Nevertheless, the fact that this judgment work begins with the believers during this Gospel age could be suggested by the expression that the hour for the dead to hear the voice of the Son of Man has already commenced, "now is." The whole world, from the divine standpoint, is spoken of and reckoned as dead, because it is already nine-tenths dead and under sentence of death to the full. It was from this standpoint that our Lord said to one, "Leave the dead to bury their own dead." -- Matthew 8:22; Luke 9:60.

(27) "For as the Father has life in himself, even so he gave to the Son also to have life in himself. He also gave him authority to execute judgment, because he is a son of man" (John 5:25) Our Lord realized that his hearers could not appreciate the possibility of his doing so great a work as a man, and hence he makes the explanation that the Father, who only has power innate, and who has power to give life to the dead, has given the Son the same power -- life in himself to raise the dead, as well as given the commandment (authorization) that he, the Son of the Man (David), to whom the work was committed, as declared in the prophets, should execute judgment -- the divine will. And it is in view of this high honor conferred upon the Son by the Father that we are told (John 5:23), "that all may honor the Son, even as they honor the Father." The explanation of this statement follows, and shows that the honor to the Son is as the Father's appointed representative and agent in the great work, saying, "He who doesn't honor the Son doesn't honor the Father who sent him."

(27) Realizing that each passing day brings us closer to the end of this present evil world, and to the desired haven of God's kingdom, let us draw near to Jehovah through his Son, putting our faith and trust in the redeeming blood of Jesus, and ever desirous to be pleasing to Him, that we may be able to receive our reward in the Kingdom.

Jesus' Denial that He is Equal to his God.

(28) Some have claimed that if Jesus was not equal to God, then he should have denied that he was. These claim that Jesus did not deny being equal to God, thus this proves that Jesus is equal to God. The truth is, however, that Jesus did deny that he was equal to God in his following statements. Remembering that Jesus said that his Father is God (as the Supreme Being) (John 17:1,3), let us see:

(29) Denial #1 John 5:19: "Therefore Jesus answered and was saying to them, Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself, unless {it is} something He sees the Father doing; for whatever the Father does, these things the Son also does in like manner.'" (New American Standard Version) In response to the Jewish thinking that Jesus claimed to be equal to God, Jesus plainly says that he can do nothing of himself, but what he sees the Father [God, Jehovah] doing. Of course this is a denial of Jesus that he is equal to God.

(30) Denial #2 John 5:20 "For the Father loves the Son, and shows Him all things that He Himself is doing; and {the Father} will show Him greater works than these, so that you will marvel." (New American Standard Version) Since God has to show the works to Jesus, Jesus is not equal to God, for God does not need anyone to show him his own works.

(31) Denial #3 John 5:22: "For not even the Father judges anyone, but He has given all judgment to the Son." (New American Standard Version) Since Jehovah has "given" the judgment to the Son, then the Son is not equal to Jehovah, for the Most High does not need to have any authority or power given to him by another. Additionally, the judgment -- the power to judge -- is also given to the saints. -- Daniel 7:22; Matthew 9:28; Luke 22:29,30; 1 Corinthians 6:2,3; Revelation 20:4.

(32) Denial #4 John 5:23: "So that all will honor the Son even as they honor the Father. He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him." (New American Standard Version) Since it is Jehovah who sent Jesus, Jesus is plainly denying to be equal to God who sent him.

(33) Denial #5 John 5:26 "For just as the Father has life in Himself, even so He gave to the Son also to have life in Himself." (New American Standard Version) Since the ability of "life in himself" -- power to give life in the raising of the dead -- is given to Jesus from his God, Jehovah (Micah 5:4), Jesus here denies being equal to his God.

(34) Denial #6 John 5:27-30: "And He gave Him authority to execute judgment, because He is {the} Son of Man." "Do not marvel at this; for an hour is coming, in which all who are in the tombs will hear His voice, and will come forth; those who did the good {deeds} to a resurrection of life, those who committed the evil {deeds} to a resurrection of judgment." "I can do nothing on My own initiative. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is just, because I do not seek My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me." (New American Standard Version) Since Jesus is *given* authority to execute judgment, this means that he did not always have this authority, thus he denies being equal to God. Since Jesus does not do anything on his own initiative, he is denying that he is equal with his God. Since Jesus does not judge according to his own will, but in accordance of the will of the one who sent him, he denies that he is equal to his God.

(35) Further denial: John 5:43 "I have come in My Father's name, and you do not receive Me; if another comes in his own name, you will receive him. (New American Standard Version) Jesus came in the name of the God of Israel -- Jehovah. In verse 39 he says that the Old Testament scriptures testify of him. One of the places the testimony is given in Deuteronomy 18:19, where Jehovah says that the one like Moses (that is, Jesus) would speak in his [Jehovah's] name. And further confirmation is given in Deuteronomy 18:18, that this one is sent by the God of Israel, Jehovah. Thus Jesus is not Jehovah, nor equal to Jehovah his God.

(36) Further denial: John 8:16: "Even if I do judge, my judgment is true, for I am not alone, but I am with the Father who sent me." Jesus is not Jehovah, the only true God who sent him. -- Isaiah 61:1,2; John 17:1,3; Deuteronomy 18:15-19.

(37) John 8:25,26 They said therefore to him, "Who are you?" Jesus said to them, "Just what I have been saying to you from the beginning. I have many things to speak and to judge concerning you. However he who sent me is true; and the things which I heard from him, these I say to the world." Jesus received his instructions from God; God receives instructions from no one. Thus Jesus denies that he is Jehovah, or that he is equal to Jehovah. -- Isaiah 40:14.

We also have another study related to this:


Paragraphs are numbered for reference and as an aid in group study. This document may be freely printed and distributed to others for non-profit purposes.
********

Wednesday, March 29, 2017

Romans 8:9; 1 Peter 1:11 - Spirit of God and Spirit of Christ

However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him. -- Romans 8:9, New American Standard Version.
This scripture has been given to us as proof of the trinity, or the teaching that Jesus is Jehovah (Yahweh). 

Actually, we find nothing here about God, the Son and the holy spirit being three persons in one being or one God (trinity), nor does it say that Jesus is Jehovah (oneness, LDS). "God" here is one person, and Jesus is definitely distinguished from being the God who spoke to and through the prophets old in Hebrews 1:1,2.

The spirit of God and the spirit of Christ are both mentioned in the verse; it does not say, however, that the spirit of Christ is the spirit of God. The assumption appears to be that the spirit is referred to as the Spirit of God and also the spirit of Christ, and that this should be accepted as proof that Jesus is God Almighty. Even accepting that the holy spirit is referred to as both the spirit of God and the spirit of Christ, however, does not mean that Jesus is Jehovah. If so, then should also accept that David is Jehovah, since the throne of Israel is referred to as both the throne of Jehovah and the throne of David. -- 1 Kings 1:48; 2:24; 1 Chronicles 29:23. -- See also our study on Similarities.

We believe that the spirit of Christ can be viewed as the same as the spirit of God, relative to disposition as applied to the word "spirit." Regardless, although one could say the spirit of Christ and the spirit of god are the same, this does not prove the trinity, nor does it prove that Jesus is Jehovah, for God's spirit does work through Jesus, since the spirit has been given to Jesus by the only true God, the Father. (Isaiah 11:2; 61:1; John 3:34; 17:1,3; Acts 2:33) Thus, when referring to the spirit of Christ, it could be considered to basically be the same as the spirit of God, since it is from God that Jesus receives his power, authority and commandment. -- Matthew 28:18; John 3:35; 5:19,26,30; 6:28,29,38,48-51,57,63; 7:16-18,28,29; 8:18,28,29,40,42,54; 10:17,18,37,38; 12:29,50; 13:32 14:10,28,31; 16:28; 17:1,3,25.

Nevertheless, let us examine what Paul is saying here. We first find that Paul points to the spirit of God as dwelling in the believer. This makes more sense when viewed from the standpoint that the spirit is God's personal power and influence. Thus this spirit is not spoken of as "God", but rather the spirit "of" God, and "God" refers to only one person.

The thought behind the scripture, however, more than likely is that the spirit of Christ represents the "mind" of Christ. The context of Romans 8:5 shows that Paul is speaking of the thoughts of the mind: "For those who are after the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit." Romans 8:9 shows that this speaks of walking after the flesh versus walking after the spirit. Those who walk after the flesh have their minds set on things of the flesh - the things seen; those who walk after the spirit have their minds set on the things of the spirit -- that which is not visible, but seen by the eye of faith. The Christian is in the spirit, not the flesh, as the apostles says, "if the spirit [mind, disposition] of God dwells in [stays within] you," in contradistinction to living to the flesh, and having sin dwelling in us. (Romans 7:17,20) The disposition of Christ in us would mean that we would have a spirit to become like him, even as he is in the likeness of God.

The following is from Matthew Henry's Comments:
* Romans 8:1-9 Believers may be chastened of the Lord, but will not be condemned with the world. By their union with Christ through faith, they are thus secured. What is the principle of their walk; the flesh or the Spirit, the old or the new nature, corruption or grace? For which of these do we make provision, by which are we governed? The unrenewed will is unable to keep any commandment fully. And the law, besides outward duties, requires inward obedience. God showed abhorrence of sin by the sufferings of his Son in the flesh, that the believer's person might be pardoned and justified. Thus satisfaction was made to Divine justice, and the way of salvation opened for the sinner. By the Spirit the law of love is written upon the heart, and though the righteousness of the law is not fulfilled by us, yet, blessed be God, it is fulfilled in us; there is that in all true believers, which answers the intention of the law. The favour of God, the welfare of the soul, the concerns of eternity, are the things of the Spirit, which those that are after the Spirit do mind. Which way do our thoughts move with most pleasure? Which way go our plans and contrivances? Are we most wise for the world, or for our souls? Those that live in pleasure are dead, (1 Timothy 5:6). A sanctified soul is a living soul; and that life is peace. The carnal mind is not only an enemy to God, but enmity itself. The carnal man may, by the power of Divine grace, be made subject to the law of God, but the carnal mind never can; that must be broken and driven out. We may know our real state and character by inquiring whether we have the Spirit of God and Christ, or not, ver. 9. Ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit. Having the Spirit of Christ, means having a turn of mind in some degree like the mind that was in Christ Jesus, and is to be shown by a life and conversation suitable to his precepts and example. Henry, Matthew. "Concise Commentary on the Whole Bible"
https://biblehub.com/commentaries/mhc/romans/8.htm.
The last phrase "he does not belong to Him" in the scripture does not appear to be referring to Jesus, but God, that such a person does not belong to God, and is therefore not a son of God. -- See Romans 8:14.

The expression spirit of Christ [Greek, anarthrous khristos, or christos] could also be translated spirit of an anointed one, as that is what the Greek word "khristos" means. Thus, the phrase would read: "But if anyone does not have the spirit of an anointed one." The spirit of God should live in all Christians who have thus been anointed. Another form of the word is used in reference to the church at 2 Corinthians 1:21; Hebrews 1:9. This same word is used of Jesus at Acts 4:27. The entire church by the anointing of the holy spirit becomes sons of God. -- Compare Galatians 3:16,26-29.

The Greek word "khristos"* [or, christos] in the New Testament of King James Version, as well as many other translations, is always translated "Christ", with a capital "C". However, its use in the Septuagint** is of many others than Jesus. Thus in the Septuagint, a king of Israel was described upon occasion as christos tou Kuriou, "the anointed of the Lord." (1 Samuel 2:10,35; 2 Samuel 1:14; Psalm 2:2; 18:50; Habbakkuk 3:13) We don't argue that we know for sure that "khristos" is not referring to Jesus in Romans 8:9; we just want to note that "khristos" does not necessarily mean Jesus in every instance that it appears in the scriptures. It is true that most translators have made it appear so; it was the thought of the KJV translators, that "khristos" was used in the Bible as another personal name for Jesus, and thus the KJV, and most other translations, have made it appear so. However, it is a noun translated from the Hebrew mashiyach (Strong's Hebrew #4899***), meaning anointed, and used of many people and even things. However, this not a crucial argument, nor even needed, to understand that Romans 8:9 does not mean that Jesus is Jehovah.
==========
*http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/christos.html
**The Septuagint is a translation of the Old Testament into Greek
***http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/hebrew/kjv/mashiyach.html

Trinitarians (and others) often seem to read more into the words "dwell in" than the context and other uses of this word would warrant. The Greek word translated "dwell" (or "live") in Romans 8:9 is Strong's #3611*. It is the same word used in Romans 7:17,18,20, where Paul uses himself as a illustration of fallen man with sin dwelling in him. In such case, sin is the force or influence in the life of the unregenerate. Not that sin is a person who is actually living in the sinner.
==========
http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/oikeo.html

In Romans 8:11, another word used for the spirit of God "dwelling" in us is Strong's 1774*, a word related to Strong's 3611. This word is used in Colossians 3:16, where it is the "*word* of Christ" that is to dwell in us. Again it is the "word" of Christ that is the force or influence that impresses the life of the believer. The word of Christ is not a person actually living in the believer. Also the word is used in 2 Timothy 1:5, where it is *faith* that dwelt in Timothy's grandmother, mother and Timothy. Here it is is faith that acts as the force or influence in the life of the believers.
==========
*https://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/enoikeo.html

Thus we see there is nothing in Romans 8:9 that gives any proof of the trinity or oneness doctrines. There is certainly nothing that warrants the use of imagination so as to assume that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, or/and to further imagine and assume the Jesus is person of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

1 Peter 1:11

1 Peter 1:10 - concerning which salvation seek out and search out did prophets who concerning the grace toward you did prophecy,
1 Peter 1:11 - searching in regard to what or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ that was in them was manifesting, testifying beforehand the sufferings of Christ and the glory after these.
1 Peter 1:12 - to whom it was revealed, that not to themselves, but to us they were ministering these, which now were told to you (through those who did proclaim good news to you,) in the Holy Spirit sent from heaven, to which things messengers do desire to bend looking. -- Young's Literal Translation.
1 Peter 1:10 - About which salvation the prophets sought out and searched out, prophesying concerning the grace for you,
1 Peter 1:11 - searching for what, or what sort of time the Spirit of Christ made clear within them; testifying beforehand of the sufferings belonging to Christ, and the glories after these.
1 Peter 1:12 - To whom it was revealed that not to themselves, but to us they ministered the same things, which now were announced to you by those having preached the gospel to you in the Holy Spirit sent from Heaven; into which things angels long to look into. -- Green's Literal Translation.

1 Peter 1:10
peri hees swteerias exezeeteesan kai
ABOUT WHICH SALVATION THEY SOUGHT OUT AND
4012 3739 4991 1567 2532
exeerauneesan propheetai hoi peri tees eis humas
SEARCHED OUT PROPHETS THE (ONES) ABOUT THE INTO YOU
1830 4396 3588 4012 3588 1519 4771_7
charitos propheeteusantes
UNDESERVED KINDNESS HAVING PROPHESIED,
5485 4395
1 Peter 1:11
eraunwntes eis tina ee poion kairon
SEARCHING INTO WHAT OR WHAT SORT OF APPOINTED TIME
2037_5 1519 5101 2228 4169 2540
edeelou to en autois pneuma christou
WAS MAKING EVIDENT THE IN THEM SPIRIT OF CHRIST
1213 3588 1722 0846_93 4151 5547
promarturomenon ta eis christon patheemata
WITNESSING BEFOREHAND ABOUT THE INTO CHRIST SUFFERINGS
4303 3588 1519 5547 3804
kai tas meta tauta doxas
AND THE AFTER THESE (THINGS) GLORIES;
2532 3588 3326 3778_93 1391
Westcott & Hort Interlinear
1 Peter 1:11 is often referred to as proof of the trinity, or that Jesus is Jehovah, the God of Old Testament. First, we should note that there is nothing in Peter's words about a triune God, nor a God who manifests himself as though he were three persons. Nor, does Peter make any claim that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. One does have to think beyond what is actually written (1 Corinthians 4:6) in order to think that Peter was writing either about a triune God or that that Jesus is the God who spoke through the prophets.

Brother Paul S. L. Johnson states concerning 1 Peter 1:11:
In 1 Pet. 1: 11 the expression, "Spirit of Christ," which worked in the prophets, evidently does not mean the spirit of Christ as His new-creaturely disposition; for this, apart from Jesus, to whom it was first given at Jordan, never had been given anyone before Jesus' glorification, i.e., not before Pentecost (John 7: 39). Here in 1 Pet. 1: 11 the expression evidently means Christ's prehuman power working in the prophets. -- Christ-Spirit-Covenant, page 406.
Jesus, of course, having been in existence before he became flesh, was indeed a mighty one when he was with the only true God before the world of mankind had been made thought him. (John 1:1-3,10; 17:1,3,5) We have reason to believe that God did indeed use his firstborn son in many instances when he communicated or demonstrated power through the prophets. In this case, Peter would be applying the term "spirit of Christ" retrospectively to those prophets.

Those prophets were searching into what or what time the Messiah would appear, while the spirit of Messiah in them was testifying beforehand about Christ's sufferings and the glories to follow. Paraphrasing this differently, while those prophets sought to know many things about the Messiah, what was actually revealed to them was the suffering that Messiah was to endure, and the glories to follow.

Robertson identifies the word transliterated as "promarturomenon" as "Present middle participle of promarturomai," and admits that the word is neuter, but, based on his misconception of the holy spirit as a person, and his assumption that "spirit of Christ" is referring to the holy spirit as a person of the alleged trinity, claims that it should be rendered as "he", not "it". Nevertheless, to have the "spirit of Christ" mean the third person of the holy trinity, the trinitarian has to first assume that "spirit of Christ" is referring to the holy spirit, and then he has to further imagine and assume that "spirit" is referring to a person, and then he would have to further imagine and assume that the person is one of the alleged three persons of the alleged trinity.

Although "spirit of Christ," as it is used in 1 Peter 1:11, is not exactly the same as God's holy spirit, we know that the prophets did prophesy by means of God's holy spirit, thus, in this respect, saying "spirit of Christ" in this context could be considered essentially the same as saying holy spirit. The prophets were "searching in regard to what or what manner of time The Messiah was to come. The "spirit of the Messiah" was in them, and having that spirit in them, that spirit in them testified through them concerning the sufferings of Christ and the glories to follow, allowing them to receive such information through God's Holy Spirit by revelation, etc. Nevertheless, it was the prophets who actually spoke and wrote the testimonies. God -- distinguished from His son (Hebrews 1:1,2) -- spoke by means of the prophets (Hebrews 1:1), and the holy spirit is used as though it were God's mouth. -- Deuteronomy 8:3; 1 Kings 8:24; 2 Chronicles 6:4; 36:12,21; Ezra 1:1; Isaiah 1:20; 40:5; 45:23; 48:3; 58:14; 62:2; Jeremiah 9:12,20; Ezekiel 33:7; Micah 4:4; Matthew 4:4; Mark 12:36; Acts 1:17; 28:25; Hebrews 3:7; 9:8; 10:15,16; 2 Peter 1:21.

On the other hand, if we should think of the "spirit of Christ" as being used as synonym of the "spirit of God," we need to remember that in a similar manner we could say the that God's holy spirit in Elijah could also be called "the spirit of Elijah." This does not mean that Elijah was God or that he was a person of God. (2 Kings 2:9,15; Luke 1:17) Additionally, we need to remember that Jesus had nothing of his own, except what has been given to him from his God and Father. -- John 5:19,30; 8:20; 12:49.

Some view 1 Peter 1:11 as proof that Jesus was the one whom God used in the Old Testament to speak with the prophets; the scripture does not say this, but we do believe that Jesus was certainly being used in communications and power as related to the prophets; nevertheless, we need to also consider what is said in Hebrews 1:1,2. If God spoke through Jesus in the Old Testament times, we would reckon that it would only have been in a manner similar to the way that God spoke through Jesus, who in turn spoke through the angels, as shown in Revelation 1:1,2.

Additionally,  the usage of "spirit of Christ" by Peter as related to the prophets is more than likely a retroactive usage, since Jesus had not yet been revealed as Christ in the days of the Old Testament. (Acts 2:36) Nor are we to think that Peter was saying that the prophets understood what was being spoken through them. They all prophesied of the coming Messiah, but the  manifestation was not to them, but to the apostles to whom the spirit of truth had been given, by which they were lead into all truth. The one person who is the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, by means of His holy spirit, especially led the apostles into all the truths concerning Christ and what he said, and thereby the faith was delivered to the saints in the first century. (John 14:26; 16:4-13; Galatians 1:12; Ephesians 3:5; 2 Timothy 2:2; Jude 1:3) The truths revealed to the apostles and made available to us are recorded in the Bible itself. (Ephesians 3:3-12; Colossians 1:25,26; 1 John 4:6) Of course, without the holy spirit, these things that are recorded will still be a mystery to us. — Mark 4:11; 1 Corinthians 2:7-10.

By Ronald R. Day, Sr. -- Restoration Light Bible Study Services (RLBible, ResLight).

Saturday, March 25, 2017

John 14:7-10 - Seeing the Father in Jesus

John 14:7 - If you had known me, you would have known my Father also. From now on, you know him, and have seen him."

John 14:8 - Philip said to him, "Lord, show us the Father, and that will be enough for us."
 
John 14:9 - Jesus said to him, "Have I been with you such a long time, and do you not know me, Philip? He who has seen me has seen the Father. How do you say, 'Show us the Father?' 

John 14:10 Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? The words that I tell you, I speak not from myself; but the Father living in me does his works.

World English Bible translation

John 14:9, especially, is often referred to as proof that Jesus is God Almighty. However, very few seem to present any information as to how this is supposed to mean that Jesus is God Almighty. If one reads many trinitarian writings, you will often see this scripture listed or quoted as proof of the doctrine, but with no serious explanation given as to how this is supposed to show that Jesus is a person of God Almighty. On the other hand, we can see that one could read into this that Jesus was saying that he was the Father, as do our "oneness" neighbors.

While some "oneness" believers point to this scripture as proof that Jesus is the Father, not all do so.

 However, Jesus is certainly not saying here that he is his Father, which would be the logical conclusion one would reach if one were to read into this that Jesus is saying that he is God Almighty. He said: "He who has seen me has seen the Father." Did he mean that everyone who physically saw him walking around on earth had seen his God and Father walking around on earth? No, because he also had earlier said to the unbelieving Jews: "The Father himself, who sent me, has testified about me. You have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his form." (John 5:37) And again in John 8:19: "You know neither me, nor my Father. If you knew me, you would know my Father also."

This indicates that Jesus meant that if his disciples had seen him, that they also had seen his Father, for he did the works of his Father. (John 8:38) As John said: "No one has seen God at any time. The one and only Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has declared him." (John 1:18) And Jesus also had said: "Therefore everyone who hears from the Father, and has learned, comes to me. Not that any man has seen the Father, except he who is from God. He has seen the Father." -- John 6:45,46.

However, Jesus in the context does tell us what he meant when he said that he who had seen him had seen the Father also: "Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? The words that I tell you, I speak not from myself; but the Father living in me does his works." (John 14:10) Rather than claiming to be God Almighty, he is saying that he spoke the words of God Almighty his Father, and thus in this manner the Father could be seen in him. This is in harmony with the prophecy that Yahweh would put his words into his mouth, and that he would speak in Yahweh's name. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19.

Jesus was stating in John 14:9 that he so reflected the Father's character, that to observe and learn of him was tantamount to observing and learning of the Father. Literally, of course, "no man has seen God at any time". -- John 1:18; 1 John 4: 12; 2 Corinthians 4:4; Colossians 1:15.

One claims that we go beyond the statements Jesus made,  claiming: that it is clear no one sees him as the Father, since the Father did not have a physical body but was Spirit; that the Spirit was in Christ, and so the Father was in Christ, making Jesus the Father, and one that has seen Jesus would have seen the Father, only didn't understand that;  and that Philip asked to SEE the Father, in verse 9, evidently with the thought that since Philip asked to see the Father, then Jesus was saying that he was the Father.

Actually, the above reasoning goes beyond the statements Jesus actually made. If one is consistent in applying such reasoning, every believer would be the Father or God, since the spirit of God is in him. When Jesus sent out his twelve apostles, he told them: "For it is not you who speak, but the Spirit of your Father who speaks in you." (Matthew 10:20) Should we imagine and assume from this that all of the apostles are the Father, since the spirit of the Father spoke in them?

And Jesus said: "Though you don't believe me, believe the works; that you may know and believe that the Father is in me, and I in the Father." (John 10:38)

And he further said: "Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? The words that I tell you, I speak not from myself; but the Father living in me does his works." (John 14:10)

Nevertheless, he also said: "In that day you will know that I am in my Father, and you in me, and I in you." (John 14:20)

Are we to think that all of Jesus' disciples are Jesus since he said that he is in them, and that they are in him?

Yet he also prayed: "that they may all be one; even as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us." (John 17:21) Jesus also says concerning the Comforter: "You know him, for he lives with you, and will be in you." (John 14:7) John later says: "By this we know that we remain in him and he in us, because he has given us of his Spirit." (1 John 4:13) "he who remains in love remains in God, and God remains in him. " (1 John 4:16) "If that which you heard from the beginning remains in you, you also will remain in the Son, and in the Father." (1 John 2:24)

If the fact that Jesus uses the expression that he is in the Father and the Father is in him means that Jesus is God Almighty, or that he is the Father, then logically one should follow through and say that his disciples *are* also God Almighty, or the the Father, for they are in the Father and Jesus, even as the Father is in Jesus and Jesus in the Father, etc. Of course, this it is nonsense to think that the believer is God or the Father because the scripture says that the Father is in him.

Someone else objects that the word "seen" means to actually see with the eyes, and thus when they actually saw Jesus, they were actually seeing the Father with their eyes. The word translated "seen" is Strong's #3708, which is defined as: "1. to see with the eyes; 2. to see with the mind, to perceive, know; 3. to see, i.e. become acquainted with by experience, to experience; 4. to see, to look to, a. to take heed, beware, b. to care for, pay heed to; 5. I was seen, showed myself, appeared."* Thus we see that the word, like our English word "see", can be used in both a literal and figurative sense.
==========
*Thayer
https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/eng/greek/3708.html

No mortal being could literally see the God and Father of our Lord Jesus and live. (Exodus 33:20) Furthermore, if seeing the flesh of Jesus physically meant seeing the God and Father of Jesus, then this would also mean that Jewish leaders also saw the God and Father of Jesus when they saw his flesh. This cannot be true, however, since Jesus stated to them: "The Father himself, who sent me, has testified about me. You have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his form." -- John 5:37.

Jesus' statement in John 14:9 is to be understood in harmony with other scriptures. As it was impossible for the Lord's followers to actually see God, the Heavenly Father, the only way then in which they could see God was in the representative sense. Our Lord Jesus, fully and perfectly represented the Father. According to many translations, Jesus was God manifested in the flesh. (1 Timothy 3:16, KJV) Indeed, the Father's love, and mercy, justice, and wisdom, were all manifest in the Life and teachings of the Lord Jesus. Those then, who became closely associated with the Lord Jesus, were seeing the Father in him, while those who did not become closely associated with him, or who opposed him, did not see the Father in him.

The Lord Jesus never claimed to be the Heavenly Father personally; but always taught that He was the Son of his God and Father. Nor did Jesus ever claim to be the "one God" of whom are all, the Supreme Being. (1 Corinthians 8:6) The Scriptures declare that God sent His only begotten Son into the world. God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself in the same sense in which He will be "all in all" when the Son shall have delivered up the Kingdom to the Father at the close of Christ's millennial reign. -- 1 Corinthians 15:17,28.


**************

Wednesday, March 15, 2017

John 6:45 - Jesus and His God as Teachers

John 6:45 - It is written in the prophets, 'They will all be taught by God.' Therefore everyone who hears from the Father, and has learned, comes to me.
Isaiah 54:13 - All your children shall be taught of Yahweh[Jehovah]; and great shall be the peace of your children.
The World English translation is used throughout unless otherwise stated.
Since Jesus is spoken in the scriptures several times as a teacher, some have claimed that by Jesus' words recorded in John 6:45, Jesus is applying the prophecy of Isaiah 54:14 to himself, and that such offers proof that Jesus is Jehovah. In actuality, if we read Jesus' words carefully, we see that he is not applying the prophecy to himself. His own words as recorded in John 6:45 answers the false claim, since he applies to words of Isaiah 54:14 to his God and Father, when he says, "Therefore everyone who hears the Father, and has learned [from the Father] comes to me."
Jesus is our teacher, but he is so by the appointment of the only true God who sent him. (John 17:3) Rather than claiming, however, that he was Jehovah, Jesus plainly said: "My teaching is not mine, but his who sent me. If anyone desires to do his will, he will know of the teaching, whether it is from God, or if I speak from myself. He who speaks from himself seeks his own glory, but he who seeks the glory of him who sent him, the same is true, and no unrighteousness is in him." (John 7:16-18) "The word which you hear isn't mine, but the Father's who sent me." (John 14:24) Who sent Jesus? Isaiah prophetically quotes Jesus as saying: "Jehovah ... sent me." (Isaiah 61:1, American Standard) Deuteronomy 18:15-22 states prophetically that Jesus was come in the name of Jehovah, and that he would speak the words of Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. (Exodus 3:14,15) Furthermore, Jesus calls the One who sent him "the only true God." -- John 17:1,3.
As related in John 17:5, Jesus refers to a time when he was with the only true God before he became a human of flesh. Jesus had been with the only true God and learned from him before he became man, thus Jesus could say: "I say the things which I have seen with my Father." (John 8:38) Only Jesus had descended from heaven so as to be able to speak of heavenly things. (John 3:12,13) And Jesus says that he gave to his disciples the words of his God and Father, when in prayer to the only true God, saying: "The words which you have given me I have given to them." (John 17:8) "I have given them your word." -- John 17:14.
Likewise Jesus, the great pastor of the flock, appointed special teachers under him, the apostles; and still others in the church to be teachers and under-shepherds of Jehovah's flock, instructing them, "Feed my sheep" (John 21:17); "feed my lambs." (John 21:15) "Take heed therefore to yourselves and to all the flock, over which the Holy Spirit has appointed you overseers, to feed the church of Christ which he has purchased with his blood.." (Acts 20:28, Lamsa) Yet none of these teachers were to teach doctrines of their own, which could be only "wisdom of this world." (1 Corinthians 1:20) The people of God were to be all taught by Jehovah, and none can be true teachers save as they present to men the words and plan and character of Jehovah as the standards of truth and excellence. In doing this they necessarily call attention to 'the teachings of Christ' and 'the apostle's teachings,' all of which were but expressions and inculcations of the Father's grand and eternal law.
Moreover, Jehovah showed through the prophets that Jesus, the great pastor appointed by the Master Teacher, Jehovah (Ezekiel 34:23), would be himself taught of Jehovah; and in order "that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest" to humanity in "things pertaining to God [Jehovah]," and be proved worthy to be "the captain of our salvation," (Hebrews 2:17, King James Vrsion) it was needful that he be perfected in experiences through things which he suffered. (Hebrews 2:9,10) Note how clearly the following prophecies declared long before that our Lord would be taught by Jehovah, and would learn well the lessons, and manifest love for the law and obedience to the Law-giver:
Isaiah 50:4-10 (Green's Literal)- The Lord Jehovah has given to Me the tongue of learned ones, to know to help the weary with a word. He arouses in the morning; He wakens the ear to Me, to hear as the learned. The Lord Jehovah has opened My ear and I did not rebel; I did not turn away backwards. I gave My back to strikers, and My cheeks to pluckers; I did not hide My face from shame and spitting. And the Lord Jehovah will help Me. On account of this I was not ashamed. On account of this I set My face like flint, and I know that I shall not be ashamed. My Justifier is near. Who will contend with Me? Let us stand up together. Who is master of My judgment? Let him come near to Me. Behold, the Lord Jehovah will help Me; who is He who will condemn Me? Behold, like a garment they shall wear out; the moth shall eat them.[10] Who among you fears Jehovah, obeying the voice of His Servant, who walks in darkness, and no light is in him? Let him trust in the name of Jehovah, and lean on his God.
-- See: Matthew 26:67; 27:26,30; Isaiah 53:11


Hear further on this subject the word of Jehovah's testimony respecting the preparation of our Lord Jesus for the grand office of high priest for mankind:
Isaiah 11:1-10 (Green's Literal) - And a Shoot goes out from the stump of Jesse, and a Branch will bear fruit out of his roots. And the Spirit of Jehovah shall rest on Him; He will have the spirit of wisdom and understanding, the spirit of counsel and power, the spirit of knowledge and of the fear of Jehovah. And He is made to breathe in the fear of Jehovah. But He shall not judge by the sight of His eyes, nor decide by the hearing of His ears. But He shall judge the poor in righteousness, and shall decide rightly for the meek of the earth. And He shall strike the earth with the rod of His mouth, and He shall cause the wicked to die with the breath of His lip. And righteousness shall be the encircler of His loins, and faithfulness the encircler of His reins. And the wolf shall live with the lamb; and the leopard shall lie with the kid; and the calf and the young lion and the fatling together; and a little boy shall lead them. The cow and the bear shall feed, their young shall lie together; and the lion shall eat straw like the ox. And the infant shall play on the hole of the asp; yea, the weaned child shall put his hand on the viper's den. They shall not do evil, nor destroy in all My holy mountain. For the earth shall be full of the knowledge of Jehovah, as the waters cover the sea. And it shall be in that day, the Root of Jesse stands as a banner of peoples; nations shall seek to Him; and His resting place shall be glory.
-- See: Hebrews 2:18
Again prophetically Messiah is represented as saying: "I will bless Yahweh [Jehovah], who has given me counsel." (Psalm 16:7) "You [Jehovah] will show me the path of life." (Psalm 16:11) These expressions occur in connections quoted by the apostles as applicable to our great pastor, Jesus. (Psalm 16:7-11; Acts 2:25-31; 13:35-38) Thus is confirmed by prophecy the statement of the Evangelist, "The child grew, and grew strong in spirit, filled with wisdom, and the grace of God was on him. Jesus advanced in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men." -- Luke 2:40,52.
Jesus, however, faithfully carried out the will of his God and Father, and thus Jehovah does instruct us through His son, who in, turn sent God's holy spirit to help his apostles to instruct us. Thus, the entire New Testament are the teachings from Jehovah given through Jesus and the apostles. This does not mean that the son of Jehovah is Jehovah Himself.
Related Books
Please note that I do not necessarily agree with all that is stated in these books. -- Ronald
The Doctrine of the Trinity: Christianity's Self-Inflicted Wound -- Presents unitarian viewpoint; denies the pre-human existence of Jesus, but otherwise, the book contains a lot of good information.
When Jesus Became God -- Gives a lot of historical background.
The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture - The Effect of Early Christological Controversies on the Text of the New Testament
Concepts of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit - A Classification and Description of the Trinitarian and Non-Trinitarian Theologies Existent Within Christendom
Divine Truth or Human Tradition A Reconsideration of the Roman Catholic-Protestant Doctrine of the Trinity in Light of the Hebrew and Christian Scriptures
The Trinity's Weak Links Revealed A chain is only as strong as its weakest link.

1 John 4:3 - Jesus Has Come in the Flesh


And every spirit that does not confess Jesus is not from God. This is the spirit of the antichrist, which you heard was coming and now is in the world already. -- 1 John 4:3, English Standard Version.
For many deceivers have gone out into the world, those who do not confess the coming of Jesus Christ in the flesh. Such a one is the deceiver and the antichrist. -- 
2 John 1:7, English Standard Version.
It is somewhat puzzling as to why those who wish to add to the scriptures that Jesus is his God often quote 1 John 4:3 as proof that Jesus is his God. As best as we can determine, many seem to think that this verse says: "Every spirit that does not confess that Jesus Christ [is God] come in the flesh is not from God; this is the spirit of the antichrist, of which you have heard that it is coming, and now it is already in the world." (We added what some evidently read into this verse in brackets "[is God]".)

Bible Students certainly should confess and thoroughly believe that Jesus did indeed come in the flesh, for which purpose was to offer that sinless flesh, his sinless humanity, in which was life, in sacrifice to his God for the church and the world of mankind. (Matthew 20:28; John 6:51; Luke 22:19; Romans 3:25; 5:8,12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; Ephesians 5:2; Titus 2:14; Hebrews 10:5,10; 1 Peter 3:18; 1 John 2:2; 4:10) We believe this is why John emphasized that Jesus had come in the flesh, since this is the whole basis of the atonement as set forth in the New Testament.

Usually those who believe that Jesus is the Supreme Being, by what they teach, actually are denying the purpose for which he came in to the flesh, for most of them claim that Jesus is still flesh, that he took back his flesh and still has his body that he died with; some even believe that he still has the physical wounds that were physically inflicted upon his body when on the day of his death. There are, however, those who do not believe that Jesus is the Supreme Being who also believe that Jesus still has his body that he died in. All such would, in effect, deny the purpose for which Jesus came in the flesh, that is, to give his flesh in sacrifice for the life of the world.

Nevertheless, if one rejects Jesus as who he claimed to be -- "the Son of God" -- then such could be of the class spoken of here. While the trinitarian has come up with some ingenious reasoning to explain how Jesus is the God of whom he is the Son, in reality, the trinity doctrine does reject Jesus as being who he claimed to be. Likewise, any who claim that Jesus is the Supreme Being do likewise.

There were many spirits -- theories, doctrines -- among the Christians, even in the first century -- which did indeed deny Jesus as being who he himself said he is -- not necessarily that they denied that they believed in Jesus, but they imagined Jesus to be other than whom he said he was. Some were claiming that he was God; some were claiming that he was an angel "incarnated" in flesh; others were saying that he was simply a good, yet sinful man, as all others; others were saying that his death did not purchase anyone, etc. All of these theories actually do not confess the true Jesus, but actually confess another Jesus, and deny the true Jesus as having come in the flesh. -- 2 Corinthians 11:4.

Jesus, as the one whom he claimed to be, the Anointed One of Jehovah, the one sent by Jehovah, the Son of Jehovah, the one who came from his God, is the true foundation upon which our faith should be built. "Other foundation can no man lay than that which is laid, Jesus Christ." -- 1 Corinthians 3:11.
Jesus is Not Jehovah

Nevertheless, those who wish for Jesus to be God himself actually build another foundation, that is the trinity doctrine or similar doctrine; such usually claim their doctrine to be the foundation upon which one should build their faith.

While the world does not confess Jesus to be "Lord,"  it is also true that few of the professed Christian systems are ready to confess the true purpose for which Jesus came in flesh.

The very word "Christ" signifies the Son, not as being Jehovah, but rather as the one whom Jehovah anointed and sent. (Isaiah 61:1) In effect, then, those who claim that Jesus is Jehovah would create a different Jesus who would be instead of the Christ (anti-Christ) whom Jehovah anointed. The fact that Jehovah anointed and sent Jesus provides the basis to believe that the default reasoning should be that Jesus is not Jehovah who anointed and sent Jesus.

Jesus became flesh (in which he was holy, undefiled) in order to pay the price or penalty against us -- death. The affirmation or denial of Messiah's having come in the flesh was and still is a sure test -- the ransom test stated in one of its forms: every doctrine that denies it is an active opponent of the truth.

All who believe that Christ is still a man -- with a body of flesh -- since his resurrection and that he will come a second time as a man, are thereby, in effect, denying the basis of the ransom, for this would deny -- in effect -- that there really was a ransom price paid to God. It would deny that Jesus gave his human body as a sacrificial offering to his God (Ephesians 5:2; Hebrews 7:27; 9:14) to pay the debt of sin for the church and the human race. -- Luke 22:19; Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 11:24; 15:21,22; 1 Timothy 2:5,6; 1 John 2:2; Hebrews 10:10.

This does not mean, however, that we are pass judgment upon our fellow Christians who may be caught up in such beliefs. At the same time, we should point out as tactfully as possible the error of such belief.

Christ's Second Coming in the Flesh?


Another argument often used concerning 1 John 4:3 is that it says that Christ is to come again in the flesh, and thus to deny that Christ's second coming in the flesh would be antichrist.

1 John 4:3 does not say one word about Christ returning in the flesh. What it does say:
And every spirit that does not confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is not of God. And this is the spirit of the Antichrist, which you have heard was coming, and is now already in the world. -- New King James Version.
Compare this with:
For many deceivers have gone out into the world who do not confess Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist. -- 2 John 1:7, New King James Version.
John was writing about a past event, "Christ came in the flesh"; he was writing about Christ's first appearance, not his second appearance.

This agrees with Hebrews 5:7, which speaks of the "days of his flesh" -- the days in which Jesus as having come in the flesh -- as something in the past. Jesus is no longer in the days of his flesh.

Why is it important to recognize that Jesus "has come in the flesh"? He came in the flesh to offer that flesh as a sacrifice, not that he would be flesh for eternity. It was the man Christ Jesus who gave himself a ransom for all. (1 Timothy 2:5,6) Jesus said that the bread represented his human flesh "which is given for you." (Luke 22:19) And the scripture reads that believers "have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all." (Hebrews 10:10) And Peter tells us: "Christ also suffered for sins once, the righteous for the unrighteous, that he might bring you to God; being put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit." (1 Peter 3:18) If Jesus had not come in the flesh, then there would have been no offering to cover our sins. But Jesus tells us: "the bread which I will give is my flesh, for the life of the world." (John 6:51) Further on in same chapter (1 John 4), John writes concerning the reason Jesus came in the flesh: "By this was God's love revealed in us, that God has sent his only born Son into the world that we might live through him. In this is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son as the atoning sacrifice [propitation -- appeasing] for our sins." (1 John 4:9,10) Thus, John emphasized earlier that confession of Jesus as having coming in the flesh is necessary, since Jesus has come in the flesh to offer that flesh as an atoning sacrifice for our sins. Any teaching that teaches otherwise is anti-christ (against, or replaces Christ).

It is being claimed that to deny that Christ is flesh, to deny that he still has the body of flesh and bones, is the spirit of antichrist. No scripture says such a thing. Indeed, if Jesus today still has the body of flesh (a sinless fleshly man has the glory of a body that is a little lower than the angels. -- Psalm 8:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40; Hebrews 2:9), then such is the spirit of antichrist, for it would deny the purpose of why Jesus came in the flesh, since it would deny that Jesus has actually sacrificed that flesh.

Acts 1:11


Many point to Acts 1:11 and claim that this means that since Jesus ascended in his body of flesh, that when he returns, he will descend in his body of flesh. It seems strange that so many Christians overlook the fact that the angel did not say anything about what kind of a body our Lord would have at his second appearing, but merely that it would be "this Jesus" -- the same one who was with the Father before the world was, and that for a time, and for a purpose, was made or became flesh (John 1:14), made a little lower than the angels (Hebrews 2:9), and dwelt among us, and died for us and rose a life-giving spirit (1 Corinthians 15:45). It was this same Jesus, who, during the forty days since his resurrection, the world had not seen, and who his disciples had seen only for a few times and for a few moments, when he occasionally "showed himself" to them, to demonstrate the fact that he was risen and changed. It was this same Jesus who would come again, in the same "manner" as he left. As to the "manner" in which he went away, it was quiet, unknown to the world, and so will be the manner of his return -- unknown to any except a few of his disciples.

See:
Jesus Died a Human Being - Raised a Spirit Being
Raised in the Spirit
Jesus’ Appearances in the Locked Room
Did Jesus Raise Himself from the Dead?
The World Will See Me No More
Christ's Parousia - Presence or Arrival?
Astrape

It is claimed that the spirit of the antichrist would never acknowledge the resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ. No scripture says this, and we believe that the spirit of antichrist may acknowledge the resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ, but then deny the purpose for which God sent Jesus in the flesh by saying that Jesus is still a man.

However, acknowledging -- as we do -- that Jesus was put to death in the flesh, suffering once for sin, and that he was made alive in the spirit, is not the spirit of antichrist, and the fact that acknowledging that God raised Jesus from death as a spirit being certainly does acknowledge the resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ.

John 8:58,59; 10:30-33 - The Real Reason the Jews Sought to Kill Jesus

John 10:33 - The Jews answered him, "We don't stone you for a good work, but for blasphemy: because you, being a man, make yourself God."
Jesus, had asked them, "I have shown you many good works from my Father." Then he asked them, "For which of those works do you stone me?" (John 10:32) This question was not merely rhetorical; Jesus was indeed pointing out the true reason that these Jews wanted to kill him, that is, because he did the works of his God and Father, Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. His works proved him to be the prophet foretold in Deuteronomy 18:15-19, and these Jews did not wish to accept him as being that prophet. (See Acts 3:13-26) Of course, if they could prove him to be a false prophet, that would mean that he a blashphemy that would make him worthy of death. (Deuteronomy 13:5; 18:20) Jesus gave them the real reason that they sought to kill in his words recorded at John 10:32. Was he lying. The Jews' reply shows that they were, in effect, calling Jesus a liar. Those Jewish leaders denied that they sought to kill Jesus because of his good works from his God and Father, but they claimed that they wished to kill Jesus because, he being a sinful man having a demao, would make himself out to be God, or a god, through his claims of being promised Messiah and Son of God whom God had sent. We believe that Jesus, in his question as related in John 10:32, gave the real reason they sought to kill Jesus, and which the Jewish leaders denied in verse 33. Either the Jews were lying in John 10:33, or else Jesus presented a question that had no truth in it in verse 32.

John 7:1,19,20,25

A similar incident had occurred earlier. We read in John 7:1: "After these things, Jesus walked in Galilee, for he would not walk in Judea, because there were Jews who sought to kill him." However, in John 7:19,20, we read:
Didn't Moses give you the law, and yet none of you keeps the law? Why do you seek to kill me? The multitude answered, "You have a demon! Who seeks to kill you?"
Thereby the Jews were, in effect, declaring two lies: (1) that Jesus had a demon, and (2) that no one was seeking to kill Jesus. In effect, they were claiming that Jesus was a liar. The truth is that the Jews did not want accept him as the forteold prophet/messiah, and thus sought some way to legally (by the law of Moses) find some excuse to kill Jesus.

Nevertheless, in John 7:25, we read:

Some therefore of them of Jerusalem said, "Isn't this he whom they seek to kill? Behold, he speaks openly, and they say nothing to him. Can it be that the rulers indeed know that this is truly the Christ?"

Then, again, as recorded in John 8:59, the Jews again sought to kill Jesus. Many like to point to John 8:58,59, and claim that the reason they wanted to kill Jesus was that he stated that he was the I AM of Exodus 3:14,15, or that he was claiming to be Jehovah of Isaiah 41:4; 43:10, etc. Having discussed John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14,15 in several other studies, we will not discuss that verse here, except to the note the connections many read into what Jesus stated.

The idea to kill Jesus, however, did not spring suddenly; it was not a new issue in the record stated in John 10:33, nor even as recorded in John 7:1 or when they attempted to kill Jesus as recorded in John 8:59; it was an idea that had been in the minds of the Jewish leaders for some time. The idea of charging Jesus with being God (or, a god), or equal to God (or, a god), developed over time, as a result of the desire to kill Jesus, not the other way around. The Jews knew that they could not present a case as "that since he healed people, that he should be killed"; so they watched and waited for an occasion for which they could accuse him publicly. The Jewish leaders knew that they had to have a good reason -- in the eyes of the people -- to justify the killing of Jesus. (Matthew 21:46) They wanted to kill Jesus, just as they wanted to kill John the Baptist. (Matthew 14:5) They had much earlier realized that the work of Jesus was showing them up as being deficient as leaders. Thus, they began to test Jesus, seeking to find something that could be used to publicly accuse him.

Luke 4:16-30

The first recorded attempt on his life by any of the Jews was in his hometown of Nazareth. He had already performed many works from God in Capernaum, and evidently the people of Nazareth knew of those works. However, when Jesus read Isaiah 61:1, and, in effect, proclaimed that he was the one spoken of in that prophecy, the Jews became angry, and tried to throw him off a cliff. There is nothing at all in the record that hints that Jesus here proclaimed himself to be "God" [the Supreme Being], nor is there any hint that he claimed to be Jehovah. Rather than claiming to be Jehovah, he was claiming that he was the one spoken of whom Jehovah anointed -- "Jehovah has anointed me." (Isaiah 61:1) Yet, this is all that was needed to get the people angry enough to want to kill Jesus. They evidently knew that prophecy referred to promised Messiah and that Jesus was claiming to be the promised Messiah, the Anointed One of Jehovah. However, they had known Jesus before, and couldn't accept him as the promised prophet, for Jesus says: "Most assuredly I tell you, no prophet is acceptable in his hometown." (Luke 4:24) Their familiarity with Jesus as the humble carpenter's son led them to believe that Jesus was not what they expected the messiah to be. (Luke 4:14-28) Furthermore, it is possible that their desure was the Messiah was to be a strong military leader who would free them from Rome. Thus, in their reasoning, Jesus was a false prophet who should be put to death. However, there is nothing in the record that indicates that they tried to kill Jesus because Jesus allegedly claimed to be God.

Matthew 5:20; 8:1-12

In Matthew 5:20, Jesus pointed to the lack of righteousness among the scribes and Pharisees. Then after performing several miracles in the name of his God and Father, he told of how the sons of the kingdom (the sons of Jacob) were to be thrown into outer darkness. (Matthew 8:1-12) There is no doubt that the Jewish leaders began to take note of his activities. Additionally, the lying and deceptive nature of these leaders are recorded for us.

Matthew 9:1-8; Mark 2:3-12; Luke 5:12-16

Thus, the scribes falsely claim he committed blasphemy, as recorded in Matthew 9:1-8; Mark 2:3-12; and Luke 5:12-16, by falsely claiming that no one but God could forgive sins. Jesus responded that he, as the promised son of the man (David), had been given authority to forgive sins. Jesus did not claim that he was the source of his own authority, but freely proclaimed that the authority had been given to him. That the Jews were wrong in their accusation that only God can forgive sins is shown by what Matthew recorded in Matthew 9:8.

Matthew 9:11,27-34; Mark 2:16: Luke 5:30

Then the Pharisees, in effect, falsely accused him, by asking "Why does your teacher eat with the tax collectors and the sinners?" (Matthew 9:11; Mark 2:16; Luke 5:30) And thus, it becomes apparent that these leaders had already begun seeking something to legally accuse Jesus of before the people.
Jesus healed two blind men, and later he cast out a demon from a mute man. (Matthew 9:27-32) Were Jewish leaders joyful that the works of God were being performed through this man from Galilee? Absolutely not! Instead, they were greatly angered. Thus, the Pharisees made the assertion: "By the prince of demons, he cast out demons." -- Matthew 9:34.

Matthew 11:19

In Matthew 11:19, Jesus reports of other things that was being said against him, when Jesus said: "The son of the man (David) came eating and drinking, and they say, 'Behold, a glutonous man, and a drunkard, a friend of tax collectors and sinners!'" Was Jesus "a glutonous man"? Was he a "drunkard"? Was he actually a friend of tax collectors and sinners, as though he approved the actions of such? No, but these accusations do show that these Jews were making up one thing after another by which to accuse Jesus of being a sinner man, worthy of death, not only a false prophet, but because of his claim to the Son of God. Thus, they sought to twist matters to make Jesus appear to be a sinner making false claims.

Matthew 12:1,2,12; Mark 2:23-28; Luke 6:1,2

The Jewish leaders got their chance to bring up another false charge when the disciples of Jesus plucked grains from a field, rubbed them with their hands, in order to satisfy their hunger. The accusation of the Jewish leaders was, "your disciples do what is not lawful to do on the Sabbath." (Matthew 12:1,2; Mark 2:23,25; Luke 6:1,2) Notice the word "lawful." Jesus uses that word several times. It was indeed forbidden under the Law to work on the sabbath. The law states: "You shall not do any work in it, you, nor your son, nor your daughter, your man-servant, nor your maid-servant, nor your cattle, nor your stranger who is within your gates." (Exodus 20:10) Does this, however, mean to do absolutely no work at all? Certainly not! One has to do some work just get up; to eat; to take care of his being alive. Even the very act of breathing could be considered "work." However, the word is used in the sense of the work usually done on a normal working day. Would the plucking, crushing, and eating of grain from a field fall under the category of a such normal work? We should note that the Law forbids taking a sickle to a neighbor's grain as is normally done, what Jesus' disciples were doing was permitted as an exception to the general rule of the Law. (Deuteronomy 23:25) Jesus, thus, points to exceptions are made to what would normally not be "lawful." While on the one hand, it would be not lawful to do such plucking and reaping, on the other hand, as Jesus says, there are some circumstances where there are exceptions to what is "not lawful," and therefore, what would normally not be lawful would become lawful. Thus, later, Jesus said, "it is lawful to do good [what is right] on the Sabbath day." -- Matthew 12:12.

The intent of the Law regarding the Sabbath was for man's good, not for man to starve himself so that he might keep the law. Jesus was saying that it was "lawful," under the the unique circumstances for David and those who were with him, to eat of the showbread, which would normally be "not lawful." Likewise, what Jesus' disciples were doing was a necessity just as it was with David, and thus would be an exceptional case to what was "not lawful." As Jesus stated: "The Sabbath was made for man, not man for the Sabbath" (Mark 2:27); and "The son of the man* is also lord of the sabbath." -- Mark 2:28.
==========
*The Greek has the definite article before man, referring to Jesus' being the son of a specific man, that is, the son of David.

Mark 3:2-6

The issue was raised again when Jesus healed on the sabbath. Mark 3 reports of Jesus' healing of the man with a withered hand, which miracle was done on the sabbath. Thus, in their search for a reason to kill Jesus, rather than thinking about praising God if Jesus did a good from God, we read: "They watched him, whether he would heal him on the Sabbath day, that they might accuse him." (Mark 3:2) This definitely shows that they were already seeking some reason to accuse Jesus. Thus Mark 3:6 says: "The Pharisees went out, and immediately took counsel with the Herodians against him, how they might destroy him." Here they thought they might have a clear legal "cause" for which to kill Jesus. It does show that they were already seeking a way to destroy Jesus *before* they came up the false charge that Jesus was claiming to be God [or, a god], or equal to God [or, a god]. Thus, their seeking to kill Jesus after falsely claiming that Jesus was claimed to "God" [or, a god] is not the real reason they were seeking to kill Jesus (John 10:33), but rather the false accusation that was being used as an excuse to do what they had already determined to do. Jesus had already pointed to the real reason they sought to kill Jesus, that is, because Jesus performed the works of his God and Father. -- John 10:32.

John 5:16-18

John 5:16 thus relates: "For this cause the Jews persecuted Jesus, and sought to kill him, because he did these things on the Sabbath." Considering all the earlier accusations against Jesus, and their further seeking a reason to accuse Jesus, we have no doubt that they had already determined beforehand to kill Jesus,. Thus, John here relates the legal "cause" that they were setting forth, the legal excuse, so to speak, that they were setting forth to justify their seeking to kill Jesus. John was not stating that their claims were true.

Then Jesus says: "My Father (who is the "one God" from whom are all -- Matthew 27:46; 15:34; 20:17; John 17:1,3; Romans 15:6; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 2 Corinthians 11:31; Ephesians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 3:12) is still working, so I am working, too." (John 5:17) The Jews recognized that Jesus was speaking about God, and proclaiming God to be his Father, and himself as God's son, which, they claimed, was tantamount to a sinner man making himself out to either be equal to God, or equal to godship (of the angels). Thus, John relates in John 5:18: "For this cause therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only broke the Sabbath, but also called God his own Father, making himself equal with God [TW THEW -- Westcott & Hort transliteration]."

The Greek transliterated "tw thew," "THE GOD," could be referring collectively to the angels as "the mighty," as in Psalm 8:5, and in a similar manner that Psalm 82:1 uses the Hebrew EL (Strong's H110) collectively of the "children of the Most High" spoken of in Psalm 82:6. A similar usage may also be found in Exodus 21:6; 22:8,9,28, where the judges of Israel are being spoken of collectively as "HA ELOHIM" (which phrase can also be translated as "The God." The Jews were, no doubt, familiar with the terminology of Job regarding these angels, that is, as "sons of God." (Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7) We may also be sure that they were aware of the terminology of Psalm 8:5 (see Hebrews 2:7). If this is what the Jews meant, then they were not saying that Jesus was claiming to be equal with God Almighty, but that he was claiming to be equal to the angels. Of course, as a human, Jesus was not making such a claim, although, we believe that before he became a human he was the only-begotten firstborn mighty one (THEOS) of the Most High (John 1:1,18; 3:16-18; Colossians 1:15), pre-eminently with the celestial bodily glory that is one step above the angels (since the angels were made through Jesus -- Colossians 1:15,16,18; 1 Corinthians 15:39-41), and thus Jesus was never actually equal to the angels. The Jewish claim, however, was that Jesus was a sinner man making himself equal to God or a god. Nevertheless, as a human in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), he was with the terrestrial bodily glory that is one step below that of the angels. (John 1:14; Colossians 15:40; Hebrews 2:9; 5:7) After his being raised from the dead, he was exalted far above the angels. (Ephesians 1:21; Colossians 1:18; 2:9,10; Philippians 2:9; Hebrews 1:4,6; 1 Peter 3:22) So we conclude that Jesus has never been equal to the angels, and never will be equal to the angels.

God Begets God Theory

Others, however, proclaim that the Jews of that time believed that "God begets God," and thus for God to beget a son, the son would be equal to God who begot the son. As yet we have not found anyone who has produced any proof that the Jews of that age actually took such a view. They may have adopted such a view from Hellenistic philosophy. The idea as we have seen it presented argues, that since man begets man, dog begets dog, and bird begets bird, then God begets God. Such a view actually brings God down so as to be subject to reproductive limits that God set for his living creation on earth. Paul tells us, however, that "the glory of the celestial differs from that of the terrestrial." (1 Corinthians 15:40) We should not confuse the two. If one applies the reproductive laws of terrestrial living creation to the Supreme Being, and one is fully consistent in this, it would lead to conclusion that God needed a wife with whom to have intercourse before any begettal could take place. Oddly, some have end made such a claim, for they claim the Father did have a wife,  that is, the alleged third person of the alleged Holy Trinity,  God's Holy Spirit.  (God's finger is God's wife? -- Matthew 12:28; Luke 11:20) Thus, it would appear that God had sexual intercourse with his holy spirit and thus produced the only-begotten son, although none of this happened at any point in time, but rather it is alleged to have happened outside of all time, in an alleged dimension in which time of any sort does not exist, etc. Thus the son of God is now and for all eternity past and for all eternity future being begotten by sexual intercourse of God with his Holy Spirit! Of course, this is not the way the trinitarian puts it, and we are being somewhat facetious in they way we express the matter, but we are doing this to emphasize how nonsensical such an idea is. The reality, however, is that none of this is anywhere to be found in the Bible.

Of course, most trinitarians do not claim that God's wife is his holy spirit, but most do claim that for God to beget another person, that offspring of God  has to be God, in effect, since there is one God, that one God begets the one God who is the one God who does the one God begetting. To accommodate this apparent self-contradiction, the trinitarian has to conjure up and add to the scriptures several lines of extra-Biblical reasoning, such as a story about one person of God who begets another person of God who is not the first person of God but yet who is the one God who has existed from all eternity! Most trinitarians do argue -- beyond anything that is presented in the Bible itself -- that this begetting is in an alleged eternity that is totally outside of any time, which in reality would mean that right now Jesus is and always will be in the condition of being begotten by God, which they would claim to mean only the person of God that they call "God the Father" who is not part of God, but fully, wholly, God, as distinct from the person of God whom they call "God the Son", who is also not part of God, but fully, wholly, God.

John 10:33

In John 10:33, the claim of the Jewish leaders was that Jesus was a human sinner, not the Son of God as Jesus claimed to be. And then, because Jesus claimed to be the Son of God, it appears that they may have added to this the false claim that Jesus was claiming to be God -- Supreme Being, or equal to the Supreme Being. If this was their claim, then this not something that Jesus ever claimed for himself. However, if their claim was that Jesus, by calling God his father, was making himself "god" in the sense that an angel, as a son of God (Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7), might be called elohim (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7), Jesus most certainly was that in his prehuman existence, since he had been more than angel.

Getting back to John 5:17,18, however, regardless of what the deceived and deceiving Jewish leaders believed, taught or thought, the scriptures never say that the son of the Most High would have to be Most High Himself, as some have claimed. Such a thought has to be added to and read into the scriptures. If the Jews in Jesus' time believed this, their belief in such an idea is irrelevant to whether Jesus himself actually claimed to be equal to his God, which, of course, Jesus never claimed such an idea. The only Most High can certainly beget, bring forth into being, a son, who is not the Most High. That which is begotten by the Most High does not have to be the Most High.

Nevertheless, the stated cause is only a justification of their desire to kill Jesus; the stated cause does not reveal the real reason in their hearts. John 5:18, however, adds to the evidence that they had already determined in their hearts to kill Jesus before their attempts to do so as related in John 8:59 or John 10:33.

John 3:20; 7:7; 8:41; 9:4; 10:25,32,33

Jesus had earlier stated that the world "hates me, because I testify about it, that its works are evil." (John 7:7) He had told these Jewish leaders: "You do the works of your father." (John 8:41) But he claimed for himself: "I must work the works of him who sent me." (John 9:4) [Who sent Jesus? It was Jehovah (Jehovah), the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, who sent Jesus, and has already been shown.] And again: "The works that I do in my Father's name, these testify about me." (John 10:25) [In whose name did Jesus do his works? As has already been shown by prophecy (Deuteronomy 18:15-19), Jesus did his works in the name of Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.] Thus, John testified concerning this: "Everyone who does evil hates the light, and doesn't come to the light, for fear that his works would be reproved." (John 3:20)

Thus, the Jews avoided the true answer to why they sought to kill Jesus, which Jesus asked concerning in John 10:32, and thus they produced a trumped-up "legal" reason for doing so, as recorded in John 10:33.

To note their crafty deception, we read:

Mark 14:1
It was now two days before the feast of the Passover and the unleavened bread, and the chief priests and the scribes sought how they might seize him by deception, and kill him.

Mark 14:2
For they said, "Not during the feast, because there might be a riot of the people

Matthew 26:4
They took counsel together that they might take Jesus by deceit, and kill him.

See also our studies:

We also have a resource page related to Ehjeh and I Am

Updated 12/11/2018 - Ronald R. Day, Sr. (Restoration Light Bible Study Services)
Search: ResLight, RLBible

**************