Wednesday, May 17, 2017

Isaiah 6:8 - Who Will Go For Us?

Isaiah 6:8 - And I heard the voice of the Lord, saying: "Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?" Then I said: "Here am I; send me."

A trinitarian argues from the above the scripture that Isaiah heard the voice of Yahweh [in eternity past], and is referring to himself as more than one person.

Obviously, there is nothing here about these words being said in "eternity past". Such an idea has to be added to and read into what Isaiah said. If one would be consistent in following such reasoning, one would conclude that Isaiah himself had been hearing these words in "eternity past", and thus that Isaiah himself had existed in "eternity past" so as to be hearing these words in "eternity past".

We believe that Isaiah himself is playing a part in the prophetic role, depicting the church of Jesus who was yet to be. Each believer is depicted as hearing the voice of the Lord, asking, "Whom shall I send", and thus is depicted as responding: "Here am I."

The Masoretic text has "Adonai" (transliterated) where "the Lord" appears in most translations. The claim is made by some that this is one of the places copyists replaced Jehovah (Yahweh) with Adonai, and thus some translations have the Holy Name in the scripture. Nevertheless, the Great Isaiah Scroll does not have the holy name in Isaiah 6:8, but rather the Hebrew characters representing Adoni [transliterated, meaning "my Lord"] or Adonai [Literally, my Lords, used singularly, however, it means superlative or superior "Lord"].

At any rate, it is probable that Isaiah originally meant this to be "my Lord" [adoni], referring to the coming Lord of Isaiah [representing the believer]. From the New Testament, the coming "lord" is shown to be Jesus, the promised Messiah. In such a case, the words in question, who will go for us, appears to be those of Jesus directed toward his God, Jehovah. If so, the "us" refers to both Yahweh and Jesus. The one to "go" for them would be Isaiah (picturing the church individually). The fulfillment of the prophecy supports that ADNY (transliterated) in Isaiah 6:8 is not Jehovah, but Jesus.

This is in harmony with what Jesus said, for he recognized that no one could come to him except that his God and Father should draw such an one to Jesus.

John 6:44 - No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him.

John 6:45 - Everyone who hears from the Father, and has learned, comes to me.

John 6:65 - No one can come to me, unless it is given to him by my Father.

The "us" would be both Jehovah and Jesus. The one to "go" for them would be represented by Isaiah, individually those who learn of Jehovah and come to Jesus.

However, the Great Isaiah Scroll does have the Hebrew word of God's name in Isaiah 6:11 -- not Adoni or Adonai. Thus it is possible that "the Lord" in Isaiah 6:8 is referring to Jehovah. Assuming that "the Lord" here is Jehovah, then this would only mean that Jehovah is simply speaking to Jesus, saying who will go for us?

Regardless, "us" would still be Yahweh and Jesus, and in no wise would mean that Jesus is Yahweh. If Tom says to his son, "Who will represent us in court?", is Tom saying he and his son are one sentient being?

See also:

Isaiah Saw His Glory

Genesis 1:26 - Let Us and Elohim

By Ronald R. Day

Genesis 1:26 - God [ELOHIM] said [singular verb], "Let us make [plural] man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the birds of the sky, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth."
Our trinitarian neighbors see this scripture as a reference to their trinitarian dogma. It is claimed that ELOHIM, being plural in form, means that their idea of "Godhead" has three persons, and that the plurality of "let us" means that one person of God is speaking to another person of God, using the plural form "us". Some modalists and oneness believers also cite this scripture as proof of an alleged "plurality" in their Godhead consisting of Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

Obviously, God here is speaking to someone. Normally, if a person says to his friend, "Let us do this or that according to our plans," we do not think that the person who is speaking is speaking to another person of himself. Likewise, in those instances where God says "let us", "we", etc., God is not speaking to another person of Himself, but he is speaking to someone else who is not Himself. Indeed, the default reasoning should be that Jehovah is speaking to someone else who is not Himself.
The truth is that the idea that God is here speaking to Himself (allegedly as two different persons of Himself) has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into what the scripture actually says, and such has to be assumed only to conform to preconceived doctrine, which also has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into, each and every scripture that is used to allegedly support the extra-Biblical doctrine.

The plurality of ELOHIM means "gods", not "persons" or "attributes"; thus, to apply this word to the Creator in plural terms would mean that Jehovah is gods [plural], not persons in one God. Nevertheless, the word in its meaning contains the attribute of mightiness, but this is one attribute, not attributes (plural).

Nevertheless, the scriptures do not apply ELOHIM to Jehovah with plurality, anymore than Jehovah Himself applies ELOHIM to Moses with plurality. (Exodus 7:1) Indeed, if ELOHIM used of Jehovah means that Jehovah is more than one person, then to be consistent, the one making such a claim should also claim that God made Moses more than one person to Pharaoh. When Jesus quoted Exodus 6:3, as recorded in Matthew 22:32, Jesus did not use a plural form of the word THEOS; he uses the singular form.

In reality, like several other Hebrew words, the plural forms of EL can be used in singular contexts to denote what we in English might call the superior or superlative degree. Regarding this usage in Biblical Hebrew (as well as some other ancient languages), scholars often call this the "plural intensive" usage, where a plural form of a word is used in a singular context and thus the plural form is viewed as singular, but is intensified in meaning (similar to the English superior or superlative degree). In other words, the plural form of a word is treated as though it were singular, but only intensified in meaning. In English we do this by adding "er" or "est" to many words, such as high, higher, highest, or we might add "more" or "most" before words. (However, in English, especially in its archaic forms, the plural is often employed as a plural intensive when addressing majesty, a judge, etc., as in "your Majesty", and "your Honour", instead of "thy Majesty" or "thy honour.") Therefore, in Exodus 7:1, Jehovah stated that He was making Moses, not persons, to Pharaoh, but rather one person of superior might (ELOHIM) to Pharaoh.

The point, however, is that ELOHIM is used of the one Jehovah, the "one God" who is the Creator of His people. Jehovah is not more than one Jehovah, nor more than one god, nor is he more than one person, or individual, nor does a Supreme Being consisting of Father, Son and Holy Spirit. "Hear, Israel: Jehovah is our God; Jehovah is one." "Hasn't one God created us?" -- Deuteronomy 6:4; Malachi 2:10.

So who was Jehovah speaking to as recorded in Genesis 1:26? Although there are some hints in the Old Testament, we have to look to the New Testament for the answer to this. John 1:1,2 tells us that the one who became flesh was with God in the beginning that is spoken of there. That "beginning" is not the beginning of the entire universe, as many have assumed, but it is the "beginning" of the "world" (Greek, Kosmos) that God created through the one called "the Word." (John 1:10) All in this world was made through the one called "the Word". Not one thing (pertaining to the world that was made through the Word) was made without the Word. (John 1:3) This one titled "the Word" became flesh, and came into the world that was made through him, and that world did not recognize him. (John 1:1,2,10) Jesus identified himself as that one who was with the "only true God" before the world of mankind was made. (John 17:1,3,5) "God", whom the Word was with, refers to the One whom Jesus addressed as "the only true God", that is, his God and Father. Jesus was with the only true God, and thus John 1:3,10 is really speaking of Jesus as the one through whom "God" made the world of mankind. Therefore, by comparing spiritual revealing with spiritual revealing (1 Corinthians 2:10-12), we can see that the one whom "the only true God" was addressing in Genesis 1:27 is Jesus.

However, someone may object, doesn’t John 1:1 tell us that, not only was the Word with [or toward, in service of] God, but also that the Word was "God"? Doesn’t this prove the trinitarian idea that God is more than one person? No, it doesn't! It should be obvious, by comparing John 1:1,2 and John 17:1-5, that Jesus was with, or in service of, the only true God. Would John then say that Jesus "was" the only true God whom he was with? John twice states that the Word was with God, thus giving emphasis to this thought. The thought of two persons as the only true God is not inherent in the words of John 1:1,2, but the idea has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into what John wrote. One has to imagine and assume that John, in referring to "God" whom the Word was with, does not mean the alleged triune "God", but that it means the first person of the alleged trinity as the Father. We know it is true that "God" whom the Word was with, toward or in service of, is the God and Father of Jesus, because of Jesus’ words as recorded in John 17:1,3,5. However, the part about the Father being a person of a trinity has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into, what John wrote in John 1:1,2, and Jesus’ reference to the Father as the "only true God" in John 17:3 has to either be ignored, or in some manner be interpreted (again this is often done by imaginative assumptions being added to and read into what Jesus stated) in order make Jesus’ words still mean that Jesus is a person of the only true God. Likewise, the trinitarian has to imagine, assume, add to, and read into what John said that the Word is the alleged second person of the trinity.

So why would John say that the Word was "God", if we are not to imagine and assume he is a person of the only true God? Is there not only one God? Can Jesus be "God" who is not the only true God? And wouldn’t this mean that there is more than one true God? The answer again lies in comparing spiritual revealing with spiritual revealing (1 Corinthians 2:10-12), not by imagining, adding, and reading into the scripture a lot of assumptions that would make Jesus a person of his God. What is the true scriptural answer to why John would refer to Jesus as God?

It is obvious that John is not referring to Jesus as "God" in the same manner in which he speaks of "God" whom Jesus was with. In other words, it should be obvious that Jesus is not "God" whom he was with, and as mentioned before, John emphasized this by repeating it again in John 1:2. If Jesus is "God" who he was with, or in service of, then Jesus is the Father, since Jesus says that he with his Father, but trinitarians deny that Jesus is the Father.

The Greek word for God is usually transliterated as THEOS, and forms of this word are used twice in John 1:1. Forms of THEOS, in the New Testament, are used to translate forms of the Hebrew word that is often transliterated as EL; it should be apparent that the Hebrew writers of the New Testament were using THEOS in the same manner, and with same meaning, as the Hebrew writers of the Old Testament. In the words recorded at John 10:34,35, was Jesus saying that all the sons of the Most High are persons of the Most High, that they are all the only true God?

What many do not realize is that there is a scriptural Hebraic tradition that allows the usage of the words for "God" in a more general sense of might, power, authority, etc. Most translations of the Bible into English as well as other languages recognize this usage. We can use the most popular English translation — the King James Version — to illustrate such usage. This can be demonstrated in such verses where the KJV renders the word for "God" (forms of EL and ELOHIM in the Hebrew) so as to denote strength, power, might, rulership, etc., such as in the following verses: Genesis 23:6 (mighty); Genesis 30:8 (great); Genesis 31:29 (power); Deuteronomy 28:32 (might); 1 Samuel 14:15 (great); Nehemiah 5:5 (power); Psalm 8:5 (angels); Psalm 36:6 (great); Psalm 82:1 (mighty); Proverbs 3:27 (power); Psalm 29:1 (mighty); Ezekiel 32:21 (strong); Jonah 3:3 (exceeding). If one were to substitute "false god" in many of these verses, we would have some absurd statements. This proves that these words are used in a sense other than the only true God, or as "false god."

If such Hebraic usage is applied to Jesus (who was with the only true God -- John 17:1,3) in John 1:1, we would have "the Word was mighty," and all makes perfect sense without adding all of the imaginations and assumptions that would have to accompany viewing the scripture through the tint of the trinity doctrine, or the oneness doctrine. Jesus was indeed a mighty one with the only true MIGHT before the world of mankind was made. Thus, the scriptural conclusion is that it was this "mighty" one that the only true God addressed in Genesis 1:26, using the term "let us."

Related:

Written by Others
We do not necessarily agree with all given by the authors whose writings are linked to below.

Early Church's Understanding of Genesis 1:26 - This is evidently written by a trinitarian.


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Originally published April 12, 2009; Updated and Republished November 25, 2014; Republished May 17, 2017; November 14, 2016.

Genesis 1:26,27 - Who Is God Speaking To?

God said, "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the birds of the sky, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth." God created man in his own image. In God's image he created him; male and female he created them. -- World English Bible.

Many have claimed that the above scripture is one person of God (Jehovah, Yahweh) speaking to another person of Jehovah. Actually, there is certainly nothing here to give us any reason to think that one person of Jehovah was here speaking to another person of Jehovah. Jehovah was indeed speaking to someone, and other scriptures indicate that this was the pre-human LOGOS, Jesus, who was with the only true God before the world of mankind was made (John 1:1,2; 17:5), and who acted as God's agent in the creation of the world of mankind. (John 1:3,9; Ephesians 3:9) Additionally, there is nothing in Genesis 1:26 about three persons in one God, only an indication that Jehovah was speaking to someone who was already in his image and likeness. -- 2 Corinthians 4:4; Colossians 1:15; Hebrews 1:3.

Often many will point to Isaiah 44:24, which speaks of Jehovah's creating the material universe, and claim that this scripture shows that Jehovah was also alone when he created the world of mankind, as recorded in Genesis 1,2. Evidently, Jehovah was alone when he first produced the material universe, but, after that, he most certainly was not alone in the creation of the world of mankind, the heavens and the earth being spoken of in Genesis 1,2.
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See our studies related to CREATION.

Others have suggested that God was speaking to the angels here. The angels were certainly present at the creation of man, for they were the sons of God who rejoiced at earth's creation. (Job 38:4-7) God certainly could have been speaking to the angels here, although the Bible does not directly state that the angels participated in the creation.

We certainly find nothing here to indicate that one person of Jehovah is speaking to another person of Jehovah, or that there is more than one person in Jehovah.

Some of our trinitarian neighbors often make the claim that the plural/singular usage of language in Genesis 1:26,27 gives proof of their trinity doctrine. It has been claimed that when God spoke of "us" in creation, that this indicates that Jehovah is Jesus. Trinitarians claim that this means that there are more than one person in the Creator/God. The usage of the Hebrew word elohim, translated as "God" in this verse, is also offered as proof of the trinity, since elohim is plural, not singular. It is also claimed that man -- made in God's image -- is also a trinity, with reference to 1 Thessalonians 5:23. Please see our study on 1 Thessalonians 5:23.

The Word ELOHIM

While Jehovah did create by means of his Son, there is nothing in the word elohim as used in Genesis 1:26 that means a plurality of individuals, any more than its use of Moses in Exodus 7:1, where Jehovah states to Moses: "See, I have made thee a god [ELOHIM] to Pharaoh." (Webster translation) Moses is certainly not a plurality of individuals. Thus there is definitely nothing in that word that identifies a plurality of individuals. If used to denote plurality, it means gods, nor a multiple of persons in one god.

The Hebrew Scriptures do often use the plural word Elohim in singular settings, usually with the singular article or singular verbs, etc. This has been called the "plural intensive" -- where the plural is used in a singular context. It has nothing to do with the trinity doctrine.

As pointed out, Moses is also called elohim -- plural. (Exodus 7:1) The scriptures concerning Moses indicate that elohim, although plural, is applied to the singular person, Moses (who is a type of Jesus -- Deuteronomy 18:18,19; Acts 3:19-23). Moses is not more than one person, so why the plural usage here? It is plural used in a singular setting to denote supremacy (plural intensive), that is, to denote the supremacy of the power given to Moses by Jehovah over the power of Pharaoh and the gods of Pharaoh.

We should also note that elohim -- when used with a plural application -- means "gods" -- not persons. Thus the argument that its plural usage means a trinity would tend to mean that there are three gods, not three persons in one God, as is claimed for the trinity doctrine. ELOHIM in Genesis 1:26 is used as the plural intensive, or superlative, of the singular, and refers to one person speaking to another person, saying "Let us..." If ELOHIM is used as a plural in Genesis 1:26, then we would have several Gods saying to another or others: "Let us..." But in reality, ELOHIM refers to one: Jehovah, and then that one is speaking to another or to others.

For more on the usage of the world *elohim*, see our studies related to ELOHIM AND PLURALITY:

Image and Likeness

Someone has argued: "As in "Let US make MAN in our IMAGE and LIKENESS. Now, do tell us how God made man in 'his image and likeness' if God is a spirit? Does a spirit have an image? A likeness?"

This argument would appear to be making God Almighty to be a flesh being like man, who is flesh, earthly. God is spirit in substance, heavenly, not earthly, fleshly. (Psalm 8:5; 1 Corinthians 15:39-41; Hebrews 2:7) To be in God's image and likeness does not mean that if Jehovah is an invisible spirit being that we also must also be invisible spirit beings. Having been created in the image of God certainly does not mean that the first human pair were invisible, which is an attribute of God Almighty. (Colossians 1:15) Likewise, since Jesus' exaltation, we read that he dwells in unapproachable light; whom no human has seen, nor can see. -- 1 Timothy 6:16.

The word "image" is used in different ways in the Bible; Adam was created in God's image; (Genesis 1:26) Does this mean that God has a fleshly body, as man does? Absolutely not!

An image of anything is a representation or copy of it, though of inferior substance. So the first man was an earthly or clay copy of his heavenly, spiritual Maker -- a copy of God! yes, he was to be a manifestation of God in flesh.

There is nothing in Genesis 1:26 about three persons in one God, only an indication that Jehovah was speaking to someone who was already in his image and likeness. -- 2 Corinthians 4:4; Colossians 1:15; Hebrews 1:3.

Man was originally created in the likeness of God, crowned with glory. -- Genesis 1:26; 5:1; Psalm 8:5

Man was created in the mental and moral image and likeness of God, with the ability to reason and to exercise his free will to choose right or wrong. Man exists on a higher plane than the animals and "a little lower than the angels [elohim]." (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7) It is difficult to judge from present human conditions all that is meant by God's image, because we have no sample (save that recorded of Jesus) of perfect humanity for comparison. "All have sinned and come short of the glory of God" in which Adam was created. -- Romans 3:23; Psalm 8:5.

Now we note some other scriptures concerning the likeness of God. David hoped to be raised again in the likeness of God. (Psalm 17:15) The new creature in Christ is in the likeness of God, having been reckoned as justified through faith in the blood of Jesus. -- Ephesians 2:24

However, more specifically the context indicates how man was created in the image and likeness of God: "Let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the birds of the sky, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth." In other words, man was not only made morally and intellectually to resemble his Creator, so that he would be able to think and reason on higher planes than would be possible to the lower animals, but he was also endowed with the authority to control the lower creatures, to be the EL -- powerful ruler -- of earth as Jehovah is the EL of the universe. This agrees well with the statement of Psalm 8:5-8, in which it is declared that God created man but a little lower than the angels, so far as his intelligence and capacity were concerned, and that thus he was "crowned with glory and honor" and given dominion over the lower creatures. It further agrees with Paul's statement in 1 Corinthians 15:39-41. Nevertheless, Paul says concerning this dominion: "But now we don't see all these things subjected to him, yet," indicating what he said elsewhere concerning man's fall from divine likeness, yet with the hope of recovery from this fall. -- Romans 1:21-2:2; 3:10,23; 5: 15-19; 8:19-21; Hebrews 2:7.

And we should note the reading of the following verse, also verse 31, which show that God not only purposed the work and proposed it to his Son, his agent in the creation of all things (John 1:3; Colossians 1:16), and that he not only began the work, but that he also completed it: -- "So God created man [past tense] in his own image; in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them." "And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good." (Compare Genesis 1:27,31; 5:1; 9:6; Ecclessiastes 7:29; 1 Corinthians 11:7; James 3:9) And this creature which God "had made," completed, and declared to be a copy, an image of himself, a manifestation of himself in flesh, he was also pleased to own as his son (Luke 3:38), and as Paul says -- "if a son, then an heir;" (Galatians 4:7) for God brings no son into existence for whom he has not made ample provision. Therefore as a son he had the rich token of his Father's loving providence in the vast domain of earth which he was to subdue and take possession of as his posterity would increase and require it; and all its products -- animal, vegetable and mineral -- were subject to his control and use: "And God blessed them, and God said to them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living animal that moveth upon the earth. And God said, Behold, I have given you every herb bearing seed, which [is] upon the face of all the earth, and every tree, in which [is] the fruit of a tree yielding seed; to you it shall be for food." -- Genesis 1:28,29

And not only did God thus give to Adam the whole earth as an inheritance for himself and his posterity, telling them to appropriate it and cultivate it as their increasing necessities should require, but he had already prepared a choice portion of it as a fit home for the perfect pair, and a sample of what the whole domain of earth would become under the process of industrious cultivation with his added blessing. -- "And Jehovah God planted a garden eastward in Eden; and there he put the man whom he had formed.... And Jehovah God took the man and put him into the garden of Eden to dress it and to keep it." -- Genesis 2:8,15

Thus the context indicates the image of God in Adam, as well as can be seen in Psalm 8:5-8. It is not an image of physical likeness; but to Adam was given the ability to rule, to have a dominion. He had the ability of perception like God; of understanding; as well to reflect all the general attributes and qualities of God on a lesser scale. Man was given perception, imagination, the power of original suggestion, memory, reason, judgment and will, corresponding to these various intellectual qualities in God. He has also the Godlike moral quality of conscience, which enables him to discern the right and the wrong, to distinguish one from the other and to estimate them properly. As originally created, all of these powers worked together perfectly and harmoniously, all being subject to that supreme mental faculty, the will, which, being free to act independently, though aided by the suggestions of all the other mental and moral faculties, determines the course and constitutes the character of the man.

The glory of God-likeness and dominion was to a great extent lost when Adam disobeyed. (Romans 3:23) The apostle tells us that now we do not see all things subjected to man. (Hebrews 2:6-7) Thus the original purpose for mankind has yet to be seen. When Adam sinned, in effect God disowned him as his son, as he no longer reflected the qualities of God.

Therefore we see from the Bible testimony that man was originally perfect, an image or copy of God in flesh. Of the fall from that original perfection and the results to the entire race of Adam, we also have the clear testimony of the Scriptures, showing just how it came about -- that it was a willful transgression of a known righteous law, in the face of a distinct warning of the penalty of such a course. It was a sin on man's part only, and from which God is fully exonerated in that man was left under no necessity of want and with full instruction as to the right course and as to the results of a wrong course of action. The only cause of man's fall, then, which is traceable to the Creator, lies in the fact that he created him in his own image -- with a free will of his own. But this endowment, we see, was the crowning act of God's favor to man, and man's choicest blessing. And so it was the lack of appreciation, and an abuse of God's abounding favor and goodness, and not any lack on God's part, which led to the fall.

As a consequence of that fall from original perfection and favor on the part of the head and representative of the race, another law of our being, designed for our highest good -- the law of heredity -- has brought upon all Adam's posterity its entailment of imperfection and proneness to evil. And thus all the race is in the same wretched plight. An evil tree cannot bring forth good fruit, nor a bitter fountain send forth sweet waters. The present state, therefore, of the entire race is a degenerating and dying one. Had it not been for the redemption through the ransom sacrifice of Jesus, the plight of man would have been without remedy.

Ronald R. Day, Sr.

Links for studies related to Genesis 1:26,27:
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/genesis.html#gen1-26

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Isaiah 61:1 - Jehovah Sent His Messiah

Isaiah 61:1 - The Spirit of the Lord Jehovah is on Me, because Jehovah has anointed Me to preach the gospel to the meek. He has sent Me to bind up the broken-hearted, to proclaim liberty to captives, and complete opening to the bound ones. -- Green's Literal.

The above scripture is sometimes offered as proof of the trinity, evidently simply because Jehovah is mentioned, and the spirit of Jehovah is mentioned, and the one sent by Jehovah is mentioned. The trinitarian has to imagine and assume that "Jehovah" refers to one person of their idea of the "one Jehovah" (Deuteronomy 6:8) of three persons, while the spirit of Jehovah they imagine and assume to be referring another person of the one Jehovah of three persons, and the one sent by Jehovah would have to be imagined to be another person of the one Jehovah of three persons.  All of this has to be imagined, thought "beyond the things which are written" (1 Corinthians 4:8), and then added to, and read into what is written, although it seems that most trinitarians rarely try to reason their own belief out when they look at scriptures such as this.

Actually, the one Jehovah is here completely distinguished from the one sent by Jehovah. Nor is the spirit of Jehovah depicted as a person of Jehovah to whom that spirit belongs. Jesus identifies himself with God's people in Isaiah 61:2 where he speaks of Jehovah as "our God" [Elohim]. He thus identified God as one person, and it is that one person who sent him. (John 17:1,3,5) Micah 5:4 identifies Jehovah as the God of the Messiah. Isaiah 61:1,2 alone (although there are many similar) should be enough to convince one that the default reasoning is that Jesus is not Jehovah, his God.

As the scripture reads, it was Jehovah -- one person -- who anointed the one sent, thus making the one sent the Messiah (anointed one) of Jehovah. This agrees with the rest of the Bible. In the Bible, we find that Jehovah is always presented as one person, and never is Jehovah presented as more than one person.

John 1:1 and Trinity Assumptions

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God [TON THEON], and the Word was God [THEOS]. The same was in the beginning with God [TON THEON]. -- John 1:1,2, World English - transliterations from the Westcott & Hort Interlinear.

In order to get trinity into John 1:1, the trinitarian has to assume and read into the verse several things: (1) That Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, is more than one person; (2) that Jesus is a person of God; (3) that two persons of the trinity-god are being spoken of here, and (4) that God whom the Logos was with is their alleged "first person" of the trinity, and (5) that THEOS applied to the Logos is their alleged "second person" of the trinity. Then, (6) they have to add to these assumptions that these two alleged persons of their trinity are both the same one true God, and not two Gods (as it actually reads in most translations). Rather than assuming and adding such to the scriptures, it is best to simply let the scriptures have their own say, applying spiritual revealing with spiritual revealing. -- 1 Corinthians 2:10,13.

The word THEOS is being applied to the LOGOS in John 1:1, but this does not mean that John was saying that Jesus was the only true God whom the LOGOS was with, as it should be apparent since twice John states that the LOGOS was with God. Jesus declares that One whom he was with before the world was made was the only true God (John 17:1,3,5), thus the scriptures make it plain that John is not saying that the Logos was the only true God whom the Logos was with. Paul distinguishes Jesus from being the "one God" of whom are all in 1 Corinthians 8:6. The God of Abraham, Isaaac, and Jacob, who spoke through the prophets of old, is presented as only one person and distinguished from his Son in Hebrews 1:1,2. Isaiah 61:1,2 and Micah 5:4 presents Jehovah as the ELOHIM (God) of the Messiah. The default scriptural reasoning should be that Jesus is not Jehovah, his God. Therefore, the term THEOS as applied to the Logos should be applied with the general meaning of the Hebraic words for deity/divinity (forms of EL, ELOHIM), that is, of strength, power, or might.

While most translations render "kai theos een ho logos" as "the Word was God," Moffat renders this phrase as "the Word was divine." Julius Mantey declares that the phrase means "the Word was deity." We should have no objection to rendering theos as divine or deity, if one applies the terms divine and deity with the general meaning of strength, might, power, rather than as Supreme Being -- the Might of the Universe. James Parkinson, in his footnote of the American Revised Version Improved and Corrected, suggests "mighty was the Word." This would be the better rendering, or a rendering such as "the Word was mighty," both of which would distinguish the Word from the only true God whom the Logos was with. This would be in agreement with the rest of the scriptures, where the words for deity / divinity are applied to persons (and even things) who are not Jehovah in a general sense of might, power or strength.

The best point to begin with to show this usage is with John 10:34,35, where Jesus quotes/references Psalms 82:1,6, where both forms of the Hebrew word EL and ELOHIM are applied to the sons of the Most High, the sons to whom the Logos came (as Jesus explained). In John 10:34,35, the word ELOHIM is rendered as THEOI, a plural form of THEOS. According to the King James Version, God [ELOHIM] standeth in the congregation of the mighty [EL]. (Psalm 82:1) In reference to the sons of the Most High, the KJV renders the term EL as "the mighty." I believe that the KJV is correct in this rendering. Applying this scriptural principle to THEOS in John 1:1, we would likewise have "the Logos was mighty", or the "the Logos was a mighty one". Jesus, before he became flesh with the earthly glory of a sinless man that is a little lower than the angels (Psalm 8:5; 1 Corinthians 15:39-41; Hebrews 2:9; 10:5), as indeed a mighty spirit being when he was with his God in the beginning of the world of mankind. -- John 17:1,3,5.

Of course, Psalm 82:1 is not the only place that the KJV renders forms of the words EL (Strong's Hebrew #410)  and ELOHIM (Strong's Hebrew #430) with terms showing mightiness or strength. Here are a few scriptures: Genesis 23:6 (mighty); Genesis 30:8 (mighty); Genesis 31:29 (power); Deuteronomy 28:32 (might); 1 Samuel 14:15 (great); Nehemiah 5:5 (power); Psalm 8:5 (angels); Psalm 36:6 (great); Proverbs 3:27 (power); Psalm 29:1 (mighty); Ezekiel 32:21 (strong); Jonah 3:3 (exceeding). The point is the King James translators, in all these verses, did not render the word for deity/divinity [EL] as "God" or as "god", but with terms of might, strength, great, power and might.

All of the spirit beings, by "nature" of the superior might given to them by the Almighty are scripturally designated as el or elohim, and thus can be spoken of as divine -- mighty -- in being. -- Psalm 8:5 (compare Hebrews 2:9; also Psalm 50:1 and 96:4 could be speaking of angels as elohim); 45:6,7; Isaiah 9:6,7; John 1:1,2; Acts 2:33; 5:31; Ephesians 1:20,22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2-4,8; 1 Peter 1:21; 3:22.

Likewise, the firstborn creature (Colossians 1:15), who existed before all the creation that was created by means of him (Colossians 1:17), can certainly also have the term theos applied to him without meaning that he is the only true God who sent him. Indeed, before he became a man, he "was" a mighty spirit being, having a heavenly glory that he did not possess while he was a human. -- John 17:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40.


By Ronald R. Day, Sr.



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Colossians 2:9 - The Plenitude of Deity

For in Him all the fullness [Greek, pleroma, plenitude] of Deity [Greek, Theotes; Strong's #2320] dwells in bodily form and in him you are made full, who is the head of all principality and power. -- Colossians 2:9,10, New American Standard Bible translation
https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/greek/2320.html
The Bauer, Arndt and Gingrich Lexicon [BAGD]  defines the Greek word theotes as: "deity, divinity, used as abstract noun for theos...the fullness of a deity Col.2:9". [abstract noun, a quality or attribute].

This form of THEOS, that is, THEOTES, appears only this one time in the Scriptures, thus we have a lack of scriptural comparison for its particular usage. We have, however, the Hebrew background of words that are translated into Greek as THEOS, that is, forms of EL and ELOHIM. We have given before the Hebriac usage of these words in the Hebrew scriptures, showing that when they are used of others than Jehovah (or idols of men), they take on a more general meaning of might, power, strength, etc, rather than of the Supreme Mighty One of the universe. Without assuming and adding to Colossians 2:9 the idea that Jesus is being spoken of here as the Supreme Being, it certainly can be seen that Paul would be using theotes to describe what God has given to Jesus as being power and might, not any idea that Jesus is Jehovah, or that Jesus is a person of Jehovah.
See our study:
Hebraic Usage of the Titles for "God"

The Greek form of the word often transliterated as Soma (body) that appears in Colossians 2:9, is often transliterated as Somatikos (adverb form of "Soma", bodily), which form likewise does not appear anywhere else in the Scriptures. Paul speaks of Jesus' spiritual, heavenly, body in the resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:44), when he says that Jesus, the last Adam, "became a life-giving spirit." (1 Corinthians 15:45) Thus, he is speaking in Colossians 2:9 about that spiritual body, as can be seen from the context, and not the body of flesh and blood that Jesus had already given in sacrifice. -- Hebrews 10:10.
See:
Jesus Died a Human Being - Raised a Spirit Being

The plenitude of godship -- ruling might -- does dwell permanently in the mighty spiritual body of Jesus. It is not just an authority that is given to him, but his very being, after he became the life-giving spirit, now possesses all the power needed to carry out the works of his Father, thus "it was the Father's good pleasure for all the fullness to dwell in Him," (Colossians 1:19, NAS) and so that now he "is the head of all principality and power." (Colossians 2:10; see also Ephesians 1:3,17-23) This might -- godhead, godship -- is given to Jesus from his God. -- Psalm 45:7; Matthew 28:18; Hebrews 1:2,6,9; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Philippians 2:9; Colossians 2:10; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Psalm 2:7,8; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; Luke 1:32; Jeremiah 23:5; Daniel 7:13,14. -- Ronald R. Day, Sr.
See also:
The Fullness of Deity

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Monday, May 15, 2017

Luke 24:39 - Jesus' Appearances in the Locked Room

By Ronald R. Day, Senior

When we point out that Jesus was put to death in the flesh, but raised in the spirit (1 Peter 3:18), trinitarians and some others claim that Luke 24:39 proves that Jesus was raised in his human body from the grave, and that Jesus is still a human being of flesh and bones to this day. It is claimed that the nature of Christ is twofold, one of God-being and another of human-being. It is claimed that only his human being died, while his God being continued to exist, and some claim that it was his God-being that raised his human body from death.

Jesus certainly did raise his body for the appearances in the locked room; however, we need to distinguish his raising up his body for such appearances from his being raised in the spirit. There is no scripture that says that Jesus arose in his human body from the grave.

Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus (Ephesians 1:3), is the Only one who is the source of all (1 Corinthians 8:6), and hence the only one person who is the Supreme Being, Jehovah is He who anointed and sent Jesus (Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3), prepared a body of flesh for Jesus (Hebrews 10:5), and made Jesus a little lower than the angels so that Jesus could offer that body of flesh with its blood to Jehovah his God for our sins.  -- Matthew 26:26-28; Luke 22:19; Romans 3:25; Colossians 1:14; Ephesians 5:2; Hebrews 2:9; 9:14; 10:10; 1 Peter 2:24; 3:18; 1 John 1:7; Revelation 1:5.

It is the God and Father of Jesus who has made Jesus both Lord and Christ (Ezekiel 34:23,24; Isaiah 61:1,2; Acts 2:36), and has exalted him to the highest position in the universe, far above the angels, next to the only Most High.-- Acts 2:33,36; 5:31; Philippians 2:9; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; 1 Corinthians 15:27; Hebrews 1:4,6; 1 Peter 3:22.Indeed, Jesus, himself, was not raised as a human being, with the terrestrial bodily glory that is a little lower than the angels. Jesus, in being raised from the grave, was given a body by his father as is true of all who are to be raised from the dead in the last day. (1 Corinthians 15:35-38) The body given to Jesus when he was raised from death is not the glory of a human being, which is lower than the angels (Hebrews 2:9), since Jesus is not still a human being a little lower than the angels. (Hebrews 2:9) Jesus is no longer in the "days of his flesh." (Hebrews 5:7) He is now a "life-giving spirit". -- 1 Corinthians 15:45, New American Standard translation.

All must agree that Jesus is now a spirit being. The trinitarian claims that Jesus is indeed God, and thus Jesus must be an invisible spirit being, since God is spirit. (John 4:24; Colossians 1:15) So even from the trinitarian standpoint, Jesus is a spirit being. However, many trinitarians, and some others, will contradict this by quoting Jesus' statement: "a spirit doesn't have flesh and bones, as you see that I have," and then claim that Jesus was saying that he is not a spirit being, but a human of flesh and bones. They do no seem to reason very well on this, for if he is not a spirit, then he must not be God, and he must only be a human of flesh and bones. Of course, Jesus is indeed a spirit being, even as God is a spirit being. Jesus was not saying that he was not a spirit being here, because he most definitely was raised as a spirit being. -- 1 Peter 3:18.

So what did Jesus mean when he said "a spirit doesn't have flesh and bones, as you see that I have?"
He certainly could not have been denying that he is a spirit being. Our trinitarian, as well as our "oneness" neighbors, even claim that he is God, who is indeed spirit in being. We should look to the context of Luke 24:39 to see what Jesus was speaking of.  The context, and other scriptures, help us to gain some understanding, by comparing what God has revealed through his holy spirit, comparing spiritual revealing with spiritual revealing. -- 1 Corinthians 2:10,12,13.

Of course, spirit beings usually do not have a flesh and bone body. However, angels, who are spirits (Hebrews 1:7,14; Psalm 104;4) have appeared many times with flesh bodies. In such cases, they were not flesh, but they did manifest themselves in such a way that they were called "men," even eating and drinking. Were they actually men? No. But in their appearance, in their manifestation, they were 'men'. -- Genesis 18:2; 19:1,8,12,15; Judges 6:11-22; 13:11,20; Joshua 5:13-15.

We know that the angels that sinned also were allowed to take on a form of humans before the flood of Noah's day. Evidently, this privilege was taken away from them, since we do not see them doing this today. Instead, these spirits at times make appearances as phantoms, without bodies of bones and flesh.

While we can see the possibility that Jesus was actually in his own fleshly body in which he died at this scene, for he could have produced it for this purpose, even though he was a spirit being, in a manner similar to the angels who appeared as men as recorded in the Hebrew Scriptures, we should not assume that this means that Jesus was raised from death back to his body of flesh.

So let's return to our question concerning Jesus' statement, "a spirit does not have flesh and bones", and note carefully the context of Luke 24:39 in order to understand what had happened before and also similar experiences in other scriptures, comparing spiritual revealing with spiritual revealing.

"But they were terrified and affrightened, and supposed that they had seen a spirit. And he said unto them, Why are ye troubled? and why do thoughts arise in your hearts? Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have." -- Luke 24:37-39.

The disciples were afraid because they thought they had seen a spirit, the word "spirit" is being used as a phantom -- a manifestation, a resemblance, produced by a wicked spirit, usually pretending to be the spirit of a dead person. (Luke 24:37) The disciples were aware of God's law forbidding communicating with such spirits (Leviticus 19:31; 20:6; Deuteronomy 18:10,11), and that it was forbidden for a spirit medium to be in the land of Israel (Leviticus 20:27; Deuteronomy 18:10,11; 1 Samuel 28:7-9); thus they had reason for concern that such a spirit might appear to them. They certainly would not want to be used as a medium by such spirits.* Matthew 12:12,18 identifies such spirits a unclean spirits, demons.
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*See the Dawn study on "Spiritualism -- Its Claims"
http://www.dawnbible.com/booklets/spiritualism.htm

On a different occasion, we read: "But when they saw him [Jesus] walking upon the sea, they supposed it had been a spirit, and cried out." (Mark 6:49) Matthew reports the same incident as: "And when the disciples saw him walking on the sea, they were troubled, saying, It is a spirit; and they cried out for fear." (Matthew 14:26) The Greek word translated "spirit" in these accounts is Strong's #5326, phantasma, meaning "a mere show", or "simulacrum", as in an appearance or apparition like a human form made by a wicked spirit.

In Luke 24:37, the wording is similar, "But they were terrified and filled with fear, and supposed that they saw a spirit." However, the Greek word translated "spirit" here is not *phantasma*, but rather Strong's 4151, *pneuma*, meaning, breath, or in usage, force, energy, spirit, and has a variety of applications. It is the word used in Matthew 24:12,18 of demons.

The following is a list of some of the scriptures where *pneuma* is used of demons: Matthew 8:16; 10:1; 12:43,45; Mark 1:23,26,27; 3:11,30; 5:2,8,13; 6:7; 7:25; 9:17,20,25; Luke 4:33,36; 6:18; 7:21; 8:2,55; 9:39,42; Luke 10:20; 11:24,26; Acts 5:16; 8:7; 16:16,18; 19:12,15,16; Ephesians 6:21; 1 Peter 3:19; Revelation 16:13,14.

Since the flood of Noah's day we only read of God's obedient angels being permitted at times to materialize in the form of men, as in Judges 13:3-20, where an angel of Jehovah appeared to the mother and father of Samson. They thought they were talking to a man, but it was an angel, because he ascended in the flame of the altar and disappeared. Likewise, we read in Genesis 18:2-19;25, when Abraham lifted up his eyes and saw three men coming to him, and he greeted them, he made them welcome, and prepared a meal, and they ate and talked with Abraham. Paul, mentioning them, said that we should not forget to entertain strangers, because some had entertained angels without knowing it. In other words, because these angels appeared with a body of bones and flesh, they were assumed to be men, not spirit beings. (Hebrews 13:2) Paul is referring to exactly what Abraham did when he entertained those angels without knowing they were angels. They appeared as men, and they were men to all intents and purposes until they had performed their work, and then they dematerialized the fleshly form of man and returned to the spirit realm. So just as the angels of Jehovah appeared to Abraham, ate with him, and talked with him, and had all the functions of men, just so with the angels prior to the flood. All the angels had this power, and not merely the good angels, for they were all originally good.

But some of God's angels disobeyed God, left their original estate as angels, and materialized in the form of men. They preferred not only to materialize in the human form to appear to man, but preferred to live as human beings. They left their habitation, the spirit realm, and lived as men in the world, and they had wives. They raised families.* Their children were spoken of as "men of renown." They were gigantic in size. God saw that the whole earth was being corrupted by the influence of these disobedient angels. The imagination of the human mind was evil, and only evil, and that continually. Therefore God said: "I will destroy man from the face of the earth." "The end of all flesh is come before me; for the earth is filled with violence through them; and behold, I will destroy them with the earth." (Genesis 6:7,13) So Jehovah destroyed those giants as well as all mankind, save Noah and his wife, his two sons and their wives.
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See the study, "Thousands of Demons Infest Earth's Atmosphere":
http://mostholyfaith.com/Beta/bible/Harvest_Gleanings_3/HG131.asp?xRef=HGL467:8

Peter and Jude tell us that those angels who sinned at that time were sentenced by God. (2 Peter 2:4; Jude 1:6) They were restrained in chains -- not literal chains, but chains of darkness, so that they could not materialize in the form of man, so that they could not come out, so to speak, during the day.
These demons, or disobedient angels, had been cast out by Jehovah from his realm of spiritual light into a realm of spiritual darkness. Today, as in the days of Jesus, these demons are still not permitted to materialize in the form of human flesh. But often they do something else: they take possession of human bodies. They get into a person's body in order to continue themselves in their desires to live as humans, and in so doing they continue themselves as servants of the original serpent, Satan the Devil. We read that on one such occasion, there was a legion of these demons in one man. They said: "My name is Legion, for we are many." God has given all of us a will whereby we may resist these intrusions. These demons are working more active today than ever before. They represent themselves as being "ghosts", "disembodied spirits", "aliens from other planets", and they even possess a person when he is a near-death condition, giving them "visions" of "heaven", "hell", "Paradise", "Jesus", "Mohammed", "Buddha", or whatever else a person might have a tendency to believe in. They know all about people who have died, so they can easily impersonate a dead person. Likewise, they can give persons all sorts of visions, or false "memories" about things that never really happened, or of another person's life hundreds or even thousands of years before you were born. All of this activity is happening in order to keep people from looking into the truth about the only way provided by Jehovah to come to him, that is, through his Son, Jesus, less any might come to a knowledge of the truth, and, especially to keep any from developing into receiving joint-heirship with Christ. If the thought that the number of 144,000 is to be taken literally, or that this number represents a limitation, regardless of how many, who are to become joint-heirs, then we can see why it would be of concern to the fallen angels to keep as many as possible under deception, for once the number is sealed, then the time for their abyssment and judgment will shortly follow.

With this background, we can understand that Jesus demonstrated that his appearance or manifestation (Strong's 5319 -- used in Mark 16:12,14; John 21:1,14) was not that of a demon, by producing his fleshly body and temporarily inhabiting the fleshly body he had died in (not his resurrection body, his heavenly, spiritual body.) The flesh he used for these appearances no longer had the life or soul in it, and thus Jesus does not refer to its blood (the life [nephesh, sentiency, soul] of the flesh in in the blood -- Leviticus 17:11), so instead of describing it as a body of flesh and blood, Jesus described it as a body of flesh and bones. (verse 39) This is appropriate because Jesus was now a spirit being, and did not take back his human soul (Hebrew, nephesh, Greek, psyche) which he had made an offering for humanity's sin. (Isaiah 53:10,12; Matthew 20:28; Mark 10:45; John 10:11,15,17; 13:37; 15:13 - The Greek word for soul, psuche, is often translated as "life") He only temporarily incarnated himself into his former human body for the purpose of demonstrating that it was actually him, and not some demon spirit impersonating him.

Thus we see that there is nothing in Jesus' appearance that would lead us to believe that Jesus, although now exalted above the angels, is yet encumbered with a human body of flesh lower than the angels. Paul, in speaking of resurrection bodies, and in answer to the question as to what kind of body one is raised with (1 Corinthians 15:35), after describing flesh bodies here on earth (1 Corinthians 15:39), makes a sharp distinction between heavenly bodies, and earthly bodies, using illustrations of the sun, moon and stars, to describe the glories of heavenly bodies. (1 Corinthians 15:40,41) Instead of saying, "Don't you know that you will receive back your present body, only glorified with a spiritual body, he speaks of a seed, as though developing into the body that will be, according to what was sown. Those who sow earthly fruitage only receive earthly bodies. Those who go beyond the earthly seed into the heavenly seed receive heavenly, spiritual bodies. Paul does not mix the two. Earthly bodies are earthly. Heavenly bodies are heavenly. The Christian, in whom the seed of righteousness is sown, receives either one or the other in the resurrection, according to the level of sowing.
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See: "The Manner of the Resurrection"

Therefore, when the disciples thought they had seen an apparition of a wicked spirit, Jesus did materialize his body of flesh in order to show them that he is not such a wicked spirit, for the demons are restrained from taking on the form of flesh.

The Empty Tomb

Some refer to the empty tomb of Jesus as proof that Jesus' body was raised from the dead. Actually, the fact that the tomb was empty does not prove anything concerning his body one way or the other. All it was designed to prove was that Jesus was raised from the dead.

The apostles at this time had not yet received any understanding of a resurrection of anything other than a physical body. The spirit of truth had not yet been given to them. (John 7:39; 16:31; Acts 1:6) Even after receiving the revealing through the holy spirit, while the truth was revealed especially to the apostles (John 16:4-13; Galatians 1:12; Ephesian 3: 5; 2 Timothy 2:2), many still had problems with understanding what kind of body one is raised with. -- 1 Corinthians 1:2; 3:1; Hebrews 5:12.

The disciples had seen Jesus raise various ones to life, and in each instance the body of the individual became alive again. Thus, the apostles during the period before the outpouring of the holy spirit, would have associated the resurrection with the body. Although the apostles apparently had begun to preach something concerning a spiritual body in the resurrection, this evidently was causing some confusion amongst believers, since the questions were raised: How are the dead raised?" and, "With what kind of body do they come?" (1 Corinthians 15:35) The apostle Paul showed that there are two basic kinds of bodies in the resurrection, that of a heavenly, spiritual body, and that of an earthly, physical body. He showed that Jesus now has a spiritual body, that he is now a "life-giving spirit". Thus it seems probable that it was some time after Jesus' ascension that it became clear that Jesus was raised, not in a physical, earthly body, but with a mighty spirit body.

Thus, when Jesus appeared to the disciples in the locked room, the disciples probably had no concept of anyone being raised with a spiritual body. The scriptural account shows that Thomas was not present when Jesus first appeared to the disciples. To convince them that he had indeed been raised, Jesus showed his apostles "his hands and his side." (John 20:20; Luke 24:39) This he did because they thought they were seeing a spirit -- a phantom, a demon who was impersonating Jesus. (Luke 24:38) Thomas, later hearing of this, said, "Unless I see in his hands the print of the nails, and put my hand into his side, I will not believe." -- John 20:25.

It has been suggested that perhaps Thomas felt hurt and left out at being the last to witness the resurrection; regardless, he was being a little stubborn concerning this whole matter. In effect, his demand insinuated that the others had not required enough proof, and they may have been deceived. This also fits the above argument concerning the apostles fear that they had seen a spirit -- a demon masquerading as Jesus -- instead of actually seeing Jesus. However, Thomas should have remembered Jesus' earlier testimony concerning himself, "they will kill him; and when he is killed, on the third day he will rise again." (Mark 9:31) Extreme though Thomas may have been, when Jesus presented himself in his body, and showed the marks Thomas requested, Thomas believed fully.

Thomas demonstrated a lack of faith by insisting upon being able to put his hand into the side of Jesus, but it does demonstrate how much thought was associated with the "body" regarding the resurrection, a thought that had to be later removed through the apostle Paul. How easily the church later was led astray in believing the resurrection of the body rather than the soul, which they had come to believe was immortal. That is one the great mistakes to take root in the church - The Apostle's Creed, while correct in every other matter, errs in this matter - stating "I believe in the resurrection of the body." After receiving the enlightenment of the holy spirit, Paul says, "You foolish one [one fooled] ... God gives it [the seed sown] a body [in the resurrection day] even as it pleased him, and to each seed a body of its own." -- 1 Corinthians 15:36,38.

After being raised from the dead, we fint that Jesus possibly did not always use the same form (morphe) when he made his appearances, manifestations. (phaneroo) After these things he was revealed (phaneroo) in another form (morphe - outward appearance) to two of them, as they walked, on their way into the country. -- Mark 16:12. (Some claim that this verse was not written by Mark. However, even if it was not written by him, whoever wrote it showed that he/she thought that Jesus appeared in different forms, and that such a thought existed at some time in the early church.) Afterward, he was revealed (phaneroo) to the eleven themselves as they sat at the table, and he rebuked them for their unbelief and hardness of heart, because they didn't believe those who had seen him after he had risen. (Mark 16:14) After these things, Jesus revealed (phaneroo) himself again to the disciples at the sea of Tiberias. He revealed (phaneroo) himself this way. (John 21:1) This was the third time that Jesus was revealed (phaneroo) to his disciples, after he had risen from the dead. -- John 21:14

But what about the witnesses of Jesus' resurrection? Did they not see Jesus' body being raised? Actually, there were no human witnesses of the actual moment of Jesus' resurrection. Read all the accounts given in the Bible, and you will not find one human witness of the actual event of his resurrection. All that any human witnessed was the empty tomb after the resurrection of Jesus. What we have recorded for us is recorded in Acts 2:31, that "neither was his soul left in Hades, nor did his flesh see decay." We also have recorded that there were women and then later Mary who were witnesses of the empty tomb. Later Peter and John also saw the empty tomb. There was also a soldier who confirmed that the tomb was empty. But none of these witnesses actually witnessed the resurrection of Jesus.

When Jesus was buried we read that his body was "bound ... in linen cloths with spices, as the custom of the Jews." (John 19:40) Had it been understood, they would have known that Jesus' body did not need any spices, for it was foretold that his body would not see corruption, decay. (Psalm 16:10) After the Sabbath, the two Marys, evidently with some others, brought more spices to anoint his body (Mark 16:1; Luke 24:1), an angel appeared and rolled away the stone from the door. (Matthew 28:2) Luke speaks of two angels who asked them: ""Why do you seek the living among the dead?" (Luke 24:5) One of the angels told them that Jesus had risen. -- Mark 16:5,6.

Later two of the disciples came to the tomb, and they saw the linen cloths in the tomb. (Luke 24:12; John 20:5,6) No mention is made of the spices.

After being raised from the dead, Jesus "appeared to over five hundred brothers at once." (1 Corinthians 15:6) Last of all he was seen of Paul as one born out of due season, shining above the sun at noonday. -- 1 Corinthians 15:6-8,

We need to note something very important regarding Jesus' appearances: all of these appearances were to those who accepted him as the Messiah sent by God; not once did he appear to non-believers. If Jesus had appeared to Annias, Caiaphas, the Sanhedrin, Pilate, Herod, Caesar, the Roman Senate, he certainly could have put the "fear of God into their hearts", as some say. Why didn't he appear to others? Because the truth is not for the non-believers, it is only for believers. Of the unbelieving religious leaders, Jesus said: "They are blind guides of the blind. If the blind guide the blind, both will fall into a pit." But to his disciples, he said: "To you it is given to know the mysteries of the Kingdom of Heaven, but it is not given to them." (Matthew 13:11) Additionally, if the enemies of Jesus had seen, then out of their evil hearts they could have borne evil testimony (Matthew 12:34; 15:19), or God's purposes could have been otherwise twarted. In due time, the world will understand, but for the present the world is kept in darkness.
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See our study:
Understanding Kingdom Mysteries


Had Jesus' body been left in the tomb, then Jesus' enemies could have displayed the body as proof that he had not been raised. The scriptures reveals that they posted guards to make sure that his body was not removed. is to prevent any of Jesus' enemies from showing proof that The empty tomb was bad news for Jesus' enemies. They had it guarded to prevent the body from being carried away. When the angel rolled away the entrance to Jesus' tomb, we read that that "the guards shook, and became like dead men." (Matthew 28:4) The body was gone. Some of the guards went into the city and told the chief priests what had happened. (Matthew 28:11) The evil heart of these priests can be seen in that they bribed these guards to spread the rumor that the "his disciples came by night, and stole him away while we slept." (How could they know what happened if they were sleeping? -- Matthew 28:12-14) But, had Jesus' body remained in tomb, they could have offered it as proof that Jesus had not been raised. Nevertheless, it is noted that they did not send out any kind of search party in an effort to try to find the body, which they surely would have done had they disbelieved the guard's report. There is nothing in the scriptures that indicates that they actually believed that Jesus' body was stolen. Thus the empty tomb did provide a problem for these enemies, who evidently did recognize the truth of implications, that Jesus had been raised from the dead, but sought to cover up that truth.

Nevertheless, it evidently was not Jesus' purpose to demonstrate at that time that he had been raised without his former body. His disciples, at that time, were not looking for a risen Jesus in a spiritual body (1 Peter 3:18; 1 Corinthians 15:45), but they were looking for a flesh and blood Jesus. Thus, the empty tomb provided evidence of the resurrection.

Ronald R. Day, Sr., Restoration Light (RlBible, ResLight) Bible Study Services. This study may be reproduced and distributed for non-profit purposes.

For links to some our studies related to Jesus' resurrection body:
https://ransomforall.blogspot.com/p/jesus-resurrection-body.html

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Colossians 1:16 -- Is Jesus Designated the Originator of Creation?

Colossians 1:16
hoti en autw ektisthee ta panta en tois
BECAUSE IN HIM IT WAS CREATED THE ALL (THINGS) IN THE
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ouranois kai epi tees gees ta horata kai
HEAVENS AND UPON THE EARTH, THE (THINGS) VISIBLE AND
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ta aorata eite thronoi eite kurioteetes eite
THE (THINGS) INVISIBLE, WHETHER THRONES OR LORDSHIPS OR
3588 0517 1535 2362 1535 2963 1535
archai eite exousiai ta panta di autou
GOVERNMENTS OR AUTHORITIES; THE ALL (THINGS) THROUGH HIM
0746 1535 1849 3588 3956 1223 0846_3
kai eis auton ektistai
AND INTO HIM IT HAS BEEN CREATED;
2532 1519 0846_7 2936
Westcott & Hort Interlinear

As obtained from The Bible Student's Library CD-ROM

Colossians 1:16 - For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: -- King James Version
Colossians 1:16 - For by Him all things were created, {both} in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities--all things have been created through Him and for Him. -- New American Standard
Colossians 1:16 - because in him were the all things created, those in the heavens, and those upon the earth, those visible, and those invisible, whether thrones, whether lordships, whether principalities, whether authorities; all things through him, and for him, have been created, -- Young's Literal Translation.
Many read into this verse several things that are not there. It is thought by many that this verse shows that Jesus is the originator or source of the creation, and thus that Jesus is God Almighty. On the surface, and with a preconceived philosophy in mind, it would appear to be so. Indeed, if were not for the added philosophy that is often read into and influences the translation of Colossians 1:16, the understanding of the verse could be easily understood, but it is made complicated because of what has been added to and read into the verse (as well as the context), so that one has to untwist the twists that have been laid upon the verse to see the simplicity that is there. (Indeed this is true of all the scriptures that have been twisted to teach the trinity and oneness doctrines.) So let us search deeper than that which is offered to us by human tradition.

If is often argued that the scripture directly attributes creation to Jesus, when it says: "For by him were all things created. On the surface, and with such a thought in mind, as well as how this appears in most translations, it does seem to say that Jesus is the Source of the Creation. However, the scripture does not directly attribute this creation to Jesus, but rather *through* or *in* him. Green's interlinear reads: "in [Greek *en*, Strong's #1722] him were all things created." The Greek word *en* does not always correspond with our English word "in". The Greek word *en* is an intermediary preposition showing location in relationship, and is used to denote many different kinds of locative relationships, thus it is often translated many different ways into English, depending on the translator's understanding of the relationship being spoken of. The King James Version translates the word *en* by about 40 different English words (often combined with another word), among which are: about, afterward, among, at, as, because of, by, for, in, into, on, through, throughout, to, toward, under, was, when, wherewith, with, within, while. The word, however, has the basic meaning of location and instrumentality. Thus we are given the definition "a primary preposition denoting (fixed) position (in place, time or state), and (by implication) instrumentality (medially or constructively), i.e. a relation of rest (intermediate between ([Strong's #]1519) and ([Strong's #]1537))."
https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/greek/1722.html.

Someone has objected that the word "en" (Strong's #1722) also means "with", and therefore the usage of this word only indicates that God the Father was with God the Son as equal partners in creation. Such a usage of the word "with" in English would be: I went with John to the store. We are not sure how such a thought is being fitted into EN as it is used in Colossians 1:15. Nevertheless, in English, the word "with" has quite a few variations of meaning, one of them being "a function word to indicate combination, accompaniment, presence, or addition b : inclusive of ."* But does the Hebrew word *en* (Strong's #1722) carry the meaning of accompaniment? We haven't seen any evidence that the Greek word *en* (Strong's #1722) is ever used to mean "alongside of" or "accompaniment". The Greek word "en" is always used in some sense of instrumentality, location in relationship. Colossians 1:15 is definitely not saying inside (location) Jesus all creation being spoken of was made. Thus, the correct meaning of "with" as a translation of the "en" in English would be: "a function word to indicate the means, cause, agent, or instrumentality."* Matthew 3:11; 5:13; 7:2,3; Mark 1:8; Luke 4:32,36 are few examples of this usage. English example: I wrote the report with my pen.
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*Definitions obtained from Meriam-Webster's Online Dictionary, definitions for "with":
http://www.m-w.com/home.htm


The Greek word "en", like the English word "in", often denotes location of an object, as "The book is in my bag," or a location in time, etc. However, the English word "in" can also carry other shades of meaning, one of which is "by means of" as in instrumentality. For instance, "That research paper was written in ink"; "You must put your words in writing", etc. Synomyns in this instance would be "with" or "by means of". Likewise the Greek word *en* can be used in the sense of "with" as meaning "by means of". (Matthew 3:11; 5:13; 7:2,3; Mark 1:8; Luke 4:32,36 are few examples*.)

The King James translators chose the word "by" in Colossians 2:16: "By him", possibly because of the usage of the word *di* later on in the verse. Again, the word "by" is often used to translate the word "en" in the sense of "by means of", or "by the manner of" (Matthew 22:20,21,22; Mark 4:2; 5:21; 8:3; 9:29; 11:28,29,33; 12:1,36; 14:1; Luke 1:77; 2:27; 4:1), but, as far as we have been able to determine, the word is not used in the sense of "alongside of", as in: "I was sitting *by* the tree." However, it is translated by the word "on" in the KJV: "a young man sitting on the right side." (Mark 16:5) Nevertheless, this simply denotes location, not that the word *en* itself means "alongside of". The word *en* is also translated "through" in Matthew 3:35.
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*The King James Version also translated the word *en* with the word *with* in the sense of possession, another usage of relationship: Matthew 1:18,23; Mark 9:1.

In harmony with 1 Corinthians 8:6 and many other scriptures, we believe the correct conclusin is that the apostle Paul is not saying that the things created were created in --located inside of, close to, or around -- Jesus, but rather that, the one spoken of earlier, "God, the Father of our Lord, Jesus Christ", created all these things by means [instrumentality] of Jesus
.
In Colossians 1:16, therefore, we believe the usage is similar to the expression "in you" in Romans 9:17: For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, "For this very purpose I raised you up, to demonstrate my power in you, and that my name might be proclaimed throughout the whole earth." -- NASV Green's Interlinear: "For this very thing I raised up you, so as I may show forth in you the power of me." Also in Galatians 3:8: The Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, "All nations will be blessed in you." Green's Interlinear: "that will be blessed in you all the nations."

Another example in the KJV is Luke 4:14: "And Jesus returned in [en] the power of the Spirit." Here the word in is used in the sense of "by means of". This can be seen by Luke 4:1, where the KJV renders *en* by the word "by": "And Jesus being full of the Holy Ghost returned from Jordan, and was led by [en] the Spirit into the wilderness."

Also in the KJV is Luke 8:10: "And he said, Unto you it is given to know the mysteries of the kingdom of God: but to others in [en] parables." Here *in* is used in the KVJ to denote "by means of". Let us compare this with Matthew 22:1; Mark 4:2; and Mark 12:1, where the KJV renders *en* as "by". "Jesus answered and spake unto them again by [en] parables." "He taught them many things by [en] parables." "He began to speak unto them by [en] parables."

See also the usage of this word in Mark 9:34; Luke 11:15,18; John 20:31; Acts 4:2; Romans 1:24; 6:11; 15:13,19; 2 Corinthians 11:3; Ephesians 2:7,22; Titus 1:3; 1 Peter 1:2,6; 2:20.
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/Greek /grk.cgi?number=1722

More instances could be cited, but this makes the point. And the point is that the Greek word is used in this way as meaning "by means of" or "through". If the creation is done "by means of" Jesus, who is the One who would be creating "by means" of him? The context indicates that it is God the Father of Jesus. -- Colossians 1:3,12,15.

Thus it was "God, who created all things through [Greek, dia] Jesus Christ." (Ephesians 3:9, World English Bible, as based on the Textus Receptus*) This God is the One introduced as "the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ" (Ephesians 1:3; See also 1 Corinthians 8:6, where we read that all things are of God, through Jesus.) It is this God who is the same "only true God" who sent Jesus. (John 17:1,3) This is the same God of which Moses said: "Jehovah your God will raise up to you a prophet from the midst of you, of your brothers, like me; to him you shall listen." (Deuteronomy 18:15) Then Moses states: "Jehovah said to me, They have well said that which they have spoken. I will raise them up a prophet from among their brothers, like you; and I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I shall command him. It shall happen, that whoever will not listen to my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him. Thus God creates these things by means of his firstborn Son, Jesus." (Deuteronomy 18:17-19) Thus the One whom Jesus calls his God and Father, and the one whom Paul refers to as the God and Father of Jesus, is none other than the God of Moses, of Abraham, of Isaac, that is, Jehovah, the one in whose name Jesus came and for whom he spoke. -- Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Acts 3:22,26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.
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*Earlier manuscripts do not mention Jesus at all here. Thus the NAS reads: "and to bring to light what is the administration of the mystery which for ages has been hidden in God who created all things."

In the latter part of the verse (Colossians 1:16) Paul tells that all these things have been created through [Greek, di, Strong's Greek #1223*, basically means "through"] Jesus and for [Greek, *eis*, Strong's #1519] him. The usage of the Greek word *di* here further confirms that the word *en* is being used as a synonym for *di*. It is Jehovah who is the Creator and it is Jesus who is used by Jehovah as the executor of the commands of Jehovah in creation. Jesus acknowledges his God as the Creator in Mark 13:19.
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*https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/greek/1223.html

Some have noted that one of the meanings of the Greek word di is "on account of", thus they render the latter part of the verse as "all things were created on account of him, and for him."

Actually, in view of the context and many other scriptures, we do not believe Paul had any thought that the creation being spoken of "on account of" Jesus. We find it difficult to fit such a meaning into the usage in John 1:3,10. Regardless, Jehovah -- "the one God of whom are all" (1 Corinthians 8:6) -- alone is the Originator of Creation -- since he is the One who is the designer; yet as the Most High he creates all these things through (or on account of) Jesus and for Jesus. -- Genesis 1:1; 2:4; John 1:3,10.

Now let us discuss what exactly Paul said was created by means of Jesus: "For by him were all things [Greek, panta] created, in the heavens and on the earth, things visible and things invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers."

The phrase "all things" is translated from Greek "ta panta", literally meaning "the all". As we have discussed before, all inflections of pas (Strong's #3956) look to the context as well as common understanding for evident inclusion or exclusion. It rarely, if ever, actually means absolutely and totally everything in the universe, and often qualifiers should be added in English so that this can be seen. Let us look at a few scriptures to demonstrate what this principle of evident inclusion and exclusion.

"There went out to him all the country of Judea, and all those [Strong's 3956] of Jerusalem. They were baptized by him in the Jordan river, confessing their sins." (Mark 1:5) Does this mean that absolutely every person who lived in the country of Judea and in Jerusalem came to John and was baptized by him? Absolutely not.

Mark 1:5

kai exeporeueto pros auton pasa hee ioudaia
AND WAS GOING THE WAY OUT TOWARD HIM ALL THE JUDEAN
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chwra kai hoi ierosolumeitai pantes kai
COUNTRY AND THE JERUSALEMITES ALL, AND
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ebaptizonto hup autou en tw iordanee potamw
WERE BEING BAPTIZED BY HIM IN THE JORDAN RIVER
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exomologoumenoi tas hamartias autwn
OPENLY CONFESSING THE SINS OF THEM.
1843 3588 0266 0846_92
Westcott & Hort Interlinear, as obtained from the Bible Students Library DVD.
To make greater sense in English, this would be better rendered: "And there went to him those of all the land of Judea, and Jerusalemites. All these were baptized by him in the Jordan River, openly confessing their sins." In this the Good News Translation, although it is paraphrased, captures the sense by expressing it: "Many people from the province of Judea and the city of Jerusalem went out to hear John. They confessed their sins, and he baptized them in the Jordan River."

"And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables." Here in the KJV, the phrase "ta panta" is shown as "all these things". (Mark 4:11) This is a good example of how qualifiers will help the reader understand the usage of the word "all". Not only did the KJV translators add the word "things", but they also added the word "these".

"With Onesimus, a faithful and beloved brother, who is one of you. They shall make known unto you all [Strong's 3956] things which are done here." (Colossians 4:9) Here it is evident from the context that "all" is limited the things "which are done here." The word "things" in English is added by the KJV translators.

And then we have the example of the usuage of ta panta in Hebrews 2:8, where Paul quotes Psalm 8 regarding mankind: "'You have put all things in subjection under his feet.' For in that he subjected all things to him [man], he left nothing that is not subject to him [man]. But now we don't see all things subjected to him, yet." What are the "all things" -- ta panta: the all -- that was subjected to mankind? Psalm 8:7 answers: "All sheep and oxen, Yes, and the animals of the field, The birds of the sky, the fish of the sea, And whatever passes through the paths of the seas." (See Genesis 1:26,28) It is evident that pas is subject to inclusion or exclusion according the context.

Even in Colossians 1:20 we read that through Jesus, God is reconciling "all things" [ta panta] to himself, "whether things on earth or things in heaven." Does this mean that absolutely everything in the universe is out of harmony with God, and thus through Jesus absolutely everything in the universe needs to be reconciled to God? Does this mean that the obedient angels need to be reconciled with God? Does this mean that Satan himself will be reconciled with God? The things that come to peace with God directly through the blood of Jesus is man, first of all the seed of Abraham, and then those take of the waters of life in the millennium. (Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22) However, Jesus and his joint-heirs especially, will not only rule over mankind, but also over the angels -- over all dominions, so that eventually all who are out of harmony with God must either repent and come into harmony with God, or else be eternally destroyed. The end result is that all creation then remaining both in heaven and earth that had been out of harmony with God will be reconciled to God, but the point is that the term "all things" does not totally refer to absolutely everything in the universe, since not all things in the universe are out of harmony with God so that they would need to be reconciled.

See also:
http://www.heraldmag.org/archives/1941_11.htm#_Toc31126780


Therefore, The word *panta* (as well as all the variations of the Greek *pas* -- Strong's Greek #3956) is used in connection with what is spoken of, thus all the things of which we are speaking. It does not necessarily mean absolutely everything that exists, else God himself would have to be included.

In Colossians 1:15 it is plainly written that Jesus is the first to receive life from Jehovah, thus his life -- his being -- was created before the "all" that is being referred to here, and thus would not be included in "all" of verse 16. An example of such an exception is given in 1 Corinthians 15:27.
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See:

Did Jesus Have a Beginning?
http://godandson.reslight.net/jesus-beginning.html
Jehovah *through* Jesus created all things (spoken of in context); thus it is said that in him all [the] things were created -- the things being spoken of, which of, course, would not include Jesus himself as he was given life as the firstborn earlier than "the all created" being spoken of. Thus it would be understood that the reference is speaking of all the other things being spoken of. As noted before, in many places qualifiers are added by translators which endeavor to identify what the Greek word Pas is referring to. (See the KJV in Matthew 1:10; 12:31; 26:31,70; Mark 1:37; 7:14; 13:13; Luke 11:43; John 1:7; 2:24; 3:26; 5:23; 11:48; 12:32; 13:35; 15:2; Acts 1:24; 4:21; 21:28; many more could be cited)
In Matthew 13:32, we read frm the New American Standard Version: "this is smaller than all other seeds, but when it is full grown, it is larger than the garden plants and becomes a tree, so that THE BIRDS OF THE AIR come and NEST IN ITS BRANCHES." Here the word *pantwn*, an inflection of pas, has the word "other" added as a qualifier.
Likewise in Luke 13:2:
And Jesus said to them, "Do you suppose that these Galileans were greater sinners than all other [pantas, another inflection of "pas"] Galileans because they suffered this fate?"
The New King James does similarly in Luke 13:2,4. See also Luke 13:2 in the New Revised Standard, Good News and Luke 13:4 in the The Third Millennium Bible translation.
The Good News translation adds the word "other" also in Revelation 6:15.
Other translations also at times add the word "other" in translating various forms of the word *pas* at various places in order to qualify what is being said. Thus some have suggested putting the word "other" as a qualifier of the Greek word panta so that is would read "by means of him all other things were created." Although many have sought to contest this use of a qualifier here, in view of the context, such a qualifier would indeed be appropriate, since it is obvious from the context that the firstborn creature was created before the "all" being spoken of.
We received one objection that if God created everything through Jesus, then this proves that Jesus is Jehovah. As yet we have not seen an explanation as to how this is supposed to prove that Jesus is Jehovah. Nevertheless, Jehovah did many things "through" various ones:

  • Jehovah had spoken through Moses. -- Exodus 9:35
  • Jehovah commanded by Moses. -- Leviticus 8:36;
  • You are to teach the children of Israel all the statutes which Jehovah has spoken to them by Moses. -- Leviticus 10:11;
  • according to the commandment of Jehovah by Moses. -- Numbers 4:37,45;
  • the commandment of Jehovah by Moses. -- Numbers 9:23; Joshua 22:9;
  • Jehovah has commanded you by Moses. -- Numbers 15:23;
  • Jehovah spoke to him by Moses. -- Numbers 16:40;
  • Jehovah spoke by Moses. -- Numbers 27:23;
  • Jehovah commanded by Moses to the children of Israel. -- Numbers 36:13;
  • Jehovah commanded by Moses. -- Joshua 14:2; 21:8;
  • the commandments of Jehovah, which he commanded their fathers by Moses. -- Judges 3:4.
According to the reasoning that if Jehovah does something through another, that this means that the second person must be Jehovah, then Moses must be Jehovah, since Jehovah spoke through Moses.
Someone objects that the above presents a totally different situation, that the creating through Jesus and putting words in Moses' head to speak are not the same thing. It is further claimed that Moses did not say anything for himself, leaving the insinuation that Jesus did. They are different situations, that is true, but an analogy is the likening of different situations. If by God's speaking concerning the creation (Genesis 1:6,9,11,14,20,24) means that God spoke through the Logos in creation as shown in other scriptures (John 1:1,3;  Colossians 1:15), then the analogy does hold.
However, we have both Jehovah's and Jesus' words as well as those of Paul that Jehovah spoke through Jesus, in words similar to those that are written concerning Jehovah's speaking through Moses. (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; John 5:30; 12:49,50; 14:20; Hebrews 1:2; Revelation 1:1) Thus if by Jehovah's speaking through Jesus is meant that Jesus is Jehovah, the only logical conclusion would be to conclude that Moses is also Jehovah, since Moses spoke through him, even calling him Elohim. (Exodus 7:1) Additionally, we note that Jesus himself said: "I do nothing of myself, but as my Father taught me, I say these things. ." (John 8:28) Thus, if Moses did not say anything for himself, it also true of Jesus. Regardless, there is nothing in the thought that since Jehovah created through, or by means of, his Son, Jesus, that this means the Jesus is his God Jehovah.
Some have objected that Revelation 4:11 states that all things were created for God's pleasure, and thus by combining this with what Paul said, that all things were created through Jesus and for him, they claim that this proves that Jesus is Jehovah. Actually in creating all these things through and for Jesus, it is still also for God's pleasure that he does so. There is no reason to assume that this would make Jesus the same being as Jehovah except to satisfy the extra-Biblical added philosophy of the trinity or some other doctrine that teaches that Jesus is Jehovah. Some have gone so far as to say that it is Jesus who is being spoken of in Revelation 4:11, but we note that the One seated on the throne, Jehovah, is not Jesus, for Jesus is spoken of separately in Revelation 5:6-8 as the Lamb who had been slaughtered and who took the scroll from the One seated on the throne. This is in harmony with Revelation 1:1, which shows that Jesus receives the revelation from his God and transmits it to John by means of the angel.
Thus there is nothing in Colossians 1:16 that proves that Jesus is Jehovah, as many assume. As far as the trinity is concerned, one has to add its philosophy and then view the scripture through its philosophy in order to "see" three persons in one God anywhere in Colossians 1, for such a thought is no where given there, or anywhere else in the Bible.
See also our study on: Beginnings
Can Creation Be Through God?
One could say that creation is “through” God, but not as a agent of another person, since He is the Creator. Regarding Jesus, however, it is used in the sense of an agent.
The Greek word rendered “through” or “by” in Colossians 1:16 is usually transliterated as “di”, a form of “dia”. In Colossians 1:16 it is used in the sense of agent, with the unipersonal God of Colossians 1:15 as the One who did the creating through the agent, the one designated as the possessing “image of God”. The word “God” in that phrase speaks of only one person, that is, the God and Father of Jesus.
Most trinitarian scholars recognize this usage of “dia” in Colossians 1:16, even though they still considered the agent of God to be a person of God. Robertson, for instance states concernning the usage “di’ in Colossians 1:16:

Through him (di autou). As the intermediate and sustaining agent. He had already used en autwi (in him) as the sphere of activity. And unto him (kai ei auton). This is the only remaining step to take and Paul takes it ( 1 Corinthians 15:28 ) See Ephesians 1:10 for similar use of en autwi of Christ and in Colossians 1:19 ; Colossians 20 again we have en autwi, di autou, ei auton used of Christ. See Hebrews 2:10 for di on (because of whom) and di ou (by means of whom) applied to God concerning the universe (ta panta). In Romans 11:35 we find ex autou kai di autou kai ei auton ta panta referring to God. But Paul does not use ex in this connection of Christ, but only en, dia, and ei. See the same distinction preserved in 1 Corinthians 8:6 (ex of God, dia, of Christ).
http://www.biblestudytools.com/commentaries/robertsons-word-pictures/colossians/colossians-1-16.html

Thus, if a genitive form of dia should be used of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, as related to creation, it would be in the sense of the originator through whom creation came into being, not the agent of another in creation. In Romans 11:35, the all being referred to, however, appears to “the all” spoken of in context, not necessarily of original creation. In Hebrews 2:10, forms of dia are used twice, both times of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, who, in this age, has spoken to us through [DIA] his Son, Jesus. (Hebrews 1:1,2) The second form is genitive, designating the God of Jesus as the means by which ta panta exists.