Jesus and His God

In this presentation, unless otherwise noted, the  World English Bible  World English Bible version will be quoted. In Exodus 3:13-15, we first read a question that Moses presented to the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Exodus 3:6), and then the response to that question: Exodus 3:13 When I come to the children of Israel, and tell them, “The God of your fathers [ Exodus 3:6 ] has sent me to you;” and they ask me, “What is his name?” What should I tell them? Let us now read Jehovah’s response to that question: Exodus 3:14 God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM [EHJEH ASHER EHJEH],” and he said, “You shall tell the children of Israel this: ‘I AM [EHJEH] has sent me to you.'” Then Ehyeh identifies Himself as the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob: Exodus 3:15 God said moreover to Moses, “You shall tell the children of Israel this, ‘Yahweh [Jehovah], the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is...

Many often point to  John 1:1 , 14  and claim that God (the Supreme Being) was made flesh. This is usually tied with John 1:1 in translations that make it appear that the Greek word THEOS as applied to the Word is the Supreme Being. Then according the reasoning, God who is the Word in John 1:1 was made, or became, flesh. Many often say that God became flesh without realizing their own self-contradiction. If God Almighty made God Almighty flesh and took the name Jesus, then Jesus would not have been a man, but his flesh would be God Almighty. The scripture has to be changed to suit the hypostatic union or dual natures of Jesus dogma, since these would have it that Jesus' flesh is not God, but that his flesh is the human being Jesus, nor their alleged Supreme Being Jesus. To satisfy the dogma that Jesus exists on two levels of being at once, the claim is made that the Supreme Being Jesus "took" the flesh so as become the human being Jesus while at the same time remaining ...

We are presenting here some of the translations that put “ego eimi” of John 8:58 in some kind of past tense form; please note that our quotes from the translations does not mean that we are representing the translators as agreeing that Jesus is not Jehovah. Although the translations presented do recognize that Jesus was using the Greek present tense to represent a past tense situation, we understand that most of these translators probably assume from this that Jesus was still claiming to have been uncreated, although, such a thought is not actually inherent in the words that Jesus used. A Bible, A New Translation – James Moffatt – “Truly, truly I tell you,” said Jesus, “I have existed before Abraham was born.” https://studybible.info/Moffatt/John%208 Moffatt was a trinitarian, but he showed the past tense understanding of this verse. Twentieth Century – “In truth I tell you,” replied Jesus, “before Abraham existed I was.” http://www.archive.org/details/twent...

You call me, 'Teacher' and 'Lord.' You say so correctly, for so I am. -- John 13:13, World English. This scripture is often presented as proof that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. (Exodus 3:14,15) Obviously, since there is nothing in Jesus' words that would mean that he was claiming to the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, what many trinitarians do is imagine beyond what is written so as "see" such an idea in what Jesus stated. Actually, all that Jesus was claiming is that he is indeed Teacher and Lord. Jesus came to teach us the things which he had heard from his God and Father (John 8:28), whom he declared to be "the only true God." (John 17:1,3) This was part of his commission as the foretold prophet like Moses, of whom Jehovah stated: "I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I shall command him." (Deuteronomy 18:15-19) Thus, what Jesus taught was the words of Jehovah, the God of Abraham...

"For there are three that bear record [in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth,] the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one." One scripture that is often presented to support the trinity is 1 John 5:7,8. We believe the evidence is overwhelming that the part in brackets above were never written by John, but are an interpolation. We have no doubt that John did not write the words as they appear in the King James Version and some other translations in 1 John 5:7, but these words, even as they appear in the KJV, do not say anything at all about three persons in one God, nor three aspects of God, nor three modes of God, etc. One has to add the trinitarian (or modalist) doctrine to the words and then read the doctrine into the words, even as they appear in the KJV. Thus, there is nothing at all in 1 John 5:7,8, even in the KJV, that offers any proof of the ...

"For there are three that bear record [in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth,] the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one." -- 1 John 5:7 (Greek words are given with English transliterations throughout) This is the only passage in the whole Bible that gives any color to the trinity or "oneness" doctrines. However, the bracketed portion (see above) of this passage is almost universally recognized as an interpolation. It appears to have been first put into the Greek text in the tenth century. It is true that some late Latin, Vulgate MSS., copies a few centuries before, do contain it. This interpolation was first inserted into some Vulgate manuscript and was later translated into the first Greek text having it. Had this text been in the Bible when the trinitarian controversies were going on in the fourth to the eighth centuries, certainly the trinit...