Isaiah 6:8 - And I heard the voice of the Lord, saying: "Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?" Then I said: "Here am I; send me."
A trinitarian argues from the above the scripture that Isaiah heard the voice of Yahweh [in eternity past], and is referring to himself as more than one person.
Obviously, there is nothing here about these words being said in "eternity past". Such an idea has to be added to and read into what Isaiah said. If one would be consistent in following such reasoning, one would conclude that Isaiah himself had been hearing these words in "eternity past", and thus that Isaiah himself had existed in "eternity past" so as to be hearing these words in "eternity past".
We believe that Isaiah himself is playing a part in the prophetic role, depicting the church of Jesus who was yet to be. Each believer is depicted as hearing the voice of the Lord, asking, "Whom shall I send", and thus is depicted as responding: "Here am I."
The Masoretic text has "Adonai" (transliterated) where "the Lord" appears in most translations. The claim is made by some that this is one of the places copyists replaced Jehovah (Yahweh) with Adonai, and thus some translations have the Holy Name in the scripture. Nevertheless, the Great Isaiah Scroll does not have the holy name in Isaiah 6:8, but rather the Hebrew characters representing Adoni [transliterated, meaning "my Lord"] or Adonai [Literally, my Lords, used singularly, however, it means superlative or superior "Lord"].
At any rate, it is probable that Isaiah originally meant this to be "my Lord" [adoni], referring to the coming Lord of Isaiah [representing the believer]. From the New Testament, the coming "lord" is shown to be Jesus, the promised Messiah. In such a case, the words in question, who will go for us, appears to be those of Jesus directed toward his God, Jehovah. If so, the "us" refers to both Yahweh and Jesus. The one to "go" for them would be Isaiah (picturing the church individually). The fulfillment of the prophecy supports that ADNY (transliterated) in Isaiah 6:8 is not Jehovah, but Jesus.
This is in harmony with what Jesus said, for he recognized that no one could come to him except that his God and Father should draw such an one to Jesus.
John 6:44 - No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him.
John 6:45 - Everyone who hears from the Father, and has learned, comes to me.
John 6:65 - No one can come to me, unless it is given to him by my Father.
The "us" would be both Jehovah and Jesus. The one to "go" for them would be represented by Isaiah, individually those who learn of Jehovah and come to Jesus.
However, the Great Isaiah Scroll does have the Hebrew word of God's name in Isaiah 6:11 -- not Adoni or Adonai. Thus it is possible that "the Lord" in Isaiah 6:8 is referring to Jehovah. Assuming that "the Lord" here is Jehovah, then this would only mean that Jehovah is simply speaking to Jesus, saying who will go for us?
Regardless, "us" would still be Yahweh and Jesus, and in no wise would mean that Jesus is Yahweh. If Tom says to his son, "Who will represent us in court?", is Tom saying he and his son are one sentient being?
See also:
Isaiah Saw His Glory
Showing posts with label Let Us. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Let Us. Show all posts
Wednesday, May 17, 2017
Genesis 1:26 - Let Us and Elohim
By Ronald R. Day
Genesis 1:26 - God [ELOHIM] said [singular verb], "Let us make [plural] man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the birds of the sky, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth."
Obviously, God here is speaking to someone. Normally, if a person says to his friend, "Let us do this or that according to our plans," we do not think that the person who is speaking is speaking to another person of himself. Likewise, in those instances where God says "let us", "we", etc., God is not speaking to another person of Himself, but he is speaking to someone else who is not Himself. Indeed, the default reasoning should be that Jehovah is speaking to someone else who is not Himself.
The truth is that the idea that God is here speaking to Himself (allegedly as two different persons of Himself) has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into what the scripture actually says, and such has to be assumed only to conform to preconceived doctrine, which also has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into, each and every scripture that is used to allegedly support the extra-Biblical doctrine.
The plurality of ELOHIM means "gods", not "persons" or "attributes"; thus, to apply this word to the Creator in plural terms would mean that Jehovah is gods [plural], not persons in one God. Nevertheless, the word in its meaning contains the attribute of mightiness, but this is one attribute, not attributes (plural).
Nevertheless, the scriptures do not apply ELOHIM to Jehovah with plurality, anymore than Jehovah Himself applies ELOHIM to Moses with plurality. (Exodus 7:1) Indeed, if ELOHIM used of Jehovah means that Jehovah is more than one person, then to be consistent, the one making such a claim should also claim that God made Moses more than one person to Pharaoh. When Jesus quoted Exodus 6:3, as recorded in Matthew 22:32, Jesus did not use a plural form of the word THEOS; he uses the singular form.
In reality, like several other Hebrew words, the plural forms of EL can be used in singular contexts to denote what we in English might call the superior or superlative degree. Regarding this usage in Biblical Hebrew (as well as some other ancient languages), scholars often call this the "plural intensive" usage, where a plural form of a word is used in a singular context and thus the plural form is viewed as singular, but is intensified in meaning (similar to the English superior or superlative degree). In other words, the plural form of a word is treated as though it were singular, but only intensified in meaning. In English we do this by adding "er" or "est" to many words, such as high, higher, highest, or we might add "more" or "most" before words. (However, in English, especially in its archaic forms, the plural is often employed as a plural intensive when addressing majesty, a judge, etc., as in "your Majesty", and "your Honour", instead of "thy Majesty" or "thy honour.") Therefore, in Exodus 7:1, Jehovah stated that He was making Moses, not persons, to Pharaoh, but rather one person of superior might (ELOHIM) to Pharaoh.
The point, however, is that ELOHIM is used of the one Jehovah, the "one God" who is the Creator of His people. Jehovah is not more than one Jehovah, nor more than one god, nor is he more than one person, or individual, nor does a Supreme Being consisting of Father, Son and Holy Spirit. "Hear, Israel: Jehovah is our God; Jehovah is one." "Hasn't one God created us?" -- Deuteronomy 6:4; Malachi 2:10.
So who was Jehovah speaking to as recorded in Genesis 1:26? Although there are some hints in the Old Testament, we have to look to the New Testament for the answer to this. John 1:1,2 tells us that the one who became flesh was with God in the beginning that is spoken of there. That "beginning" is not the beginning of the entire universe, as many have assumed, but it is the "beginning" of the "world" (Greek, Kosmos) that God created through the one called "the Word." (John 1:10) All in this world was made through the one called "the Word". Not one thing (pertaining to the world that was made through the Word) was made without the Word. (John 1:3) This one titled "the Word" became flesh, and came into the world that was made through him, and that world did not recognize him. (John 1:1,2,10) Jesus identified himself as that one who was with the "only true God" before the world of mankind was made. (John 17:1,3,5) "God", whom the Word was with, refers to the One whom Jesus addressed as "the only true God", that is, his God and Father. Jesus was with the only true God, and thus John 1:3,10 is really speaking of Jesus as the one through whom "God" made the world of mankind. Therefore, by comparing spiritual revealing with spiritual revealing (1 Corinthians 2:10-12), we can see that the one whom "the only true God" was addressing in Genesis 1:27 is Jesus.
However, someone may object, doesn’t John 1:1 tell us that, not only was the Word with [or toward, in service of] God, but also that the Word was "God"? Doesn’t this prove the trinitarian idea that God is more than one person? No, it doesn't! It should be obvious, by comparing John 1:1,2 and John 17:1-5, that Jesus was with, or in service of, the only true God. Would John then say that Jesus "was" the only true God whom he was with? John twice states that the Word was with God, thus giving emphasis to this thought. The thought of two persons as the only true God is not inherent in the words of John 1:1,2, but the idea has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into what John wrote. One has to imagine and assume that John, in referring to "God" whom the Word was with, does not mean the alleged triune "God", but that it means the first person of the alleged trinity as the Father. We know it is true that "God" whom the Word was with, toward or in service of, is the God and Father of Jesus, because of Jesus’ words as recorded in John 17:1,3,5. However, the part about the Father being a person of a trinity has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into, what John wrote in John 1:1,2, and Jesus’ reference to the Father as the "only true God" in John 17:3 has to either be ignored, or in some manner be interpreted (again this is often done by imaginative assumptions being added to and read into what Jesus stated) in order make Jesus’ words still mean that Jesus is a person of the only true God. Likewise, the trinitarian has to imagine, assume, add to, and read into what John said that the Word is the alleged second person of the trinity.
So why would John say that the Word was "God", if we are not to imagine and assume he is a person of the only true God? Is there not only one God? Can Jesus be "God" who is not the only true God? And wouldn’t this mean that there is more than one true God? The answer again lies in comparing spiritual revealing with spiritual revealing (1 Corinthians 2:10-12), not by imagining, adding, and reading into the scripture a lot of assumptions that would make Jesus a person of his God. What is the true scriptural answer to why John would refer to Jesus as God?
It is obvious that John is not referring to Jesus as "God" in the same manner in which he speaks of "God" whom Jesus was with. In other words, it should be obvious that Jesus is not "God" whom he was with, and as mentioned before, John emphasized this by repeating it again in John 1:2. If Jesus is "God" who he was with, or in service of, then Jesus is the Father, since Jesus says that he with his Father, but trinitarians deny that Jesus is the Father.
The Greek word for God is usually transliterated as THEOS, and forms of this word are used twice in John 1:1. Forms of THEOS, in the New Testament, are used to translate forms of the Hebrew word that is often transliterated as EL; it should be apparent that the Hebrew writers of the New Testament were using THEOS in the same manner, and with same meaning, as the Hebrew writers of the Old Testament. In the words recorded at John 10:34,35, was Jesus saying that all the sons of the Most High are persons of the Most High, that they are all the only true God?
What many do not realize is that there is a scriptural Hebraic tradition that allows the usage of the words for "God" in a more general sense of might, power, authority, etc. Most translations of the Bible into English as well as other languages recognize this usage. We can use the most popular English translation — the King James Version — to illustrate such usage. This can be demonstrated in such verses where the KJV renders the word for "God" (forms of EL and ELOHIM in the Hebrew) so as to denote strength, power, might, rulership, etc., such as in the following verses: Genesis 23:6 (mighty); Genesis 30:8 (great); Genesis 31:29 (power); Deuteronomy 28:32 (might); 1 Samuel 14:15 (great); Nehemiah 5:5 (power); Psalm 8:5 (angels); Psalm 36:6 (great); Psalm 82:1 (mighty); Proverbs 3:27 (power); Psalm 29:1 (mighty); Ezekiel 32:21 (strong); Jonah 3:3 (exceeding). If one were to substitute "false god" in many of these verses, we would have some absurd statements. This proves that these words are used in a sense other than the only true God, or as "false god."
If such Hebraic usage is applied to Jesus (who was with the only true God -- John 17:1,3) in John 1:1, we would have "the Word was mighty," and all makes perfect sense without adding all of the imaginations and assumptions that would have to accompany viewing the scripture through the tint of the trinity doctrine, or the oneness doctrine. Jesus was indeed a mighty one with the only true MIGHT before the world of mankind was made. Thus, the scriptural conclusion is that it was this "mighty" one that the only true God addressed in Genesis 1:26, using the term "let us."
Related:
Written by Others
We do not necessarily agree with all given by the authors whose writings are linked to below.
We do not necessarily agree with all given by the authors whose writings are linked to below.
Early Church's Understanding of Genesis 1:26 - This is evidently written by a trinitarian.
Originally published April 12, 2009; Updated and Republished November 25, 2014; Republished May 17, 2017; November 14, 2016.
Genesis 1:26,27 - Who Is God Speaking To?
Many have claimed that the above scripture is one person of God (Jehovah, Yahweh) speaking to another person of Jehovah. Actually, there is certainly nothing here to give us any reason to think that one person of Jehovah was here speaking to another person of Jehovah. Jehovah was indeed speaking to someone, and other scriptures indicate that this was the pre-human LOGOS, Jesus, who was with the only true God before the world of mankind was made (John 1:1,2; 17:5), and who acted as God's agent in the creation of the world of mankind. (John 1:3,9; Ephesians 3:9) Additionally, there is nothing in Genesis 1:26 about three persons in one God, only an indication that Jehovah was speaking to someone who was already in his image and likeness. -- 2 Corinthians 4:4; Colossians 1:15; Hebrews 1:3.
Often many will point to Isaiah 44:24, which speaks of Jehovah's creating the material universe, and claim that this scripture shows that Jehovah was also alone when he created the world of mankind, as recorded in Genesis 1,2. Evidently, Jehovah was alone when he first produced the material universe, but, after that, he most certainly was not alone in the creation of the world of mankind, the heavens and the earth being spoken of in Genesis 1,2.
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See our studies related to God's Creation through Jesus.
Others have suggested that God was speaking to the angels here. The angels were certainly present at the creation of man, for they were the sons of God who rejoiced at earth's creation. (Job 38:4-7) God certainly could have been speaking to the angels here, although the Bible does not directly state that the angels participated in the creation.
We certainly find nothing here to indicate that one person of Jehovah is speaking to another person of Jehovah, or that there is more than one person in Jehovah.
Some of our trinitarian neighbors often make the claim that the plural/singular usage of language in Genesis 1:26,27 gives proof of their trinity doctrine. It has been claimed that when God spoke of "us" in creation, that this indicates that Jehovah is Jesus. Trinitarians claim that this means that there are more than one person in the Creator/God. The usage of the Hebrew word elohim, translated as "God" in this verse, is also offered as proof of the trinity, since elohim is plural, not singular. It is also claimed that man -- made in God's image -- is also a trinity, with reference to 1 Thessalonians 5:23. Please see our study on 1 Thessalonians 5:23.
The Word ELOHIM
While Jehovah did create by means of his Son, there is nothing in the word elohim as used in Genesis 1:26 that means a plurality of individuals, any more than its use of Moses in Exodus 7:1, where Jehovah states to Moses: "See, I have made thee a god [ELOHIM] to Pharaoh." (Webster translation) Moses is certainly not a plurality of individuals. Thus there is definitely nothing in that word that identifies a plurality of individuals. If used to denote plurality, it means gods, nor a multiple of persons in one god.
The Hebrew Scriptures do often use the plural word Elohim in singular settings, usually with the singular article or singular verbs, etc. This has been called the "plural intensive" -- where the plural is used in a singular context. It has nothing to do with the trinity doctrine.
As pointed out, Moses is also called elohim -- plural. (Exodus 7:1) The scriptures concerning Moses indicate that elohim, although plural, is applied to the singular person, Moses (who is a type of Jesus -- Deuteronomy 18:18,19; Acts 3:19-23). Moses is not more than one person, so why the plural usage here? It is plural used in a singular setting to denote supremacy (plural intensive), that is, to denote the supremacy of the power given to Moses by Jehovah over the power of Pharaoh and the gods of Pharaoh.
We should also note that elohim -- when used with a plural application -- means "gods" -- not persons. Thus the argument that its plural usage means a trinity would tend to mean that there are three gods, not three persons in one God, as is claimed for the trinity doctrine. ELOHIM in Genesis 1:26 is used as the plural intensive, or superlative, of the singular, and refers to one person speaking to another person, saying "Let us..." If ELOHIM is used as a plural in Genesis 1:26, then we would have several Gods saying to another or others: "Let us..." But in reality, ELOHIM refers to one: Jehovah, and then that one is speaking to another or to others.
For more on the usage of the world *elohim*, see our studies related to ELOHIM AND PLURALITY:
Image and Likeness
Someone has argued: "As in "Let US make MAN in our IMAGE and LIKENESS. Now, do tell us how God made man in 'his image and likeness' if God is a spirit? Does a spirit have an image? A likeness?"
This argument would appear to be making God Almighty to be a flesh being like man, who is flesh, earthly. God is spirit in substance, heavenly, not earthly, fleshly. (Psalm 8:5; 1 Corinthians 15:39-41; Hebrews 2:7) To be in God's image and likeness does not mean that if Jehovah is an invisible spirit being that we also must also be invisible spirit beings. Having been created in the image of God certainly does not mean that the first human pair were invisible, which is an attribute of God Almighty. (Colossians 1:15) Likewise, since Jesus' exaltation, we read that he dwells in unapproachable light; whom no human has seen, nor can see. -- 1 Timothy 6:16.
The word "image" is used in different ways in the Bible; Adam was created in God's image; (Genesis 1:26) Does this mean that God has a fleshly body, as man does? Absolutely not!
An image of anything is a representation or copy of it, though of inferior substance. So the first man was an earthly or clay copy of his heavenly, spiritual Maker -- a copy of God! yes, he was to be a manifestation of God in flesh.
There is nothing in Genesis 1:26 about three persons in one God, only an indication that Jehovah was speaking to someone who was already in his image and likeness. -- 2 Corinthians 4:4; Colossians 1:15; Hebrews 1:3.
Man was originally created in the likeness of God, crowned with glory. -- Genesis 1:26; 5:1; Psalm 8:5
Man was created in the mental and moral image and likeness of God, with the ability to reason and to exercise his free will to choose right or wrong. Man exists on a higher plane than the animals and "a little lower than the angels [elohim]." (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7) It is difficult to judge from present human conditions all that is meant by God's image, because we have no sample (save that recorded of Jesus) of perfect humanity for comparison. "All have sinned and come short of the glory of God" in which Adam was created. -- Romans 3:23; Psalm 8:5.
Now we note some other scriptures concerning the likeness of God. David hoped to be raised again in the likeness of God. (Psalm 17:15) The new creature in Christ is in the likeness of God, having been reckoned as justified through faith in the blood of Jesus. -- Ephesians 2:24
However, more specifically the context indicates how man was created in the image and likeness of God: "Let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the birds of the sky, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth." In other words, man was not only made morally and intellectually to resemble his Creator, so that he would be able to think and reason on higher planes than would be possible to the lower animals, but he was also endowed with the authority to control the lower creatures, to be the EL -- powerful ruler -- of earth as Jehovah is the EL of the universe. This agrees well with the statement of Psalm 8:5-8, in which it is declared that God created man but a little lower than the angels, so far as his intelligence and capacity were concerned, and that thus he was "crowned with glory and honor" and given dominion over the lower creatures. It further agrees with Paul's statement in 1 Corinthians 15:39-41. Nevertheless, Paul says concerning this dominion: "But now we don't see all these things subjected to him, yet," indicating what he said elsewhere concerning man's fall from divine likeness, yet with the hope of recovery from this fall. -- Romans 1:21-2:2; 3:10,23; 5: 15-19; 8:19-21; Hebrews 2:7.
And we should note the reading of the following verse, also verse 31, which show that God not only purposed the work and proposed it to his Son, his agent in the creation of all things (John 1:3; Colossians 1:16), and that he not only began the work, but that he also completed it: -- "So God created man [past tense] in his own image; in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them." "And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good." (Compare Genesis 1:27,31; 5:1; 9:6; Ecclessiastes 7:29; 1 Corinthians 11:7; James 3:9) And this creature which God "had made," completed, and declared to be a copy, an image of himself, a manifestation of himself in flesh, he was also pleased to own as his son (Luke 3:38), and as Paul says -- "if a son, then an heir;" (Galatians 4:7) for God brings no son into existence for whom he has not made ample provision. Therefore as a son he had the rich token of his Father's loving providence in the vast domain of earth which he was to subdue and take possession of as his posterity would increase and require it; and all its products -- animal, vegetable and mineral -- were subject to his control and use: "And God blessed them, and God said to them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living animal that moveth upon the earth. And God said, Behold, I have given you every herb bearing seed, which [is] upon the face of all the earth, and every tree, in which [is] the fruit of a tree yielding seed; to you it shall be for food." -- Genesis 1:28,29
And not only did God thus give to Adam the whole earth as an inheritance for himself and his posterity, telling them to appropriate it and cultivate it as their increasing necessities should require, but he had already prepared a choice portion of it as a fit home for the perfect pair, and a sample of what the whole domain of earth would become under the process of industrious cultivation with his added blessing. -- "And Jehovah God planted a garden eastward in Eden; and there he put the man whom he had formed.... And Jehovah God took the man and put him into the garden of Eden to dress it and to keep it." -- Genesis 2:8,15
Thus the context indicates the image of God in Adam, as well as can be seen in Psalm 8:5-8. It is not an image of physical likeness; but to Adam was given the ability to rule, to have a dominion. He had the ability of perception like God; of understanding; as well to reflect all the general attributes and qualities of God on a lesser scale. Man was given perception, imagination, the power of original suggestion, memory, reason, judgment and will, corresponding to these various intellectual qualities in God. He has also the Godlike moral quality of conscience, which enables him to discern the right and the wrong, to distinguish one from the other and to estimate them properly. As originally created, all of these powers worked together perfectly and harmoniously, all being subject to that supreme mental faculty, the will, which, being free to act independently, though aided by the suggestions of all the other mental and moral faculties, determines the course and constitutes the character of the man.
The glory of God-likeness and dominion was to a great extent lost when Adam disobeyed. (Romans 3:23) The apostle tells us that now we do not see all things subjected to man. (Hebrews 2:6-7) Thus the original purpose for mankind has yet to be seen. When Adam sinned, in effect God disowned him as his son, as he no longer reflected the qualities of God.
Therefore we see from the Bible testimony that man was originally perfect, an image or copy of God in flesh. Of the fall from that original perfection and the results to the entire race of Adam, we also have the clear testimony of the Scriptures, showing just how it came about -- that it was a willful transgression of a known righteous law, in the face of a distinct warning of the penalty of such a course. It was a sin on man's part only, and from which God is fully exonerated in that man was left under no necessity of want and with full instruction as to the right course and as to the results of a wrong course of action. The only cause of man's fall, then, which is traceable to the Creator, lies in the fact that he created him in his own image -- with a free will of his own. But this endowment, we see, was the crowning act of God's favor to man, and man's choicest blessing. And so it was the lack of appreciation, and an abuse of God's abounding favor and goodness, and not any lack on God's part, which led to the fall.
As a consequence of that fall from original perfection and favor on the part of the head and representative of the race, another law of our being, designed for our highest good -- the law of heredity -- has brought upon all Adam's posterity its entailment of imperfection and proneness to evil. And thus all the race is in the same wretched plight. An evil tree cannot bring forth good fruit, nor a bitter fountain send forth sweet waters. The present state, therefore, of the entire race is a degenerating and dying one. Had it not been for the redemption through the ransom sacrifice of Jesus, the plight of man would have been without remedy.
Ronald R. Day, Sr.
Links for studies related to Genesis 1:26,27:
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/genesis.html#gen1-26
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/genesis.html#gen1-26
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Thursday, January 21, 2016
Genesis 3:22 - One of Us
Genesis 3:22 - Jehovah God said, "Behold, the man has become like one of us, knowing good and evil. Now, lest he put forth his hand, and also take of the tree of life, and eat, and live forever..."
This scripture is often referred to as an alleged proof that God is more than one person, and thus is offered as proof of the trinity. Evidently what is being imagined and assumed here is that “one of us” refers to three persons of the presumed triune God.
Instead of calling upon an idea that has to be assumed in the realm of human imagination, we can reasonably reach the conclusion scriptures themselves regarding who God is speaking to. Before man sinned, he only knew of good, not bad. Having sinned, he came to know of bad. We know from other scriptures that it was the one who was later called Satan the Devil (John 8:44; Revelation 12:9) that led Adam and Eve to sin. His sinful ambition was surely known to God and and the Son of God, and even to the angels.
The “king of Babylon” is used to picture Satan as saying: “I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God; and I will sit on the mountain of congregation, in the uttermost parts of the north; I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will make myself like the Most High.” (Isaiah 14:13,14) “Stars”, in the Bible, is sometimes figuratively referring to the spirit sons of God. Jesus himself is called the “bright and morning star”. (Revelation 22:16) These sons of God were indeed also present at the creation of the world of mankind, as we can see from Job 38:7; see also Job 1:6; 2:1. Thus all of these had come to have knowledge of both good and bad, although we are not to think that either Jesus, or his God, or the faithful angels, had sinned. They had, however, witnessed sin in the first angel that sinned, and thus they knowledge of sin. Now that man had sinned, God could say that man had become as “one of us, knowing good and bad.” It is possible that God, in saying "one" of us, was referring to Satan only, as he was there at that time, and the instigator in getting Eve to sin.
What we do not find in Genesis 3:22 is any statement that God is more than one person. There is definitely nothing in the statement "one of us" that would mean that God is more than one person, any more than if a group of people are stranded, and there is only means for one them to go get help; thus, one of them says, "One of us needs to go for help."
Instead of calling upon an idea that has to be assumed in the realm of human imagination, we can reasonably reach the conclusion scriptures themselves regarding who God is speaking to. Before man sinned, he only knew of good, not bad. Having sinned, he came to know of bad. We know from other scriptures that it was the one who was later called Satan the Devil (John 8:44; Revelation 12:9) that led Adam and Eve to sin. His sinful ambition was surely known to God and and the Son of God, and even to the angels.
The “king of Babylon” is used to picture Satan as saying: “I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God; and I will sit on the mountain of congregation, in the uttermost parts of the north; I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will make myself like the Most High.” (Isaiah 14:13,14) “Stars”, in the Bible, is sometimes figuratively referring to the spirit sons of God. Jesus himself is called the “bright and morning star”. (Revelation 22:16) These sons of God were indeed also present at the creation of the world of mankind, as we can see from Job 38:7; see also Job 1:6; 2:1. Thus all of these had come to have knowledge of both good and bad, although we are not to think that either Jesus, or his God, or the faithful angels, had sinned. They had, however, witnessed sin in the first angel that sinned, and thus they knowledge of sin. Now that man had sinned, God could say that man had become as “one of us, knowing good and bad.” It is possible that God, in saying "one" of us, was referring to Satan only, as he was there at that time, and the instigator in getting Eve to sin.
What we do not find in Genesis 3:22 is any statement that God is more than one person. There is definitely nothing in the statement "one of us" that would mean that God is more than one person, any more than if a group of people are stranded, and there is only means for one them to go get help; thus, one of them says, "One of us needs to go for help."
Genesis 1:26 - "Let us" and the Trinity - c
Genesis 1:26; Genesis 3:22, Genesis 11:7 and Isaiah 6:8 have been presented as allegedly being proof of the plurality of persons who are claimed to make up the triune God. Regarding Genesis 1:26; Genesis 11:7 and Isaiah 6:8, Walter Martin (Kingdom of the Cults, page 82) claims that the "plurality" of these verses are speaking of Trinity. Let us examine these verses to see if this is so.
Genesis 1:26 - God said, "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the birds of the sky, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth."
We find nothing at all in this verse about there being a God consisting of three persons; any such thought has to imagined, assumed, added to, and read into, what “God” said here. Evidently, the unipersonal “God”, in saying “Let us,” is speaking to someone else. By comparing spiritual with spiritual, we conclude that he was speaking to His Son here, but that does not mean that we need to imagine and assume that His Son is a person of God Himself. If I say to my son, “Let’s build our house according to our plans,” I am not saying that my son is person of myself.
Jesus was evidently of a celestial glory (1 Corinthians 15:40,41) higher than the angels before he became flesh, but that does not mean that he did not have the image of his God and Father before he became flesh. While in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), he possessed a sinless glory of God (Romans 3:23) -- a little lower than the angels -- which glory he offered up in sacrifice for sin. -- Hebrews 2:9, 9:26,28; 10:5; 13:11.
Regarding Genesis 3:22, see our study:
One of Us
Regarding Genesis 3:22, see our study:
One of Us
Genesis 11:7 Come, let's go down, and there confuse their language, that they may not understand one another's speech.
Again, if I say to my son, "Come, let’s go shopping as we had planned," I am not saying that my son is a person of myself; since this is along the same line as Genesis 2:6, see what I have said earlier regarding that scripture. God certainly did not say that He was more than one person; one has to call upon the spirit of human imagination and read such a thought into what God stated.
Isaiah 6:8 And I heard the voice of the Lord, saying: "Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?" Then I said: "Here am I; send me."
A trinitarian argues, evidently by applying the spirit of human imagination, that Isaiah heard the voice of God, and that God is referring to himself as more than one person.
One claims that the words attributed to God in Isaiah 6:8 were said in eternity. Obviously, there is nothing in Isaiah 6:8 about these words being said in eternity past. Such an idea has to be added to and read into what Isaiah said. Following such reasoning, one would conclude that Isaiah had been hearing these words in eternity past, and thus that Isaiah himself had existed in eternity past so as to be hearing these words in eternity past.
If applied prophetically to the church, it is more reasonable to conclude that Isaiah himself is playing a part in the exemplary prophetic role, depicting the church of Jesus who was yet to be. Each believer is depicted as hearing the voice of the Lord Jesus, asking, "Whom shall I send?", and thus is depicted as responding: "Here am I."
The Masoretic text has the word often transliterated as "Adonai" where "the Lord" appears in Isaiah 6:8. The claim has been made that this is one of the places copyists replaced Jehovah with Adonai, and thus some translations have the holy name in the scripture. However, we find that the Great Isaiah Scroll does not have the Holy Name in Isaiah 6:8, but rather the Hebrew characters representing what would b transliterated from the Masoretic text as Adoni [my Lord] or Adonai [Literally, my Lords, used singularly, as a plural intensive, as a superlative or superior "Lord" -- without any vowel points added, both words appear the same in the original Hebrew]. At any rate, it is probable, as some have suggested, that Isaiah originally meant this to be "my Lord", referring to the coming Lord of Isaiah [Isaiah is possibly being used to represent the Christian believer], that is, Jesus, the promised Messiah. In such a case, the words in question, who will go for us, are those of Jesus directed toward Jehovah. The "us" refers to both Jehovah and Jesus. The one to "go" for them would be Isaiah (being a figure of the church members individually). The fulfillment of the prophecy supports that 'the Lord' in Isaiah 6:8 is not Jehovah but Jesus, the one whom Jehovah anointed (made christ) as our Lord. -- Isaiah 61:1; Acts 2:36; 20:21.
What we do not find in those words is any thought that Jehovah is a triune God of three persons.
It is being claimed that the word "Elohim" and the pronoun “us” are plural forms, and these rare "definitely referring in the Hebrew language to more than two." It is further claimed the word ELOHIM denotes "the aspect of plurality in God."
The plurality of ELOHIM means “gods”, thus any thought along this line would mean that Jehovah is more than one God. Two Gods? Definitely not! Although “us” certainly refers to more than one, ELOHIM most definitely refers to only one who is ELOHIM.
Genesis 1:26 – God [ELOHIM] said [singular verb], “Let us make [plural] man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the birds of the sky, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.”
The verb that corresponds with ELOHIM is not plural in the Hebrew text, but it is singular. The verb that corresponds with US is plural in the Hebrew text, which is correct, since the Singular “God” was speaking to someone else who was not Himself.
Genesis 3:22 Jehovah God said [singular verb in Hebrew], "Behold, the man has become like one of us, knowing good and evil. Now, lest he put forth his hand, and also take of the tree of life, and eat, and live forever..."
Again in Genesis 3:22, we find that a singular verb is used relating to ELOHIM, not a plural verb.
The “Lexical Aids to the Old Testament” that appears in Key Study Bibles, notes this concerning ELOHIM.
This mas. Hebr. noun is pl. in form, but it has both sing. and pl. uses. In a pl. sense it refers to rulers or judges with divine connections (Ex. 21:6); pagan gods (Ex. 18:11; Ps. 86:8); and probably angels (Ps. 8:5; 97:7). In both of the passages where “angels” is the apparent meaning, it is so translated in the Sept... In the singular sense it is used of a god or a goddess (1 Sam. 5:7; 2 Kgs. 18:34); a man in a position like a god (Ex. 7:1); God (Duet. 7:9; Ezra 1:3; Is. 45:18 and many other OT passages).... It usually takes a sing. verb so no implication of any plurality of the divine nature can be inferred from the fact that the word is plural. -- page 1598 in the King James Hebrew -Greek Key Word Study Bible, edited by Spiros Zodhiates.
The fact is, that ELOHIM, when used in a singular setting, that is, when the verb and/or pronouns, etc., in context are singular, ELOHIM is used as what many linguists call a "plural intensive," "honorific plural", or "majestic plural", that is, the word, although it is plural in form, is singular in usage to denote something similar to a superior or superlative usage.
Since the plurality of ELOHIM means “gods”, not persons, there definitely is nothing in that word that would connect with a triune God, not unless one would think that Jehovah is Gods, more than one Mighty One.
Let Us and Elohim
Genesis 1:26,27 - Who is God Speaking To?
Elohim - Does This Word Indicate a Plurality of Persons in a Godhead?
Genesis 3:22 - One of Us
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