Wednesday, January 31, 2024

John 14:23 - God and Jesus Lives With Us

One has asked:
John 14:23-24 - Jesus answered him, "If a man loves me, he will keep my word. My Father will love him, and we will come to him, and make our home with him. [24] He who doesn't love me doesn't keep my words. The word which you hear isn't mine, but the Father's who sent me.
WHY WOULD JESUS AND THE FATHER COME TO US AND MAKE THEIR DWELLING WITH A BELIEVER AFTER THE HOLY SPIRIT WILL BE SENT TO BE WITH MANKIND TOO?

John 14:23-24 - Jesus answered him, "If a man loves me, he will keep my word. My Father will love him, and we will come to him, and make our home with him. [24] He who doesn't love me doesn't keep my words. The word which you hear isn't mine, but the Father's who sent me.

In the midst of all the temptations and trials that beset us in our earthly pilgrimage we may recognize the voice of our God, saying, 'Do not be afraid. I am your shield, and your exceeding great reward' (Genesis 15:1), " Don't you be afraid, for I am with you; don't be dismayed, for I am your God." (Isaiah 41:10), and he voice of His Son, saying: "Where two or three are gathered together in my name, there I am in the midst of them" (Matthew 18:20), and "I am with you always, even to the end of the age." -- Mathew 28:20. 

Since we see no reason why both Jesus and his God would not reside with a child oF God through God's Holy Spirit, I am not quite sure what is being asked. Evidently, what is being imagined and assumed is that there is something in Jesus' words that has something to do with the added-on trinitarian philosophy, or otherwise that Jesus is God (Supreme Mighty One, Supreme Being). 

Actually, in harmony with John 14:1, Jesus was presenting only one person, his God and Father, as being the "one God of whom are all" (1 Corinthians 8:6). He says nothing at all to the effect that he is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, or that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is more than one person. Indeed, verse 24 shows that he disclaims being the source of his own words. Verse 23 is in perfect agreement with verse 24 and also 1 Corinthians 8:6 and Hebrews 1:1,2. Jesus is not the source, the Supreme Being, but rather the instrument that the Supreme Being uses. Both Jesus and his God and Father are with the child of God through God's Holy Spirit. -- Ephesians 3:16; 2 Timothy 1:14; 1 John 3:24.

If the oneness idea is being read into what Jesus said, one should remember that authority to use God's Holy Spirit was given to Jesus from his God and Father (John 15:26; Acts 2:33); Jesus is not that Holy Spirit for Jesus offered himself to his God "through the eternal spirit." (Ephesians 1:3; 5:2; Hebrews 9:14) Jesus is neither God's Holy Spirit nor is he "his God."

Friday, January 19, 2024

The Word "Things" in the Bible (Working on)

The word "thing(s)" has been added in Psalm 8:6; John 1:3; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 15:27; Ephesians 1:22; Colossians 1:16-20; Hebrews 2:8-10, and many, many other verses throughout the Bible. Forms of the Hebrew word often transliterated as KOL (Strong's Hebrew #S 3605,3606) and forms of the Greek word often transliterated as PAS (Strong's Greek #3956) rarely, if ever, in the Bible refer to absolutely everything in the universe (which actually would include God Himself), or even every created thing in the universe, although translators evidently add the word "things" evidently with the latter thought in mind. It is also the same with the Hebrew and Greek negative. 

For instance in Hebrews 2:8, without adding the word "thing(s)", we read:

"You have put all in subjection under his feet."

For in that he subjected all to him, he left not one that is not subject to him. But now we don't see all subjected to him, yet.

This is indirectly quoting Psalm 8:6, which speaks of all that God has subjected to man. Hebrews 2:8, however, comments that God had not left one that was not subjected to man. In saying that God had not left one that was not subjected to man, does the scripture mean that the whole universe has been made subject to man? Obviously not! Psalm 8:7,8 briefly expresses what is included in "all" that was subjected to man:

All sheep and oxen, Yes, and the animals of the field, The birds of the sky, the fish of the sea, And whatever passes through the paths of the seas.

In other the all sentient living things on earth was subjected to man. Due to man's disobedience, however, we do not yet see all subjected to man. It is delayed until the ages to come.

In John 1:3, we find similar usage of forms of "pas" as in Hebrews 2:8. God made all through the Logos, and none were made without the Logos. Is the "all" here referring to absolutely every created thing in the universe? Obviously not. John 1:10 identifies what is being referring to as the world (KOSMOS) into which the Logos, the world that did not recognize the Logos. This is the same world (KOSMOS) that sin entered into through one man. (Romans 5:12-19) Jesus' body of flesh was specially prepared by his God (Hebrews 10:5), so that he, while in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), was not of this world condemned through Adam. Likewise, the new creature in Christ is begotten again apart from this world condemned through Adam, and is therefore not of this condemned world.

But the point is that "the beginning" and "all" in John 1:1-3 is referring, not to the creation of universe, but to the creation of the world of mankind, which God did through his firstborn creature. The invisible sons of God were already in existence at the beginning of the world that was made through the Logos. -- Job 38:4-7.

Likewise, in Colossians 1:16, all that God made through the firstborn son is not in reference to absolutely every created "thing", but rather to the creation of living one who are given dominion or a realm, the invisible sons of God in the heavens and the visible creation of man on the earth. 

https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/jesus-and-creation.html  

Colossians 1:15,16 – Genitive and “For”


By Ronald R. Day, Sr.
----This study has not yet been edited for this site. It needs to be formatted and links need to be added.

In response to some claims made concerning the usage of the genitive in Colossians 1:15, and the usage of “hoti” — for — in Colossians 1:16.
It has been claimed that the genitive is used in many different ways, and it does not necessarily mean “included with”. It is claimed, among other things, that it can also mean “originating from,” which would actually mean that Christ was born of every creature. Those who would give it this meaning, however, often offset the verse by claiming that Jesus originated from God. For those who believe that Jesus is God, they might also add to this the false idea that if God begets, he only begets “God”, and thus that Jesus is “God” who beget him. One has claimed since he was born of God, that would mean that God is one of those creatures, but “Son of God” means that Christ originated from God, and not from creatures. This actually adds a bit of doubletalk to what Paul actually stated. Directly from what is stated as recorded in Colossians 1:15, the application of the gentitive with the meaning suggested would actually give Paul’s word’s the meaning that Jesus originated from, out of, all creation.

Please see:

Did Jesus Have a Beginning?
Colossians 1:16 and the Creator
Is Jesus the Creator?

From:

http://www.ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/classify-genitive.htm

J. Genitive of Source – Sometimes the genitive case indicates the source from which the head noun is derived or  depends. The word `of’ could instead be translated `out of’, `derived from’, or `dependent on’. This use is relatively rare; rather source is often shown with the preposition ejk used with the genitive case.
Another suggestion is that the genitive also sometimes means “ownership; belonging to,” as “the churches of Christ salute you” (Romans 16:16), corresponding with Matt 16:18, “I will build my church.” If this is the way Colossians 1:15 uses the genitive, it would mean that Christ belongs to every creature, which he certainly does not. Jesus, as firstborn, is not, indeed, owned by all creation. For all creation to have possession of Jesus would indeed have to be a very, extra-broad interpretation of this usage of the genitive in Colossians 1:15. In effect, it would have the present world of sinners, alienated from God, children of disobedience and wrath by nature (Ephesians 2:2,3), as having possession of Jesus in some way.

From:
http://www.ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/classify-genitive.htm

Possessive Genitive – Showing the ideas of ownership or possession. To see if it is the Genitive of Possession, try substituting the word `of’ with `belonging to’ or `possessed by’. However, this use does not have to indicate actual, physical ownership of some property. It may be a broadly defined type of ownership. This is a very common use of the genitive. A possessive pronoun will often be used in the genitive case to show possession.
Regardless, the evidence of the usage of the word “firstborn” all through the scriptures supports that firstborn of all creation in Colossians 1:15 is partitive genitive, not possessive genitive. Yes, Jesus is indeed, the firstborn creature.

It is also suggested that it means “like unto, or compared with,” (this is called the comparative genitive) such as “(Christ) is the image of the invisible God.” in the same verse. It is claimed that as Christ is the image of God (divine), inheriting God’s nature by being the offspring of God, and not one of those created beings with whom he is here compared. Only the context determines the way the genitive is to be understood. However, it is unclear as to how this could be applied to the phrase, “the firstborn of every creature,” except that one again offsets the application from “creation” to “God”, which, in effect, would actually deny what Paul actually stated. In reality, such an application would have Paul saying, “firstborn [more than/less than, greater than] ever creature.”

From:
http://www.ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/classify-genitive.htm

Genitive of Comparison – This use of the genitive almost always comes after an comparative adjective (like `more’, `less’, `greater’, etc.). The customarily used `of’ translated with the genitive should instead be translated `than’. It is a relatively common use of the genitive case.

E.g. Matthew 3:1
“ijscurovterov” mouv ejstin.”
“He is mightier than I.”

Matthew 6:25
“oujci; hJ yuchV plei’ovn ejstin th'” trofh'””
“Is not your life (worth) more than food?”
According to this Greek authority, this would exclude the genitive in Colossians 1:15 as speaking of a genitive of comparison.

Colossians 1:16
hoti en autw ektisthee ta panta en tois
BECAUSE IN HIM IT WAS CREATED THE ALL (THINGS) IN THE
3754 1722 0846_5 2936 3588 3956 1722 3588
ouranois kai epi tees gees ta horata kai
HEAVENS AND UPON THE EARTH, THE (THINGS) VISIBLE AND
3772 2532 1909 3588 1093 3588 3707 2532
ta aorata eite thronoi eite kurioteetes eite
THE (THINGS) INVISIBLE, WHETHER THRONES OR LORDSHIPS OR
3588 0517 1535 2362 1535 2963 1535
archai eite exousiai ta panta di autou
GOVERNMENTS OR AUTHORITIES; THE ALL (THINGS) THROUGH HIM
0746 1535 1849 3588 3956 1223 0846_3
kai eis auton ektistai
AND INTO HIM IT HAS BEEN CREATED;
2532 1519 0846_7 2936

Westcott & Hort Interlinear, as obtained from the Bible Students DVD.

The usage of “for” [Greek often transliterated as "HOTI"] in Colossians 1:16, as in the King James Version, is often claimed to not be accruate, since it would give the thought that all were created through Jesus because of Jesus' being the "firstborn' of Colossians 1;15. Usually, it is further claimed from this that since Jesus is Jehovah, and that in some way, Jesus/Jehovah made himself the firstborn although he had never been brought forth into existence.

While the word “HOTI” can refer back to what is said as the cause for what follows, most trinitarians insist that "HOTI" in verse 16 is telling us that BECAUSE Jesus is the Creator, the title of "firstborn" is given to Jesus. Jesus is indeed the firstborn because God created all things described in Colossians 1:16 by means of the firstborn, this does not mean that one person of Jehovah made another person of Himself firstborn because of this. "The all" described in Colossians 1:16 were created by means of him, this does not mean that Jesus was “made” the firstborn simply because of this, or that in some way firstborn does not mean the first one to born/brought forth of the group spoken of.  It certainly would not give the word “firstborn” the meaning of being begotten outside of time, as many have claimed. All such thoughts would have to be added to, and read into what Paul said. Nor does the fact that Jesus is firstborn because through him God created all the things spoken of Colossians 1:16 negate the genitive partitive usage in Colossians 1:15, which would include Jesus as a member of the creation of which he is the firstborn. Jesus is the firstborn because he was already in existence as the firstborn  before the creation that was made through him, and thus he was used by God as the means to create “the all” that is being spoken of. What distinguishes him from “ta panta” spoken of in verse 16 is that he is the firstborn creature.

Many read into Paul’s statement that Jesus is firstborn because he created TA PANTA — THE All, with idea that TA PANTA means the whole universe. Most translations ignore the Greek word "TA" and add the word "things", thus rendering TA PANTA as "all things." Nevertheless, the phrase “ta panta” is always limited by the context and evidence for inclusion and exclusion. It rarely, if ever, means “the universe” [which in its strictest defintion, “everything that exists”, would include God, since God does exist] as many have suggested. In the context here TA PANTA is limited to the intelligent creation, especially thrones, dominions, principalities, and powers. Certainly God’s own power and dominion was not created by Jesus. (1 Chronicles 29:11; Psalm 47:8; 103:19; Nahum 1:3) Thus we have at least this one exception to be applied to ta panta in Colossians 1:16. If we want to include all power indefinitely, then we should note that the power and authority given to Jesus by God is also not created by Jesus, but was given to him by the Most High, the only source of all power. (Luke 1:32; Matthew 28:18; John 3:35; 5:27; 1 Corinthians 15:27; Ephesians 1:20-22; Philippians 2:9) Now, we have two evident exclusions for the “TA PANTA” spoken of.

That panta in use of powers and dominions being spoken of are limited can be seen from the following application: The first man Adam was given dominion over — “all things” — and seeing that God “subjected all things to him, he left nothing that is not subject to him.” And yet, in actuality, not all things in the whole universe was subjected to man, but relative scriptures show what is included in the all that was subjected to man: the earth, the land and its animals. Spirit beings also, being a step higher than man, also have power, as given to them by God. (Genesis 1:26,28; Psalm 8:5-7; Hebrews 2:5-8.)

Yes, Jesus is firstborn because through him God created all the things spoken of in the context: dominions, powers, invisible and invisible, in heaven and in earth.

After the initial “hoti” clause in verse 16 other statements follow that show why Christ is called the firstborn creature, and are still related to the usage of “hoti”. In Colossians 1:17 we find that he is before the all that was just spoken of. Yes, this is indeed dealing with a time element, and not just a status element. Jesus was “before” the all spoken of, he is therefore the first creature to be brought forth into being. Then in Colossians 1:18 Jesus is spoken of as the “head”, which is, of course, the pre-eminent status, and yet it also refers to him as “the beginning”, which is another element of time. Jesus is firstborn because he is “the beginning” of God’s creation.

Next he is called “firstborn from the dead”. The parallel here should be obvious. Jesus was indeed the first one to be actually born — fully made alive — from the dead, never to die again. This is also a time element, that in all things he might have the preeminence. Thus, as “firstborn” in verse 18 is indeed a time element, so in verse 15 firstborn of all creation is also related to time.

One claims that if Christ was one of those created “things”, then Christ would created himself. No, this is a false idea that has to be read into what is said. As we have shown before, TA PANTA rarely, if ever, means absolutely everything that exists. If it did mean absolutely everything that exists in Colossians 1:16, then, God himself, and Jesus himself, would have to be included in what is said. Earlier we mentioned TA PANTA in reference to dominion, and referred to Psalm 8:5-7 in speaking of the dominion given to man. In Psalm 8:6, we read that God “put all things under his feet.” Does this mean that all things in the universe are put under the feet of puny man? Absolutely not! The following verses show what is meant by “all things”: “All sheep and oxen, Yes, and the animals of the field, The birds of the sky, the fish of the sea, And whatever passes through the paths of the seas. ” (Psalm 8:7,8) Thus “all things” is limited by context and evidence. When Paul quoted Psalm 8 in Hebrews 2:6-9, he uses “panta” and “ta panta”: “”You have put all things [PANTA] in subjection under his [man’s] feet.” For in that he subjected all things [TA PANTA] to him, he left nothing that is not subject to him. But now we don’t see all things subjected to him, yet.” (Hebrews 2:7) Man, when he sinned, to a great extent, lost the original dominion given to him over all things, thus Paul says that “now” we don’t see all things subjected to man, not yet. This implies that the time will come when all things will again be subjected to man. But our point here is that even though Paul says: “in that he [God] subjected all things [TA PANTA] to him [man], he [God] left nothing that is not subject to him [man].” As we have already seen, this entire expression is relative to what was being spoken of, that is, “the all” on the earth. Angels were not made subject to man, but Psalm 8:7,8 show what is included when Paul says that God “left nothing that is not subject to him.”

Likewise, in Colossians 1:16, TA PANTA is not speaking about absolutely everything in the universe, nor even about absolutely everything in the created universe. The rule of evidence shows that Jesus, as the firstborn creature, is not included. An example of this is found in 1 Corinthians 15:27, where Paul again used TA PANTA, but shows the “evident” exclusion of God himself as being subjected to Jesus.

Another question is asked:  In verse 17 (Colossinas 1:17), it says “he (Christ) is before all things.” So if Christ is before all things, how could he be one of those created things which he is before and which he subsequently created? Most certainly, Jesus is not being included in TA PANTA — “the all” – – that is being referred to in Colossians 1:16. This does not mean that Jesus was not created before TA PANTA — the all — that is being referred to, as we have already shown.

Whatever made be said, however, we do not find anything in Colossians 1:15 or Colossians 1:16 about three persons in one God, or that Jesus is his God, or that Jesus is the Creator.

Related Studies

Without Jesus Absolutely Nothing Was Created?

Is Jesus Designated the Creator?

Sunday, January 7, 2024

Acts 2:22-24 -- Jesus of Nazareth and God (Working on)

Acts 2:22 - "You men of Israel, hear these words. Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved by God to you by mighty works and wonders and signs which God did by him in the midst of you, even as you yourselves know,
Acts 2:23 - him, being delivered up by the determined counsel and foreknowledge of God, you have taken by the hand of lawless men, crucified and killed;
Acts 2:24 - whom God raised up, having freed him from the agony of death, because it was not possible that he should be held by it.  -- World English.

Some trinitarians and some others may present Acts 2:22-24 as proof of the trinity, or as proof that Jesus is God Almighty, or possibly as proof of the alleged dual natures of Christ (hypostatic union). As yet, we haven't actually found any explanation as to how the words recorded in Acts 2:22,23 offers any proof that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, or that God is more than one person, or that Jesus is fully God (Supreme Being) and fully man (human being) at the same time.

In reality, "God" is presented as being only one person in these verses and Jesus is not presented as being "God" but rather the man through whom God performed miracles.

Evidently, the claim is that Acts 2:22 means that God is in Christ, and from this it is evidently imagined and assumed that Acts 2:21 is referring to their imagined and assumed assertion that Jesus is both fully God and fully man (dual natures of Christ, hypostatic union). 2 Corinthians 5:19; John 10:37,38 and John 14:7-11 are cited to support this imagined and assumed assertion. Of course, any idea of that Jesus had two natures at the same time has also to be imagined and assumed and then added to what is written in all the scriptures, since no such idea is presented in any of the scriptures cited.

In 2 Corinthians 5:18,19, "God" is only one person, and Jesus is the instrument that God uses to reconcile the world to Himself. John 10:37,38; 14:10,11 shows that Jesus is in God and that God is Jesus. However, said that his disciples are in him and that he is in his disciples, and prayed for his followers to be one in himself and his Father (John 17:21) He was not saying that his followers would be God Almighty as he is [allegedly] God Almighty. See our study: "God in Christ".

God willing, we will add an examination of claims related to "it was not possible that he should be held by it" later, and possibly some other claims.

Related to the scriptures above, some trinitarians will begin to cite many scriptures which they claim shows Jesus to be God Almighty, such as Mark 2:7;  John 1:1; John 8:58; John 20:28;  Hebrews 1:6; Hebrews 1:10, and many other scriptures. Of course, in none of these scriptures do we find that Jesus is identified as being Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. As usually, one has created many assumptions beyond what is written and then add to those assumptions to, and read those assumptions into the scriptures in order to make the scriptures appear to be saying that Jesus is Jehovah, or that Jesus is a person of Jehovah, etc. Since we have examined most, if not all, the scriptures often presented elsewhere, we will not do such again here, but we refer one to our resources pages related to "Is Jesus God?"