Jesus and His God

It is being claimed that Zechariah 2:11 is proof that Jehovah sends Himself, and that thus, Jehovah is more than one person. Actually, as we will demonstrate, our trinitarian neighbors have to add to this and read into this their trinitarian philosophies. We should note that the ancient Hebrew did not have punctuation. We have to be careful in understanding who is saying what. Any punctuation found in copies or translations has been supplied by men. Once one understands who is speaking which words, one can properly add quote marks to these verses. We believe the verses involved should be punctuated as follows: Zechariah 2:8 For this is what Jehovah of hosts says (for glory he has sent me to the nations which plunder you, for he who touches you touches the apple of his eye): Zechariah 2:9 "Behold, I will shake my hand against them, and they will become spoil for their servants." Then you will know that Jehovah of hosts has sent me. Zechariah 2:10 "Sing and rejo...

These will war against the Lamb, and the Lamb will overcome them, for he is Lord of lords, and King of kings. They also will overcome who are with him, called and chosen and faithful." -- Revelation 17:14. He has on his garment and on his thigh a name written, "KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS." -- Revelation 19:16 World English Bible  translation Some object that the titles Lord of lords and King of kings only apply to Jehovah. Jehovah is spoken of a "Lord of lords" in Deuteronomy 10:17 and Psalm 136:3. The expression, "lord of lords" simply signifies one who is "lord" over others who are also "lords". In the case of Jehovah, however, he is the "Supreme" Lord who is lord over others who are also lords. However, any one who is a Lord over others who are also lords can hold the title "Lord of lords." Another way of expressing "Lord of lords" is "overlord." http://dictionary.reference....

Does this scripture mean that one with God's Holy Spirit identifies Jesus as Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob? Therefore I make known to you that no man speaking by God's Spirit says, "Jesus is accursed." No one can say, "Jesus is Lord," but by the Holy Spirit. -- 1 Corinthians 12:3, World English. This scripture is often misused to claim that Jesus is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Some claim that in the expression "Jesus is Lord", the word "Lord" means "Jehovah". Some note that Johann Christian Reichardt's translation of the New Testament into Hebrew has the tetragrammaton, thus making it appear to say, "Jesus is Jehovah." From that it is evidently assumed that Paul was saying that one can only say that Jesus is Jehovah by means of the Holy Spirit. However, Reichardt's placement of the tetragrammaton into 1 Corinthians 12:3 was evidently deliberately done in order to make ...

The following is a list of all Scriptures from the  World English Bible  translation that contain the phrase "Most High," demonstrating that the God of Jesus is the only "Most High," and Jesus is the Son of the Most High. Jesus is never called the "Most High", although Jesus is presented as the Son of the Most High. It is only used of the God and Father of Jesus, although Jesus is presented as the Son of the Most High. The "Holy Name" is presented as "Yahweh" in the Old Testament of this version of the Bible. Genesis 14:18 - Melchizedek king of Salem brought forth bread and wine: and he was priest of God Most High . Ellicott states concerning this verse."In Melchizedek we have a type of Christ (Psalm 110:4; Hebrews 5:6; Hebrews 5:10; Hebrews 7:1-21)." Just as Melchizedek was priest of God Most High, so Jesus is the priest of God Most High. (Hebrews 2:17; 5:6-10; 6:20; 7:11-28) Thus, the default reasoning is that Jesus...

And Jehovah appeared to him by the oaks of Mamre. And he was sitting at the door of the tent in the heat of the day. And he lifted up his eyes and looked; and, behold, three men were standing by him. And he saw, and he ran to meet them from the entrance of the tent. And he bowed to the ground. And he said, My Lord, if now I have found favor in Your sight, I beg You, do not leave from near Your servant. -- Genesis 18:1-3, Green's Literal . (1) This narrative begins with the statement that Jehovah appeared to Abraham, and then Abraham saw three men, whom he went out to meet. Although it is often assumed that Jehovah made his appearance here as the three "men", such is not clearly stated in the record. It could be that the appearance of Jehovah in verse one is separate from and before Abraham saw the three men. The term "angel" means messenger, as one who delivers messages for someone else. (See Genesis 19:13) We accept the possibility that Jehovah's appea...

But as many as received him, to them he gave the right to become God's children, to those who believe in his name. -- John 1:12 . The above scripture is sometimes presented to prove that the Logos is God, evidently because he gave those who received him the right to become God's children. We have not found a clear explanation of how his verse is thought to be proof of the triune God philosophy. We surmise that the thought is that the Almighty could not give to his Son this authority, except that the Son of God is God Himself. They, then, would claim only God can give others the right to become God's children. If Jesus is not God Almighty, by what authority could he give others the right to become children of God?  In reality, all power and authority that Jesus has is that which has been given to him by the Source of All Power and Might, that is, his God and Father.  Jesus, however, did not have to be God Most High in order to give others the right to be sons of G...

The following is an excerpt from James White’s dissertation on “ John 1:1 - Meaning and Translation ”. While we are not associated with the JWs, we have had this quote from James Whtie presented to us: Some refer the “beginning” here to that of Genesis 1.1, and this may be so, but the verb “was” (Gr: en, imperfect of eimi) takes us before whatever “beginning” we may wish to choose. The continuous action in the past of the imperfect tense of the verb indicates to us that whenever the “beginning” was, the Word was already in existence. In other words, the Word is eternal – timeless – without a “beginning.” James White claims the Greek word transliterated as EN (Strong's #2258:  Imperfect Indicative Active , a form of Strong's #1510), in effect, would mean eternity, at least in John 1:1. It is evidently being assumed that “beginning” refers to absolutely everything in the created universe, and thus, since the Word “was” before such, then the Word was never created, and thus, ...

Malachi 2:10 - Is there not one father to us all? Has not one God created us? Why do we act deceitfully, each man with his brother, to profane the covenant of our fathers? Malachi 2:10 is often cited by trinitarians as proof that there is " one God ". We agree that there is "one God" (one Being who is Supreme); however, the trinitarian seems to read into Malachi that the "one God" is more than one person. Their reasoning is that since, as they claim, Jesus is also called God and the Holy Spirit is also called "God", that there "one God" of Malachi 2:10 must be three persons. The fact is that no scripture ever presents the "one God" as being more than one person, and the further fact is that any idea of God existing as more than one person has to be imagined and assumed beyond what is written, and what is imagine and assumed has to be added to, and read into, what is actually written. Many translations have "God" ...

John 1:1,2 with John 17:1,3,5 distinguishes the "only true God" from the Logos, Jesus. John emphasizes that Jesus is with (or toward, in service of) God twice; the default reasoning should be that the Logos is not the only true God whom the Logos was with, and thus the usage of THEOS as applied the Logos must be used with the Hebraic meaning of "mighty" or "mighty one". Jesus was, before he became flesh, a mighty spirit being when he had the celestial glory (1 Corinthians 15:39-40) before God made the world of mankind through Jesus. -- John 1:3,10; 17:5. I believe that John used the Greek structure for the purpose of showing that THEOS, as applied to the Logos, is meant to differentiate THEOS as applied to the only true Supreme Being; indeed, this should be the default reasoning. Trinitarian scholars themselves do not all agree on exactly what the Greek syntax means, although they, in some way, agree that it means that Jesus is the Supreme Being, to whic...