John 1:1,2 with John 17:1,3,5 distinguishes the "only true God" from the Logos, Jesus. John emphasizes that Jesus is with (or toward, in service of) God twice; the default reasoning should be that the Logos is not the only true God whom the Logos was with, and thus the usage of THEOS as applied the Logos must be used with the Hebraic meaning of "mighty" or "mighty one". Jesus was, before he became flesh, a mighty spirit being when he had the celestial glory (1 Corinthians 15:39-40) before God made the world of mankind through Jesus. -- John 1:3,10; 17:5. I believe that John used the Greek structure for the purpose of showing that THEOS, as applied to the Logos, is meant to differentiate THEOS as applied to the only true Supreme Being; indeed, this should be the default reasoning. Trinitarian scholars themselves do not all agree on exactly what the Greek syntax means, although they, in some way, agree that it means that Jesus is the Supreme Being, to whic...
This site's purpose is to respond to claims that Jesus is Jehovah/Yahweh by pointing out what the scriptures do say versus what people often imagine and assume.