Deuteronomy 32:39 -- No Gods With Me

Deuteronomy 32:39 (JUBILEE BIBLE 2000) See now that I, I [am] he, and [there are] no gods with me; I kill, and I make alive; I wound, and I heal; and there is not one that can deliver out of my hand.

Deuteronomy 32:39 is often cited as proof that no one else can be legitimately be a god (mighty one) except Jehovah.

"Gods" above is ELOHIM indefinite in the Hebrew, evidently being used in a plural sense. Obviously, in Deuteronomy 32:39, Jehovah is not referring to the angelic host, who are ELOHIM in Psalm 8:5. Nor is it excluding Moses from being ELOHIM before Pharoah. (Exodus 7:1) In context, God is probably referring to the false gods mentioned in verses 16,17,21. The idols of the nations have no might in them at all, thus they are not actually gods. These are those that are called "gods" as Paul mentioned in 1 Corinthians 8:1-6 and Galatians 4:8. None of these "gods" are with Jehovah.

If one, however, should apply Supreme Being to ELOHIM in Deuteronomy 32:29, there is indeed definitely no other Supreme Being with Jehovah. The angels, although ELOHIM, are not Supreme in their being, nor is Jehovah's firstborn son Supreme in his being. Some like to point out that in Deuteronomy 32:39, "gods" has the small letter "g", not the capital letter "G", and thus that it is not being used in the sense of Supreme Beings. The point evidently is that GOD applied to Jesus cannot be used in the sense of a small letter "g". In reality, this is irrelevant.

Ancient Hebrew does not distinguish between "Gods" and "gods", since it did not have the capitalization that we usually use in English and which is common in most languages today. While the Hebrew and Greek do not show such a difference, we can agree that in English translators should use the lower "g" when it is not speaking of Jehovah, the God of the Messiah, or else they should render it with some form of might, power or strength. We believe that since Jesus is not the "one God" of whom are all (1 Corinthian 8:6), that any application of the words for "God/god" to Jesus should be with a lower "g", or else with some form of "might, power or strength". Translators do this in many cases, but usually fail to do so when it comes to Jesus, because of the preconceived concept that Jesus is the Supreme Being. Nevertheless, in Deuteronomy 32:39, ELOHIM could be referring Supreme Beings, or it could be referring the idol gods of the nations.

Regardless, Deuteronomy 32:39 cannot mean that forms of EL, including forms of ELOHIM, cannot be used of others than Jehovah or false gods, since the Bible does make use of forms EL in many ways other than designating Supreme Being or false gods. There is nothing in Deuteronomy 32:39 that forbids the usage of the Hebrew and Greek words often translated as "God/god" of others, including Jesus,  in a sense of might or power without meaning the Supreme Mighty One. This we have shown in our study on The Hebraic Usage of the Titles for "God" as well as several other studies.

The phrase "I am he" is often connected with John 8:58 or one of the scriptures where Jesus uses the Greek phrase EGO EIMI, which can mean "I am he. In Deuteronomy 32:39, Jehovah does not use EHJEH of Exodus 3:14, and he is not speaking of his name. The Hebrew has no corresponding verb for "am", but a verb is called for in most languages. Thus, the Christianized LXX uses the Greek verb usually referred to as EIMI. This is not a use of the Holy Name; Jehovah was simply declaring Himself to be the Supreme Being.

See also our resource page for links to some of our studies related to "Ehjeh and I am"

John 4:26 - Did Jesus Claim to Be God of Isaiah 43:10-12; 52:6?

Some trinitarians are using John 4:26 connected with Isaiah 43:10-12 and/or Isaiah 52:6 as proof that Jesus is Jehovah. The assumption is that Jesus' usage of the Greek phrase usually transliterated as "EGO EIMI", often translated as "I am he", in John 4:26 means that Jesus was declaring himself to Jehovah in Isaiah 43 and Isaiah 52, since Jehovah used "I am he" in those verses.

However, in Isaiah 43 and Isaiah 52 Jehovah is declaring himself to be the one that he describes in the context, and likewise Jesus does the same thing in John 4:26. Let us examine who Jesus was declaring himself to be:

John 4:25-26 - The woman said to him, "I know that Messiah comes," (he who is called Christ). "When he has come, he will declare to us all things." Jesus said to her, "I who speak to you am he."
-- World English.

Jesus was not declaring himself to be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, but rather he was declaring himself to be the Messiah, meaning "anointed" or "anointed one".

Who anointed Jesus?

Isaiah quotes the Messiah as prophetically stating:

Isaiah 61:1 - The Spirit of the Lord Jehovah is on Me, because Jehovah has anointed Me to preach the gospel to the meek. He has sent Me to bind up the broken-hearted, to proclaim liberty to captives, and complete opening to the bound ones. -- Green's Literal.

It is the Lord Jehovah who anointed and sent the Messiah. This is the same Jehovah who speaks in Exodus 3:14,15. The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in Exodus 3:14,15 is not Jesus; we know this because Peter refers to the God and Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in Acts 3:13 and shows in Acts 3:13-26 that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is the one who raised Jesus up as the foretold prophet like Moses. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19.

Thus, in John 4:25,26, Jesus was not declaring Himself to be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15), but he was declaring himself to be one whom the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob anointed and sent.

Jesus later referring the Lord Jehovah of Isaiah 61:1 as the "only true God" who had sent him. (John 17:1,3) Paul shows that the God and Father of Jesus is the only true Supreme Being when he declared Him to be the "one God" who is the source of all. -- 1 Corinthians 8:4-6.

Nevertheless, many will not accept the simple truth, but will imagine, assume, add to, and read into, the scriptures that Jehovah of Isaiah 61:1 is not their "triune God", but rather they would imagine, assume, add to, and read the verse that the Lord Jehovah there is only the alleged "first person" of the alleged triune God, and continue to imagine, and assume such throughout all the scriptures related to this, etc. They then present what they have imagined and assumed as being factual, and claim that if one cannot disprove all that they add to the scriptures, then what they have imagined and assumed must be true.

Some of the less informed trinitarians try to tie the Greek expression of transliterated as EGO EIMI in John 4:26 with EHJEH of Exodus 3:14, usually by use of the "I am" phrase as it appears in the translations in both verses. Many of the same principles I have presented in my study on the "I am" statements of Jesus also apply to Jesus' usage in John 4:26; indeed, it is self-apparent that by his words recorded at John 4;26 Jesus was not speaking of his name as being Ehjeh, but that he was simply stating that he was the promised Messiah.

See also our Studies related to "Is Jesus God?"

Ephesians 3:11-15 – Must We See Trinity in What Paul Wrote?

Ephesians 3:11 - according to the eternal purpose which he purposed in [instrumental EN (Strong's #1722), by means of] Christ Jesus, our Lord;
Ephesians 3:12 - in [by means of] whom we have boldness and access in confidence through our faith in him.
Ephesians 3:13 - Therefore I ask that you may not lose heart at my troubles for you, which are your glory.
Ephesians 3:14 - For this cause, I bow my knees to the Father of our Lord, Jesus Christ,
Ephesians 3:15 - from whom [This is evidently referring to the God and Father of Jesus] every family in heaven and on earth is named [evidently not referring to appellations, but rather to positioning -- Genesis 28:4],
Ephesians 3:16 - that he would grant you, according to the riches of his glory, that you may be strengthened with power through his Spirit in the inward man. -- World English.

John Ankerberg and John Weldon (The Facts on Jehovah’s Witnesses, 1988 edition, page 14) claim that the above verses are impossible to understand if one does not accept the triune God philosophy. Is there really anything in the verse that is impossible to understand without using human imagination so to assume the trinity dogma over the verse? Absolutely not! The scriptures are completely understandable without the necessity of adding what has to be imagined beyond what has been written.

First of all, in order to “see” the triune God in these verses, what does the trinitarian have to imagine, assume, add to, and read into these verses? In Ephesians 3:11 the phrase “he purposed”, the “he” refers back to “God” in Ephesians 3:10. The trinitarian has to conclude that the word “God” in verse 10 does not mean their alleged triune God, but rather only one person.  The trinitarian would, of course, imagine and assume that "God" is referring to what they claim to be "the first person" of their triune God. Thus, they would imagine and assume that Paul is saying:

Ephesians 3:11 according to the eternal purpose which the first of the trinity purposed in the second person of trinity, our Lord;
Ephesians 3:12 in whom [the second person of the trinity] we have boldness and access in confidence through our faith in him [the second person of the trinity].
Ephesians 3:13 Therefore I ask that you may not lose heart at my troubles for you, which are your glory.
Ephesians 3:14 For this cause, I bow my knees to the first person of the trinity who is the Father of our Lord, the second person of the trinity,
Ephesians 3:15 from whom [the trinitarian, however, would have to imagine and assume that it is referring a triune God]  every family in heaven and on earth is named ,
Ephesians 3:16 that he would grant you, according to the riches of the glory of the first person of the trinity, that you may be strengthened with power through the third person of the trinity of the first person of the trinity in the inward man. 

Is all of this necessary? Is there any reason that one would have to add all of the above assumptions to what Paul said in order for what Paul wrote to be understood? Absolutely not! What Paul wrote is completely understandable without adding all the trinitarian assumptions into the verses.

Indeed, throughout the letter to the Ephesians, Paul constantly refers to “God”, not as three persons, but as one person, and he constantly distinguishes “God” from Jesus. Nowhere in the Bible does Paul ever refer to Jesus as the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, the God of Israel. In Ephesians 1:3, Paul identifies “God”, not as three persons, but as one person, saying, “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord, Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in [by means of] Christ.”  Ephesians 4:30 identifies the Holy Spirit, not as “God”, or as a person of God, but as belonging to “God”.

Nowhere is “God” or the “Father” identified as being one of three alleged persons of God, nor is Jesus Christ ever identified as being one of three alleged persons of God, nor is the Holy Spirit of God ever identified as being one of the three alleged persons of God.

Actually, reading triune dogma into the above verses tends to make the verses appear to be confusing. The statement made by Ankerberg and Weldon “that assuming God is not three persons makes it impossible to understand” these verses actually makes no sense since we can certainly understand the verses without adding the trinitarian assumptions to what Paul wrote.

Isaiah 61:1 — The Spirit Of Jehovah On The Anointed One

The Spirit of the Lord Jehovah is on Me, because Jehovah has anointed Me to preach the gospel to the meek. He has sent Me to bind up the broken-hearted, to proclaim liberty to captives, and complete opening to the bound ones; – (Isaiah 61:1, Green’s Literal)

Isaiah 61:1 is often cited by trinitarians as an alleged reference to the trinity in the Old Testament. The claim is that all three alleged persons of the alleged triune God are mentioned in this verse, and thus it is claimed as a reference to the trinity. Actually, there is nothing in the verse at all about the trinity, nor is there any reference to three persons of the alleged trinity.

What we do find is that Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Exodus 3:15), is being presented as one person as He is throughout the Bible. The Messiah is presented, not as being Jehovah, but as the one whom Jehovah anointed and sent. Then the Messiah speaks of Jehovah as "our God" in Isaiah 61:2, thus including himself in the "our", showing that the Messiah has Jehovah as his God. This agrees with Micah 5:4. Jehovah is not presented as three persons, so what the trinitarian has to imagine and assume regarding the verse is that “Jehovah” is not speaking of the three persons of “Jehovah”, but only of the assumed “first person” of their assumed trinitarian dogma, and read their assumption into what is being said.

Then, regarding the one being anointed by Jehovah, they have to imagine and assume that this is really the second person of Jehovah being anointed by the assumed first person of Jehovah, and then they have to add that assumption to and read that assumption into, what is actually said.

Then the trinitarian has to imagine and assume that the spirit which is placed upon the one anointed is one of the imagined and assumed persons of Jehovah. Accepting what they have imagined and assume to be fact, they thus read into Isaiah 61:1 their imagined and assumed trinity concept. 

So what the trinitarian actually presents as evidence of the trinity, is not what is actually said in the scripture, but what has to be presumed upon what is actually stated.

In reality, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Jehovah/Yahweh) is presented here as He is presented throughout both the Old and New Testaments, that is, as one person, and the one anointed by that one person is distinguished from being Jehovah who anointed him. Indeed, in Isaiah 61:2, the Messiah is depicted as referring the Jehovah as "our God". That designates Jehovah of Isaiah 61:1 as only one person, in harmony with Micah 5:4 and Ephesians 1:3.

The spirit of Jehovah is put on the one anointed. The Messiah is anointed by God's Holy Spirit. The expression itself indicates that this is not a person; it is, however, the personal power of the one to whom the spirit belongs. (See Isaiah 11:1-3) There is no indication, here or anywhere else in the Bible, that the personal spirit of Jehovah is a separate and distinct person of Jehovah.

John 20:17,28 - The God of Me

The Incredulity of Saint Thomas. (2022, December 12). In Wikipedia. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Incredulity_of_Saint_Thomas_(Caravaggio)

John 20:17

legei autee ieesous mee mou haptou oupw gar
IS SAYING TO HER JESUS NOT OF ME BE TOUCHING, NOT YET FOR
3004 0846_6 2424 3361 1473_2 0680 0681 3768 1063

anabebeeka pros ton patera poreuou de pros
I HAVE ASCENDED TOWARD THE FATHER; BE GOING BUT TOWARD
0305 4314 3588 3962 4198 1161 4314

tous adelphous mou kai eipe autois anabainw
THE BROTHERS OF ME AND SAY TO THEM I AM ASCENDING
3588 0080 1473_2 2532 1511_7 0846_93 0305

pros ton patera mou kai patera humwn kai theon
TOWARD THE FATHER OF ME AND FATHER OF YOU AND GOD
4314 3588 3962 1473_2 2532 3962 4771_5 2532 2316

mou kai theon humwn
OF ME AND GOD OF YOU.
1473_2 2532 2316 4771_5

John 20:28

apekrithee thwmas kai eipen autw ho kurios mou
ANSWERED THOMAS AND HE SAID TO HIM THE LORD OF ME
061 2381 2532 1511_7 0846_5 3588 2962 1473_2

kai ho theos mou
AND THE GOD OF ME!
2532 3588 2316 1473_2

The expression GOD OF ME appears in both verses. However, in John 20:28, it is not simply "GOD OF ME", but rather it is "THE GOD OF ME". Verse 28 has the definite article before the form of THEOS, whereas in John 20:17, Jesus did not use the definite article. This difference in the Greek text has led to some to believe that this was designed by God to show that Thomas was not speaking to Jesus as being his "God", but rather that Thomas was referring Jesus' God.

If Thomas was referring to only one person in his statement recorded in John 20:28, the Greek would normally have only required the definite article before the Greek word translated as "lord", as can be seen by the words (in the Greek) that Jesus spoke as recorded in John 20:17. However, Thomas did not follow that pattern in his words recorded in John 20:28, for we find the definite article twice, which could indicate that Thomas could have first referred of Jesus as his Lord and then turned to the God of Jesus and acknowledged him as his God.

Trinitarians, however, claim that it was not the Supreme Being who was standing before Thomas, but applying their "dual natures" dogma, they claim that it was the human being Jesus. This would mean, if actually applied to the context, that Thomas addressed the man Jesus as being his Supreme Being!

To read the trinitarian idea into John 20:28 would require that trinitarian separate verse 20 from verse 19. The trinitarian would also need to add to what is written that Jesus had two natures, one nature of being the Supreme Being and another nature of being a human being. The trinitarian would have to further assume that Thomas knew that Jesus had these two natures, so that when he spoke to the one standing before the words recorded in John 20:28, they would imagine and assume that Thomas was not addressing the human Jesus of their alleged "dual natures" as spoken of in verse 27, but rather the Supreme Being Jesus, even though, according to their application of the context, it was not the Supreme Being Jesus standing there before him. Of course, I do not have any reason to scripturally add all the assumptions that trinitarians have made concerning the alleged "dual natures" of Jesus to what God has revealed, for what God has revealed in the Bible is fully in harmony with itself without adding all those assumptions. Additionally, although trinitarians may deny this, if Jesus has two sentiencies, one that is omniscient, and another that is limited to the sentiency of a human being, this would, in effect, mean that Jesus is two beings, one of which is the Supreme Being, and the other which is a human being, at the same time, and that two relative sentiencies would actually result in Jesus' being two persons.

Nevertheless, assuming that Thomas did refer to Jesus when he said "the god of me", it does not follow that we need to imagine and assume that Thomas meant that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and then to further imagine, assume, add to, and read into, what Thomas said that Thomas meant that Jesus was not "God" as Jesus spoke of in John 20:17, but rather imagine and assume that Jesus used the term "God" to mean only one person of "God", and then further imagine and assume that Thomas spoke of Jesus as another person of God. Nor would the possessive usage of the definite article offer any proof that Thomas thought the Supreme Being was standing before him.

We do not find any Biblical tradition for referring to Jesus as "the god of me" (often worded in translations as "my God") or even "the god of us" (often worded as "our God"). In harmony with the rest of the Bible, one should recognize that the Hebrews used the words for "God" not only of the Supreme Being and false gods, but in other ways to denote power, might, strength. Indeed, the basic mean of the Hebrew word often transliterated as EL is strength, might, power, etc. The King James Version can be used to demonstrate this usage in many verses in which the KJV translators rendered forms of the word for "God", not as "God" or "god", but with other words. readily seen by anyone who will carefully note the following texts from the King James Version, in which English translations of forms of the Hebrew word El are in denoted by *..*: “It is in the *power* of my hand.” (Genesis 31:29) “There shall be no *might* in thine hand.” (Deuteronomy 28:32) “Neither is it in our *power*.” (Nehemiah 5:5) “Like the *great* mountains.” (Psalm 36:6) “In the *power* of thine hand to do it.” (Proverbs 3:27) “Pray unto *a god* [mighty one] that cannot save.” (Isaiah 45:20) “Who among the sons of the *mighty*.” (Psalm 89:6) “God standeth in the congregation of the *mighty*.” (Psalm 82:1) “Give unto the Lord [Jehovah] of ye *mighty*.” (Psalm 29:1) “The *mighty* God even the Lord [Jehovah].” (Psalm 50:1) There are other scriptures also that could be used for this. All one need to do to verify the above is to look into the Englishman’s Hebrew and Chaldee Concordance, under Hebrew words #430 and #410. The point is that Thomas, if he did use the Greek word often transliterated as THEOS of Jesus, would more than likely simply making use of such a Hebraism. To render this usage into English as applied to Thomas' words would be something like, "the lord of me and the might of me", or "the lord of me and strength of me", or even "the lord of me and the mighty one of me".

Jesus commended Thomas for his belief concerning Jesus' being resurrected. Jesus did not respond to Thomas by saying that it was good that Thomas recognized him as his God (Supreme Being), as many seem to assume. John stated these things were written, not so that one may believe that Jesus is God (the Supreme Being), but "that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name." -- John 20:31, World English.

There is definitely nothing in John 20:28 that presents Jehovah as being more than one person, or that Jesus is God Almighty, or that Thomas was giving any worship to Jesus as being Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

John 3:13 - Was Jesus Talking About His Ascension? (Working on)

Acts 3:15 - Is the Prince of Life the Almighty Creator?

Acts 3:15 -- and the Prince of the life ye did kill, whom God did raise out of the dead, of which we are witnesses. -- Young's Literal.

Acts 3:15 -- You killed the author of life, the very one whom God raised from the dead. We are witnesses of this. -- Common English Bible.

Acts 3:15 (CSB) And you killed the source of life, whom God raised from the dead; we are witnesses of this. -- Holman Christian Standard Bible.

Some offer Acts 3:15 as a proof of the trinity. It has been claimed that Jesus is the Creator of the universe and thus this is alleged to prove that Jesus is God Almighty, and therefore one of the person of the alleged triune God. Evidently, the phrase "Prince of Life" is being assumed to mean the absolute source of all life, and thus that this would mean that Jesus is God who created the universe.

The word rendered "prince" above is a compound word that roughly means chief or first leader. It can refer to the chief source. It is used again in Acts 5:31 regarding how the one person who is God exalted Jesus. It is used again in Hebrews 2:10, designating Jesus as the first, the pioneer or chief over salvation. It is also used in Hebrews 12:2 in reference to Jesus as being the pioneer and perfecter of the faith of those who belong to Christ. In none of these instances, however, does the usage of this word of Jesus designate Jesus as being his God, Jehovah, or as being a person of his God, Jehovah.

We should note that throughout Acts 3, the word "God" refers to only one person, and Jesus is distinguished from being "God". Indeed, even in Acts 3:15, "God" is referring to only one person. Peter identified Jesus, not as being the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, but as being the servant whom Jehovah raised up as the prophet like Moses. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Acts 3:13-26.

Furthermore, there is no indication that those Jews to whom Peter spoke thought that Peter was speaking of God Almighty. God Almighty does not die! Yet Peter said that the Jews had killed Jesus. Did those Jews kill God Almighty, who does not die? Thus, it would be implausible to think that Peter would be telling the Jews to whom he was speaking that they had killed God Almighty!

Jesus, however, was the first man to live his life in full obedience to God. As such he was the pioneer in bringing life and incorruptibility to light. (1 Timothy 1:10) Since Jesus proved his faithfulness and has been highly exalted by his God, Jehovah (Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Philippians 2:8,9), and since God has given to Jesus the authority and power to give life to others, then Jesus became the source of life for redeemed mankind -- he became the life-giving spirit. -- Matthew 28:19; John 5:19-21,25; 11:25; 14:6; 17:2; 20:31; Romans 5:12-19,21; 6:23; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22,45; 1 Peter 3:19; 1 John 4:9. 

Jesus' being God's instrument in salvation, of course, does not remove Jesus' God (Micah 5:4: Ephesians 1:3) from being the ultimate source of all life. (1 Timothy 6:13; 1 John 5:11) It was Jesus' God, Jehovah (Micah 5:4), the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Acts 3:13), who raised Jesus from the dead, as reported not only in Acts 3:15, but also in Acts 2:24,32,26; 4:10; 10:40; 13:30,33,37; 17:31; Romans 4:24; 8:11; 10:9; 1 Corinthians 6:14; 15:15; Galatians 1:1; Colossians 2:11,12; 1 Thessalonians 1:9,10; 1 Peter 1:21; 3:18; see also Hebrews 5:7.

As is true with all the scriptures trinitarians present as being alleged proof of their trinity doctrine, there is nothing that says that God Almighty is more than one person, or that He is three persons. There is nothing in Acts 3 that means that we need to imagine and assume that God is more than one person and that Jesus is a person of Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, etc.

Exodus 29:45,46 - Did Jehovah Say He Would Become a Man?

Exodus 29:45 - And I will dwell among the children of Israel, and will be their God.
Exodus 29:46 - And they shall know that I am Jehovah their God, that brought them forth out of the land of Egypt, that I might dwell among them: I am Jehovah their God. 

Exodus 29:45,46 has been presented as proof that supposedly Jehovah (Yahweh) had promised to come to earth and live among his people. Evidently, the thought is that Jesus is "Jehovah" who is speaking in these verses, and thus that Jehovah Jesus came to earth to dwell among Israel in the first century.  This is being imagined and assumed in order to support the trinitarian concept that Jehovah (Yahweh) is three persons, and that Jesus is a person of Jehovah.

We definitely find nothing in Exodus 29 that presents Jehovah as being more than one person, or that the promised Messiah would be a person of Jehovah. There is definitely nothing in Exodus 29:45,46 that says that Jehovah will become a human being with a glory lower than the angels.  -- Psalm 8:4,5; Hebrews 2:7,9.

Additionally, there is definitely nothing in these verses that warrant any conclusion that "Jehovah" here is not the same one person who is Jehovah in Deuteronomy 18:15-19. Jehovah, instead of saying that He will come and live on the earth as man, said that he would raise up a prophet like Moses. Peter identifies Jesus, not as being Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, but as being the one whom Jehovah raised up to be a prophet like Moses.  (Acts 3:13-26) The default reasoning is that Jehovah in Exodus 29 is the same one person who is the Messiah's God in Isaiah 61:1,2 and Micah 5:4.

How did Jehovah dwell among the children of Israel? The earlier verses tell us:

Exodus 29:41 - And the other lamb thou shalt offer at even, and shalt do thereto according to the meal-offering of the morning, and according to the drink-offering thereof, for a sweet savor, an offering made by fire unto Jehovah.
Exodus 29:42 - It shall be a continual burnt-offering throughout your generations at the door of the tent of meeting before Jehovah, where I will meet with you, to speak there unto thee.
Exodus 29:43 - And there I will meet with the children of Israel; and the Tent shall be sanctified by my glory. -- See also Exodus 25:22.

From this, we can see that Jehovah was speaking of meeting with his people in the tent. He did not become flesh in order to meet with the children of Israel in the tent, 

Benson:

I will dwell among the children of Israel — As a proof of this the Shechinah, or symbol of his peculiar presence was among them. I will be their God — I will watch over them as a nation, by a peculiar providence, and show myself to be, indeed, that all-powerful and merciful God who delivered them in so miraculous a manner from Egyptian bondage.

Gill:

And I will dwell among the children of Israel,.... In the tabernacle ordered to be built for him, and which, when built, was placed in the midst of the camp of Israel; and here Jehovah dwelt as a king in his palace, near at hand to help, protect, and defend his subjects, and supply them with all things needful for them; see Deuteronomy 4:7.

Indeed, we haven't found any published Biblical commentator that claims that Exodus 29:45,46 is speaking of Jehovah becoming flesh and living upon the earth. To imagine and assume such would be a gross misuse of scripture.

References:
(We do not necessarily agree with all statements given by these authors)
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Benson's Commentary on Exodus 29
Gill's Exposition on Exodus 29

Related Studies:

The Tabernacle (Herald, November/December, 2002)
Three Days Journey (Daniel Kaleta)
The Sanctuary (David Stein)
God's Dwelling Place
Exodus, by Brother Frank Shallieu

For Jehovah Comes

One has presented us with the following: "Look!!! our God and Redeemer, Yahweh Himself has come."

No scripture citation is given, and we have not found any scripture that says the above. This may appear in some translation, but so far, we have not found it, so we are left to guess as to what scripture, if any, is being referred to. 

Evidently, this is presented with the assumption that if Jehovah "has come", that it must be referring to Jesus who came to earth. In other words, it is being imagined, assumed, added to and read into what is written that Jesus is Jehovah (Yahweh), since it was Jesus who came to the earth. The fact is that it was Jehovah, whom Jesus is depicted as referring to as "our God", who sent Jesus to the earth. -- Isaiah 61:1,2; Galatians 4:4; 1 John 4:9.

Nevertheless, Jehovah (Yahweh) came to deliver His people, the children of Israel from bondage in Egypt. (Exodus 3:8) He did this through Moses and Aaron. --- Exodus 3:10; Numbers 33:1; Psalm 77:20; Acts 7:35,36.

Jehovah (Yahweh) later came to examine and bless His people. -- Exodus 20:20,24.

The time is yet future when Jehovah (Yahweh) comes to judge the world. (Psalm 96:13; 98:9) Jehovah is depicted as only one person in Acts 17:22-30. Acts 17:31 reveals that Jehovah comes to judge by means of one who is not Himself, but the one whom He has appointed to judge. John 5:22,27,29,30 reveals that Jesus is the one who acts as Jehovah's agent in judging.

The person further stated: "Let the whole earth rejoice in our God and Redeemer." Again, no scripture citation is given, and we have not been able to ascertain what scripture (if any) is being referred to. The nearest we could find is:

Psalms 96:11 - Let the heavens be glad, and let the earth rejoice; Let the sea roar, and the fulness thereof;
Psalms 96:12 - Let the field exult, and all that is therein; Then shall all the trees of the wood sing for joy
Psalms 96:13 - Before Jehovah; for he cometh, For he cometh to judge the earth: He will judge the world with righteousness, And the peoples with his truth. -- American Standard Version.

The earth today still is under the blinding deceptions of Satan. (2 Corinthians 4:3,4; Revelations 12:9; Romans 8:20) The world is still under the subjection to sun of vanity (Ecclesiastes 1:2,13,14; 2:11), groaning under its bondage of corruption (Romans 8:21,22). Today, only through Christ can one become a son of God who is not under this bondage. (Romans 8:14,15) These can rejoice in hope (Romans 5:2), but even with this rejoicing there is still a groaning, as these sons of God while in this age still need to be delivered from their present body which is yet to be dissolved. -- Romans 8:23-25; 2 Corinthians 5:1.

When God comes to judge the world by means of his Son, however, the veil now over the nations will be destroyed (Isaiah 26:7; 2 Corinthians 4:3,4; Revelation 20:3), and all nations will be able to learn the righteous ways of Jehovah and rejoice in the healing of that time. -- Isaiah 2:2-4; 11:9; 26:9; Revelation 22:2.

Nothing, however, in any of this calls for us to imagine, assume, add to, and read into the scriptures that Jesus is Jehovah, especially since Jehovah is shown to be the God of the Messiah. -- Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3.

John 16:13 - Gender of the Holy Spirit

John 16:7

all egw teen aleetheian legw humin sumpherei
BUT I THE TRUTH AM SAYING TO YOU, IT IS BEARING TOGETHER
0235 1473 3588 0225 3004 4771_6 4851

humin hina egw apelthw ean gar mee
TO YOU IN ORDER THAT I SHOULD GO OFF. IF EVER FOR NOT
4771_6 2443 1473 0565 1437 1063 3361 1437_2

apelthw ho parakleetos ou mee elthee pros
I SHOULD GO OFF, THE PARACLETE NOT NOT WOULD COME TOWARD
0565 3588 3875 3756 3361 2064 4314 3364

humas ean de poreuthw pempsw auton pros
YOU; IF EVER BUT I SHOULD GO, I SHALL SEND HIM TOWARD
4771_7 1437 1161 4198 3992 0846_7 4314

humas
YOU.
4771_7

John 16:13

hotan de elthee ekeinos to pneuma tees
WHENEVER BUT SHOULD COME THAT (ONE), THE SPIRIT OF THE
3752 1161 2064 1565 3588 4151 3588

aleetheias hodeegeesei humas eis teen aleetheian pasan
TRUTH, HE WILL GUIDE YOU INTO THE TRUTH ALL,
0225 3594 4771_7 1519 3588 0225 3956

ou gar laleesei aph heautou all hosa
NOT FOR HE WILL SPEAK FROM HIMSELF, BUT AS MANY (THINGS) AS
3756 1063 2980 0575 1438 0235 3745

akouei laleesei kai ta erchomena
HE IS HEARING HE WILL SPEAK, AND THE (THINGS) COMING
0191 2980 2532 3588 2064

anaggelei humin
HE WILL ANNOUNCE UP TO YOU.
0312 4771_6

John 16:14

ekeinos eme doxasei hoti ek tou emou
THAT (ONE) ME WILL GLORIFY, BECAUSE OUT OF THE (THING) MINE
1565 1473_5 1392 3754 1537 3588 1699

leempsetai kai anaggelei humin
HE WILL RECEIVE AND HE WILL DECLARE TO YOU.
2983 2532 0312 4771_6

-----Westcott & Hort Interlinear, as found on the Bible Students Libary DVD.

John 16:13 is one of the scriptures often cites as proof that God's Holy Spirit is a person, since John spoke of the Holy Spirit as "He" and "him", etc. In Biblical Greek, nouns are most often given some form of gender, either as masculine, feminine or neuter. Adjectives and pronouncs., related to those nouns are also usually given gender according to the gender attributed to the noun being used. Unlike in English, however, the gender does not actually express whether the noun is either a male, a female, or it, etc. An inanimate object may be given a masculine or feminine gender. The Greek word transliterated as pnuema is neuter in gender, which means that the adjectives and pronouns related to pnuema would be neuter in gender, that is, "it". Many translators, however, based on their belief that God's holy spirit is a person of God, have expressed God's Holy Spirit as "he", "him", "who", "whom" rather than "it" "that" or "which" in many verses throughout the New Testament, even though the Greek is neuter, not masculine.

The corresponding word for "spirit" in Hebrew, often transliterated as Ruach, is feminine in gender, and thus all words connected with its usage are also feminine in gender, that is, "she", "her", etc. Biblical Hebrew has no neuter form; everything -- even if it is a non-living object -- is spoken of as either masculine or feminine. In Latin, the corresponding word, "spiritus", is masculine gender, and therefore all words connected with its usage are also usually masculine in gender. One should notice that, unlike English, such usage of gender does not designate whether the spirit is either a male, female, or an inanimate object).

Nevertheless, in John 16:13, the usage is different, since pnuema is used as associated with another word, the word that is usually transliterated as "Parakletos" (John 16:7). Parakletos (https://biblehub.com/greek/3875.htm) is not neuter in gender, but is masculine, and thus it would, in Koine Greek, be accompanied by the masculine forms of adjectives, pronouns and verbs. As the Parakletos (Comforter), then, in Koine Greek, the spirit of truth is accompanied by masculine forms of adjectives, verbs, etc. The most logical reasoning should be that the spirit of truth in John 16:13 is being personified as the parakletos of verse 7. This does not designate the Parakletos as being a male person.

Nevertheless, in 1 John 4:6, the spirit of truth is contrasted with the spirit of error. If we should think of the spirit of truth (John 14:17; 15:26; 16:13) is a person, then, correspondingly, if we are consistent in our reasoning, we should also think that the "spirit of error" is also a person. In reality, "the spirit of truth", although it may be personified, it is not a person, just the same as the "spirit of error" is not a person.

Thus, the English words he, him, himself, used in referring to the spirit of truth as the parakletos, might with equal propriety be translated she, her, herself, or it, itself. In the King James Version, we find that Heautou is rendered "himself" in John 16:13, but it is rendered "itself" in Matthew 12:45; John 15:4; Romans 14:14; and Ephesians 4:16 in the King James Version. Ekienos, rendered "he" in many translations in John 16:3, is often rendered as "that" or "those" in the KJV.

Although the spirit of truth may be viewed as being personified in John 16, such usage does not designate the spirit of truth as being a person. And even if it did, it would not mean that God's Holy Spirit is a person of God, or that God's Holy Spirit is a member of a triune God consisting of three persons, all of whom are alleged individually to be wholly and fully the one true God. Actually, there is nothing in any of this that gives reason to imagine and assume that God's Holy Spirit is a person of God, as trinitarians have assumed. No such thought is ever presented in the Bible anywhere.

References:

Koine Greek: Gender as Classification

Your Guide to Gender in Greek Grammar

An Overview of Greek Grammar

Psalm 83:18 - Is Jesus the Most High?

Psalms 83:18 - That they may know that thou alone, whose name is Jehovah, Art the Most High over all the earth.-- American Standard Version.

It is being claimed that "Jehovah" in this verse is Jesus. Mormons believe that throughout the Old Testament that "Jehovah" is always Jesus, and "Jehovah" is never the Father of Jesus. We still have not found any good explanation of how they apply this assertion in Psalm 83:18, and many other scriptures where it is obvious that Jehovah is not Jesus. Jehovah is certainly shown to be the God of the Messiah in Micah 5:4, as well as Isaiah 61:1,2 (Compare with John 17:1,3; Ephesians 1:3). The default reasoning should be that Jesus is not his God, Jehovah.

Some trinitarians claim that "Jehovah" is Jesus in Psalm 83:18. Evidently what they would read into this verse is that Jehovah is three persons and that this verse "Jehovah" refers to their alleged "second person" of Jehovah, which they believe to be Jesus. They often incorrectly apply many scriptures which they claim confirm their trinitarian assertions, many of which we have already examined elsewhere.

Some oneness believers have also asserted that in Psalm 83:18, that this is Jesus, which according to them, Jesus is the God and Father of Jesus and that Jesus is the Holy Spirit of the Father.

Most of the scriptures wrongly thought to apply the name Jehovah to Jesus have already been examined on our websites.

In reality, we have no scriptural reason to imagine, assume, add to, and read into Psalm 83:18 that Jehovah in this verse is not the same one person/individual who is "Jehovah" in Psalm 2:7; Isaiah 9:7; 11:2,3; 61:1,2 and Micah 5:4. Jehovah is distinguished from being Jesus in all these verses. 

Mormons claim that Jesus never spoke of Jehovah as his Father. Actually, Jehovah of Isaiah 61:1,2, whom Jesus is prophetically depicted as referring to as "our God", is definitely the one whom Jesus addresses as "Father" in John 17:1, and whom he says is the "only true God" who sent him in John 17:3. Additionally, the testimony of Gabriel recorded in Luke 1:32 corresponds to Isaiah 9:7, distinguishing the Lord Jehovah -- the Most High -- from the one to whom the Lord Jehovah gives the throne of David. Jesus is the Son of the Most High as Gabriel stated; Jesus is not the Most High Jehovah of whom he is the Son.

Additionally, it is foretold in Deuteronomy 18:15-19 that the Messiah was to come in the name of Jehovah. Peter distinguishes Jehovah from Jesus in his application of this as recorded in Acts 3:13-26. This is reiterated in Psalm 118:16. Jesus applied this to himself as recorded in Matthew 23:39. Jesus said, in effect, that he did not come in his own name, but rather in the name of his Father who had sent him. (John 5:4,30,36,37) Isaiah 61:1,2 shows that it was the Lord Jehovah whom Jesus said is "our God" who sent him.

It is the one person who is identified in scripture as being Jehovah who has made Jesus both Lord and Christ (Ezekiel 34:23,24; Isaiah 61:1,2; Acts 2:36), and has exalted Jesus to the highest position in the universe, far above the angels, next to the only Most High.-- Acts 2:33,36; 5:31; Philippians 2:9; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; 1 Corinthians 15:27; Hebrews 1:4,6; 1 Peter 3:22.

We do find in the Bible that Jesus is anointed [made christ, the anointed one] and sent by Jehovah, and thus that Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is distinguished from being Jesus. He is not Jehovah who thus anointed him, and who raised Jesus up as the prophet like Moses. It is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, who now speaks through His son. -- Exodus 3:14,15; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 2:26; 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Ezekiel 34:23,24; John 10:29; 17:1,3; Acts 2:23,36; 3:13-26; 4:27; 10:38; Hebrews 1:1.2.9.

We further find that in the Bible, Jesus is the savior of the world whom the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob has sent. (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Isaiah 61:1; Acts 3:13-26; John 3:17; 17:3; 1 John 4:9.10) Likewise, as Jehovah sent many saviors to Israel to deliver Israel (Nehemiah 9:27; Judges 2:16; 3:9-15; 6:13,14; 7:7; 8:22; 13:5; 2 Kings 13:5, 2 Samuel 3:18), so also Jehovah sent His Son to deliver us from sin. We have no scriptural reason to imagine and assume that the fact that Jehovah sent His Son to save us from sin would mean that Jesus is Jehovah.

The scriptures do reveal Jesus is the son of one person who is the Most High, Jehovah. Jesus is never spoken of as the "Most High"; he is not the only Most High Jehovah of whom he is the son. -- Genesis 14:22; Psalm 7:17; 83:18; 92:1; Luke 1:32; John 13:16.

Genesis 3:8 - Was It Really Jesus Whom Adam Heard?

Genesis 3:8

And they heard the voice of Jehovah God walking in the garden in the cool of the day: and the man and his wife hid themselves from the presence of Jehovah God amongst the trees of the garden. -- American Standard Version.

And they hear the sound of Jehovah God walking up and down in the garden at the breeze of the day, and the man and his wife hide themselves from the face of Jehovah God in the midst of the trees of the garden. -- Young's Literal.

And they heard the voice of Jehovah Elohim, walking in the garden in the cool of the day. And Man and his wife hid themselves from the presence of Jehovah Elohim, in the midst of the trees of the garden. -- Darby Translation

They heard the sound of Jehovah God approaching in the garden in the cool of the day, and the man and his wife hid themselves from the presence of Jehovah God among the trees of the garden. -- Restoration Light Improved Version.

There is definitely nothing in this verse that presents "Jehovah God" as being more than one person, nor is there anything in the verse that says anything about God's Son.

Some make the claim that no one can see the first person of the imagined and assumed trinity, which they imagine and assume is being referred to in John 1:18; 5:37; 6:46; 1 Timothy 1:17, but that one can see the second person of the imagined and assumed triune Jehovah, and thus they imagine and assume that only their imagined and assumed first person of "Jehovah" was seen by Adam and Eve, and thus that it had to be their imagined and assumed second person of Jehovah that is spoken of in Genesis 3:8. Of course, none of this in the Bible; all of this has to imagined, assumed, added to, and read into the scriptures.

As can be seen, the Hebrew words are given several different meanings in different translations. Not many of the Protestant commentators see Jesus in this verse. 

BDB gives the meaning of the Hebrew word often transliterated as "qol" (Strong's H963) as sound, voice. BDB gives the meaning of the Hebrew word (often transliterated as "halak", Strong's H1980) rendered as "walking" as "go, come, walk". Obviously, the rendering of the word as "voice" would not agree with the idea of "walking". Have you ever heard a voice walk? A voice could be heard as coming or approaching, but a voice itself does not walk. If the word "voice: is used to render "qol", the word "halak" would best be rendered as coming, or proceeding. If "qol" should be rendered as "sound", the Hebrew word "halak" could be understood as walking, coming, going, etc.

The scripture, actually says nothing about Adam and Eve seeing Jehovah, although they evidently realized his presence (Strong's #6440, panim or paneh, literally meaning face, but often used to signify presence). Nevertheless, even if they had seen some manifestation of Jehovah, it would have been one of the "various ways" spoken of in Hebrews 1:2. He could have appeared by means of one of his angels, or even by means of his firstborn son (Colossians 1:15), but this does not mean that we need to imagine and assume that Jesus is a person of his God, etc.

The fact is that Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15) is nowhere in the Bible presented as being more than one person. Jehovah is presented as only one person in Deuteronomy 18:15-19 and is distinguished from being Jesus, who is the prophet like Moses that the one person who is Jehovah promised to raise up among the children of Israel. Peter makes this plain by his words as recorded n Acts 3:13-26. Micah 5:4 tells us that the promised Messiah was to stand and feed the sheep in the name and strength of his God, Jehovah. The default reasoning should not be to imagine, assume, add to, and read into the scriptures that Jehovah is more than one person that the God of the Messiah is only the first person of Jehovah, etc., but rather that Jesus is not Jehovah his God.

See also our study: Jesus is Not Jehovah (Yahweh)

Exodus 23:20,21,25 - God's Angel Before Israel

Exodus 23:20 - "Behold, I send an angel before you, to keep you by the way, and to bring you into the place which I have prepared." -- World English.

This scripture is being presented by some trinitarians as supposedly a reference to their added-on trinity dogma. In reality, Jehovah is presented as only one person, and it is the one person who is Jehovah who sent the angel to guide Israel. The default reasoning is that the angel whom Jehovah sent is not Jehovah who sent him. There is nothing in the verse that says that Jehovah is more than one person. Indeed, it is Jehovah who is speaking, who says he sent this angel; thus the default reasoning should be that this angel is not Jehovah Himself. Any thought that this angel is one of three persons all of whom are Jehovah has to be assumed beyond what is stated, added to what is stated, and read into what is stated.

Many combine this scripture with Malachi 3:1, where Jesus is referred to as the angel of the covenant, and in some vague manner apply the word "before" in that verse with the word "before" in Exodus 23:20, and evidently reason that this is proof that the angel in Exodus 23:20 is the Messiah, Jesus. In reality, the application of Malachi 3:1 is totally different from the application in Exodus 23:20. The combining of two scriptures in this manner is not "rightly dividing the word of truth." -- 2 Timothy 2:15, King James Version.

Many Bible Students, however, do believe that this angel was Jesus, as the prehuman Logos, the Son of God. The reality is, however, that no scripture actually presents Jesus as being one of Jehovah's angels. Nevertheless, if this angel was the prehuman son of Jehovah, this would still not mean that we need to imagine and assume that the verse is speaking of any alleged second person of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, as many trinitarian advocates claim. 

Exodus 23:21 - Pay attention to him, and listen to his voice. Don't provoke him, for he will not pardon your disobedience, for my name is in him. 

Jehovah's name -- authority from Jehovah -- was in the angel since Jehovah sent this angel and the angel did the work that Jehovah gave him to do. Jehovah directs the children of Israel to heed what the angel says, for what the angel says is what Jehovah Himself is directing the angel to say. (Exodus 23:21,22) Jehovah again refers to this angel as "my angel" in verse 23, again showing that the angel is not Jehovah Himself, but an angel whom Jehovah sent.

Some claim, based on what is said in Exodus 23:21, that this angel has the authority to pardon transgression, and evidently this is supposed to mean that the angel must be Jehovah, and therefore a person of Jehovah. Actually, what is said in Exodus 23:21 is that this angel "will not pardon your disobedience." It does not say that the angel has been given authority to pardon anyone. Nevertheless, the angel could have been given authority to pardon transgressions; his being given any such authority does not mean that we need to imagine, assume, add to, and read into the scripture that this angel is Jehovah, and further imagine, assume, add to, and read into the scripture that God is more than one person, etc.  Any authority the angel had is in fact that which was given to him and was not inherent to his being.

John 17:11

Some try to tie Exodus 23:20,21 with John 17:11, which they evidently read as saying that Jesus made the claim that God's name was given to Jesus. What Jesus actually prayed for was that Jehovah would keep his followers (whom/whoever Jehovah had given to him) in the name of his God and Father. In other words, "Keep them, whoever you have given me, in your name." This corresponds with Ezekiel 34:23, where Jehovah says that he set up "one shepherd" over his sheep. By his words recorded in John 10:16 and in its context, Jesus was declaring himself to be this one true --the genuine -- shepherd of his Father's sheep. (John 10:29) Nevertheless, if it is thought that Jesus is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, because the name Jehovah was given to Jesus, this would actually mean that Jesus was not Jehovah until his God gave to Him the Holy Name, which really doesn't make sense.

Nevertheless, was the name of Jesus' God in Jesus? Yes, in the sense that Jesus came in the name of Jehovah, his God, and he stands and feeds the sheep in the name of Jehovah, his God and Father. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 118:26; Micah 5:4; Matthew 21:9; 23:13,39; Mark 11:9,10,26; 13:35; Luke 13:35; 19:38; John 5:43; 10:25; 12:13; Ephesians 1:3.

Exodus 23:25 - And ye shall serve Jehovah your God, and he will bless thy bread, and thy water; and I will take sickness away from the midst of thee.  -- American Standard Version.

According to some, the above speaks of two different persons as being Jehovah, since Jehovah refers to Himself as "he" and also "I". The reasoning appears to be that since Jehovah speaks of Himself in both the third person and second person in the same sentence, we thus need to imagine, assume, add to, and read into the scripture that Jehovah is more than one person, etc. Actually, there is no reason to imagine and assume anything beyond what is written related to Exodus 23:25 as in Exodus 31:17, where Jehovah again speaks of himself in the first and third person.

The more logical reasoning should be that Jehovah spoke of Himself in the third person to emphasize that was indeed He, and not a false god or some man, who gives this blessing.

Nothing in any of this actually gives us reason to conjure up and presume that this angel is a person of Jehovah, or even that this angel is Jesus, although we can say that the latter is a possibility, if it is so, the Bible says nothing about this angel or any other angel of Jehovah as being Jesus. Definitely, there is nothing in these verses, or any place else in the Bible, about a triune God, or that God is three persons, etc.

Revelation 5:13,14 - The Elders Fell Down and Worshiped

The above scriptures are sometimes presented as proof of the trinity, evidently assuming the two persons of the alleged trinue God are being worshipped by the elders.

However, it is not specifically stated who the elders worshipped. It could be that they worshipped the God of Jesus, as in Revelation 7;11. In other words, they could have fallen down to worship "Him who sits on the throne", which is the only true God, the God of Jesus, as we have shown in our study: God, Who Was, Is and Is to Come.

However, even if the elders did fall down and give worship to Jesus, it does not mean that we need to imagine and assume that they were worshiping the Lamb as being God Almighty. Some trinitarians have claimed that the worship is given equally to God and the Lamb, and that this thus means that the Lamb is presented as being a person of God, etc. Again, such is not stated, and even if the Lamb is included in being worshiped, this would not mean that anyone was giving worship to Jesus as being God Almighty any more than when the people worshiped Jehovah and the king as recorded in 1 Chronicles 29:20 means that the king was being worshiped as being Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

Any thought that there is anything in Revelation 5:13,14 about a triune God has to be imagined and assumed beyond what is stated, added to what is stated, and read into what is stated. Indeed, it would call for many assumptions that would have to also be imagined beyond what is written and those assumptions would be to be added to and read into what is stated.

Links to some of our studies related to the Worship of Jesus

*******

Acts 4:12 – The Only Name Given By Which We Are Saved

The question has been asked, If the name “Jehovah/Yahweh” is so important, then why does Acts 4:12 say, “There is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name [v10 Jesus Christ] under heaven that has been given among men, by which we must be saved”? Would this not have been the logical place for God to have used the name “Jehovah”?

Acts 4:12 in the World English reads:

There is salvation in none other, for neither is there any other name under heaven, that is given among men, in [Greek, Strong’s #1722, instrumental “en”, by means of] which we must be saved!

From the Westcott & Hort Interlinear:

Acts 4:12
kai ouk estin en allw oudeni hee swteeria oude
AND NOT IS IN OTHER NO ONE THE SALVATION, NEITHER
2532 3756 1510_2 1722 0243 3762 3588 4991 3761

gar onoma estin heteron hupo ton ouranon to
FOR NAME IS DIFFERENT UNDER THE HEAVEN THE
1063 3686 1510_2 2087 5259_5 3588 3772 3588

dedomenon en anthrwpois en hw dei
HAVING BEEN GIVEN IN MEN IN WHICH IT IS NECESSARY
1325 1722 0444 1722 3739 1163

swtheenai heemas
TO BE SAVED US.
4982 1473_95

There is nothing in Acts 4:12 that robs the Holy Name of the Most High of its importance. The name “Jesus” is “given among men” from the God and Father of Jesus (Ephesians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3) as the name by which men must be saved. As an office, the God and Father of Jesus has exalted the name of Jesus above every name (Philippians 2:9), excluding that name (office, position) which only belongs to the Most High. (1 Corinthians 15:27) Nothing in the scripture says that the name of Jesus replaces the importance of the name of His God, Jehovah. -- Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3.

Jesus was sent by his God, Jehovah, speaks for his God Jehovah, and represents his God Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Acts 3:13-26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.

Some, however, would claim that Jehovah speaks of Himself as being the "only savior", and from this they reason that Jesus must Jehovah, since --  according to their reasoning -- there is only "one savior." Actually, the Scriptures say that there is no savior (or salvation) besides (apart from) him. (Isaiah 43:10) Jehovah sent many saviors to Israel, but these saviors were not besides (apart from) Jehovah. (Nehemiah 9:27) Likewise, Jehovah sent his firstborn son to be the savior of the world. Since Jesus was sent by his God, Jehovah, he was not a savior besides (apart from) his God, Jehovah.  -- Isaiah 61:1,2; John 3:17; 8:42; 10:36; 17;3; Galatians 4:4; 1 John 4:9,10.

Jesus receives his power and strength from Jehovah, his God. — Psalm 2:2,7,8; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 61:1; Micah 5:4; Luke 1:32; Jeremiah 23:5; Daniel 7:13,14; John 17:1,3; Acts 2:36; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Hebrews 1:2,6.

As shown in the Interlinear above, the Greek word transliterated as “EN” is instrumental. Jesus is the only instrument that God uses to pay the price necessary to deliver man from the condemnation in Adam, thus it is only logical that Paul would say that there is no other name by means of which we are saved. In other words, the only Most High is the ultimate savior, Jesus is the instrument that the Most High uses to bring salvation. 

References:

Links to Studies Related to Jesus as "Savior"

Links to Studies Related to God's Holy Name

https://biblehub.com/greek/1722.htm

Matthew 19:16-22, Mark 10:17-22, Luke 18:18-23 - Agathos

Was Jesus claiming to be God Almighty in his words recorded in Matthew 19:16-22, Mark 10:17-22, or Luke 18:18-23? Was he claiming that he was not God Almighty?

The word-for-word translation of Matthew 19:17 as presented from the Westcott and Hort Interlinear without the added words and punctuation:

THE BUT SAID TO HIM WHY ME ASK ABOUT THE GOOD ONE IS THE GOOD IF BUT YOU ARE WILLING INTO THE LIFE TO ENTER BE OBSERVING THE COMMANDMENTS

The word-for-word translation of Mark 10:18 as presented from the Westcott and Hort Interlinear without the added punctuation:

THE BUT JESUS SAID TO HIM WHY ME YOU ARE SAYING GOOD NO ONE GOOD IF NOT ONE THE GOD

The word-for-word rendering of Luke 18:19, without the added punctuation:

SAID BUT TO HIM THE JESUS WHY ME YOU ARE SAYING GOOD NOT ONE GOOD IF NOT ONE THE GOD

These verses are often referred to by trinitarians, oneness believers, and some others as being proof that Jesus was claiming that he is God Almighty. Non-trinitarians often refer to Jesus' words as proof that Jesus is not God Almighty. Not all trinitarians use these verses as proof that Jesus is God. Many do realize that Jesus was simply discussing the point of goodness as being from God. We believe that there is nothing in these verses that either supports that Jesus is God Almighty, or that Jesus is not God Almighty. The discussion was not about whether Jesus was God Almighty, nor was Jesus' reply meant to say that he was claiming to be God Almighty, or that he was disclaiming to be God Almighty. What Jesus said in the Greek text does not actually state, as many claim, that only God is good, although it could certainly be said that Jesus was saying God is the source of goodness, and this would imply indirectly that as the source of goodness, only God is good, and that anyone else who is good is of God. Jesus was evidently, in effect, stating, "I am with the Father who sent me." (John 8:18) Jesus, rather than claiming to be God, consistently claimed to have learned from God, from God, sent by God, delivering the words of his God, doing the works of his God, and in obedience to his God (Matthew 10:40; Mark 9:37; Luke 4:18 [see Isaiah 61:1,2],  Luke 9:48; 10:16; John 4:34; 5:24,30,36,37; 6:29,33-40,44,57; 7:16.17,28,29,33; 8:16,18,26,28,40,42; 9:4; 10:36; 11:42; 12:44,45,49; 13:3,20; 14:24; 15:21; 16:5,27; 17:8,21,23,25; 20:21), and Matthew 19:16-22, Mark 10:17-22, Luke 18:18-23 should be understood in harmony with this. 

Nevertheless, there is definitely nothing in Matthew 19:16-22, Mark 10:17-22, or Luke 18:18-23 that presents the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as being more than one person, nor does Jesus say he is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, as many trinitarians, oneness believers, and some others like to imagine, assume and read into his words.

However we may understand these verses, it must be in harmony with Isaiah 61:1,2; Micah 5:4; John 17:1,3; Acts 3:13-26; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Hebrews 1:1,2, and many other scriptures. Jesus, in effect, was claiming to be what he had elsewhere claimed to be, the one whom Jehovah sent, the Messiah. Jesus speaks the words given to him from the only true Supreme Being. 1 Corinthians 8:6 definitely distinguishes Jesus from the "one God" of whom are all. Hebrews 1:1,2 distinguishes Jesus from being the God who spoke through his prophets Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Not once in any scripture is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob presented as being more than one person or individual, and not once is Jesus presented as being a person of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. -- Exodus 3:13,14; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Isaiah 61:1; John 3:34; 5:19; 6:29; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,42; 10:36; 12:44-50; 14:10,24; 17:1,3,8; Acts 3:13-26; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Galatians 4:4; 1 John 4:9,10.

While Jesus was not denying that he was good, he did acknowledge that his God is the source of his goodness. He was certainly not saying that no one else in the universe is good except his God and Father. Such would have meant that he was claiming that no one else in the universe is "good". It would also mean that the word "good" could not be used of anyone in the Bible except that the person be God Almighty. The Greek word that Jesus used for "good" is often transliterated as agathos. Was Jesus here saying that the word transliterated "agathos" (Strong's G18) above could not be used of anyone but God Almighty? Obviously not, since Jesus and others use the word "agathos" of many persons other than the one true God. (Matthew 5:45; 12:35; 25:21,23; Luke 6:45; 8:15; 19:17; 23:50; Acts 11:24; 2 Corinthians 5:10; 9:8; Galatians 6:10; Ephesians 2:10; 4:28,29; 6:8; Philippians 1:6; Colossians 1:10; 2 Thessalonians 2:17; 1 Timothy 1:5,19; 5:10; Titus 2:5; 3:1; Philemon 1:14; Hebrews 13:21; 1 Peter 2:18; 3:11,13,21; 3 John 1:11) The "good" in all of but God, however, is due what they have received from God; likewise with Jesus.

Some like to point to John 10:11,14 as being proof that Jesus was claiming to be God Almighty since Jesus stated that he was the Good Shepherd. Jesus, however, did not use the word "agathos" in John 10:11,14, but rather he used the word often transliterated as "kalos" (Strong's G2570). The word has different meanings, and should be applied according to context. One of the meanings of this word is "genuine". In the context, we believe Jesus was saying that he was the "genuine shepherd" appointed by Jehovah as opposed to the false shepherds who had not actually been given the sheep. The sheep of Jesus are given to him from the one person who is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Jehovah is the Most High Shepherd; Jesus is the "genuine" (Kalos, Strong's #2570) shepherd appointed over the sheep by the Most High Shepherd, as opposed to the false shepherds. The Most High Shepherd Jehovah judges His sheep through, by means of the genuine shepherd whom he has appointed. -- Psalm 23:1; 96:13; 98:9; Ezekiel 34:2-24; John 5:22,23; 10:11-17,29; Acts 10:42; 17:31; Romans 2:16; 14:10; 1 Corinthians 4:5; 2 Corinthians 5:10.

Matthew 19:16-22, Mark 10:17-22, or Luke 18:18-23, however, were written in Koine Greek which uses syntax that is often a lot different from what we use in English. Sometimes a translation that is too literal may lose the intent of what is being said, as well as fail to harmonize what is said with other scriptures, and thus the scriptures could seem to be contradicting each other. Nevertheless, it is also possible that the translator may misunderstand what is being said, and add words or give a definition based on his misunderstanding. At any rate, Jesus must have been presenting to the rich young man a statement to show who is the source of all goodness, even Jesus' own goodness. He more than likely wanted the young man to know that he was not "good" of himself, that all goodness comes from his God and Father. (Ephesians 1:3) Jesus, of course, never fell short of the glory of his God through sin; he was always 100% obedient to his God and Father. (Romans 3:23; 2 Corinthians 5:21; 1 Peter 2:22-24; 1 John 3:5) Jesus' body of flesh was prepared especially for him aside from the condemnation through Adam that is upon all men. (Romans 5:12-19; Hebrews 10:5) Thus, although Jesus suffered as though he was a sinner, he was not actually of sinful flesh, but through his obedience to his God, he showed that a sinless man could remain obedient, thereby condemning sin the flesh. (Romans 8:3) The rich young ruler was referring to Jesus as "Good Teacher," thus, Jesus was letting him know that if he (Jesus) is "good", then he must be who He claimed to be, the promised Son of the Man, David, whom God sent (Isaiah 61:1; Matthew 10:40; Mark 9:37; Luke 4:18; 9:48; 10:16; John 4:34; 5:24,30,36,37; 6:38,39,44,57; 7:16,28,29,33; 8:16,18,26,29,42; 9:4; 11:42; 12:44,45,49; 13:20; 14:24; 15:21; 16:5; 17:1,3,8,18,21,23,25), for apart from God, no one is "good."

Although we do not believe Jesus was claiming to be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as do the some of the authors of the work we quote below, we do believe these comments are correct:

What he [the rich young ruler] might have seen and failed to see was that the good desires of which he was conscious in himself, and the good words and works which he recognized in Christ, all came from God. The man was too self-confident, too certain that of his own will and power he could do what would win eternal life. Christ, by attributing His own goodness entirely to God (John 5:9-30) cheeks this self-confidence. -- "Commentary on Mark 10". "Cambridge Greek Testament for Schools and Colleges". https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/cgt/mark-10.html. 1896.

John Meggison states:

Paraphrased this answer would mean: “Is this merely a mark of courtesy? Or do you recognize the fact that there is only one standard of goodness, which is represented by God the Father, and that therefore in calling me good you are recognizing not only this divine standard but me as a teacher whom God approves.” Doubtless our Lord’s words were calculated to set the young man thinking -- “This teacher claims to be of God, his claim is either true or false; he is therefore a true prophet or a false one. I have called him Good Master. If I have been sincere, if this is the result of my previous investigation of his teachings, I ought to be willing to accept whatever answer he gives me as of divine direction, and obey promptly.”

Carl Hagensick (not a trinitarian):

When a rich ruler approached Jesus, calling him "Good Master," Jesus answered, "why callest thou me good? There is none good but one, that is, God." It is unclear whether Jesus was here denying his own essential goodness, or challenging the ruler to realize that if he used that epithet for Jesus, he must also recognize him as the Messiah. In either case, it is obvious that to be completely objectively good is above the capabilities of mortal man.

In the first chapter of Genesis the word "good" is used six times to describe God’s evaluation of each progressive creative day. Here the sense of the word is "perfect." Thus "goodness" and "perfection" are closely related concepts. That which qualifies a work as perfect is revealed in Deuteronomy 32:4, "His work is perfect, for all his ways are just" (NAS).

Our goodness is only a reflection of God’s goodness. This is borne out in 2 Thessalonians 1:11, "Wherefore also we pray always for you, that our God would count you worthy of this calling, and fulfil all the good pleasure of his goodness, and the work of faith with power."

http://www.heraldmag.org/1998/98so_6.htm

See also our study:
Does the Law Covenant Give Everlasting Life?

Jesus Has a God

Did you know that Jesus himself has a God, a Supreme Being, who is Supreme over him?

(Scriptures from the American Standard Version unless stated otherwise.)

Micah 5:4 - And he shall stand, and shall feed his flock in the strength of Jehovah, in the majesty of the name of Jehovah his God: and they shall abide; for now shall he be great unto the ends of the earth.

Matthew 27:46 - And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

Mark 15:34 - And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

John 20:17 - Jesus saith to her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended unto the Father: but go unto my brethren, and say to them, I ascend unto my Father and your Father, and my God and your God.

Romans 15:6 - that with one accord ye may with one mouth glorify the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.

2 Corinthians 1:3 - Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of mercies and God of all comfort.

Ephesians 1:3 - Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ.

Ephesians 1:17 - that the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you a spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him.

Colossians 1:3 - We give thanks to God the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, praying always for you.

1 Peter 1:3 - Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who according to his great mercy begat us again unto a living hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead.

Revelation 3:2 - Be thou watchful, and establish the things that remain, which were ready to die: for I have found no works of thine perfected before my God.

Revelation 3:12 - He that overcometh, I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go out thence no more: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God, and mine own new name.

Prophetically, Jesus is depicted as referring to the Lord Jehovah as "our God" in Isaiah 61:1,2. He includes himself in "our". He does something similar when he includes himself as a member of the children of Israel and speaks of Jehovah as being the God of the children of Israel. -- Matthew 4:7,10; Luke 4:8,12.

One states, however, that we assume unitarianism. There is not much to assume, since no scripture at any time ever presents any idea that Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is more than one person, etc. The real assumer is the trinitarian, who keeps creating assumption after assumption in order to have their doctrine appear to be supported by scripture.  There is no scriptural reason at all to imagine and assume that the "one God of whom are all" is more than one person. Indeed, he is presented as being only one person in 1 Corinthians 8:6. We have no scriptural reason at all to imagine, assume, add to, and read into, the scriptures that Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is more than one person. The default scriptural reasoning is that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is only one person, not to imagine, assume, add to, and read into, the scriptures that he is more than one person.

From Genesis to Revelation, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15), is presented as only one person who raised up the prophet like Moses from among the sons of Israel, and who raised that prophet from death. (Deuteronomy 18:15-20; Acts 3:13-26; Hebrews 1:1,2) The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is not even once presented as being more than one person at all anywhere in the Bible.

Nowhere in the Bible is Jesus presented as being the "one God of whom are all." (1 Corinthians 8:6) Only the God and Father of Jesus is ever presented as being the "one God of whom are all."

Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus (Ephesians 1:3), is the only one who is the source of all (1 Corinthians 8:6), and hence the only one person who is the Supreme Being, Jehovah is He who anointed and sent Jesus (Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3), prepared a body of flesh for Jesus (Hebrews 10:5), and made Jesus a little lower than the angels so that Jesus could offer that body of flesh with its blood to Jehovah his God for our sins. -- Matthew 26:26-28; Luke 22:19; Romans 3:25; Colossians 1:14; Ephesians 5:2; Hebrews 2:9; 9:14; 10:10; 1 Peter 2:24; 3:18; 1 John 1:7; Revelation 1:5.

Yes, the default reasoning is that Jesus is not Jehovah, in whose strength and name he stands and feeds the sheep who his God, Jehovah, has given to him. -- Ezekiel 34:2-24; Micah 5:4; John 10:11-17,29; 17:1,3,6,9; Ephesians 1:3.

Blessed be the one person who spoke to and through his prophets of old, the God and Father of our Lord Jesus. -- Hebrews 1:1,2.

It is claimed that if we "do not embrace the Trinity this place [sic] is you outside of the Christian church."

Believing the son of the one person who is the God and Father of Jesus died for our sins, and that the one person who is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, raised Jesus from death, even though the trinitarian sectarian leadership may proclaim that those who believe are not part of their created sectarian church, it definitely does not mean that our Lord and Savior and his God does not recognize us as enrolled in heaven as a member of HIS church. -- Acts 3:13-26; Romans 10:9; 14:4; 2 Corinthians 5:10; Hebrews 12:23.

More to be added later, God willing.

Acts 7:55-59 - Stephen Saw God's Glory

Acts 7:55 - But he, being full of the Holy Spirit, looked up steadfastly into heaven, and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing on the right hand of God,
Acts 7:56 - and said, "Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God!"
Acts 7:57 - But they cried out with a loud voice, and stopped their ears, and rushed at him with one accord.
Acts 7:58 - They threw him out of the city, and stoned him. The witnesses placed their garments at the feet of a young man named Saul.
Acts 7:59 -They stoned Stephen as he called out, saying, "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit!"  - World English.

It is sometimes claimed that in these verses, the alleged three persons of the alleged Trinity are seen.

 One states:

All three persons of the Trinity are present in this narrative, although God mainly functions as a reference point for Jesus. Jesus is shown as having divine standing, the ability to receive souls and forgive sins. The Holy Spirit reveals divine visions to those who are faithful.

The real truth is that throughout Acts 7, the word "God" refers to only one person. He is not presented as being three persons, nor is Jesus presented as being his God, Jehovah. No scripture presents Jesus' God, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Isaiah 61:1,2; Micah 5:4; Acts 3:13-26; Ephesians 1:3), as being more than one person, nor does any scripture present Jesus as being his God, Jehovah.

The scripture does not say that Stephen actually saw God, since no man can see God (John 1:18; 1 John 4:12), but he did, evidently by means of a vision or some other form of revelation, see the glory of God. 

Since Jesus is nowhere in the Bible depicted as being the "one God" of whom are all, and since Paul distinguishes Jesus from the "one God" of whom are all by telling us that Jesus is the "one Lord" through whom are all,  (1 Corinthians 8:6) the default reasoning should be that Jesus is not Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, who is the "one God" of whom are all.

Jesus receives authority to forgive sins from his God, Jehovah. -- Micah 5:4; Matthew 9:8.

Jesus receives his divine standing in heaven from his God, Jehovah. -- Micah 5:4; Psalm 110:1; Acts 2:33; 5:31; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Philippians 2:9-11.

Indeed, all that Jesus says and does is not of himself, but is from his God, Jehovah. The one person who is God in Acts 7:55 performs His work through Jesus. -- Isaiah 11:2,3; 61:1,2; Micah 5:4; Acts 17:22-30; 1 Corinthians 8:6, As Jesus said, "I can of myself do nothing." -- John 5:30.

Jesus' God is the source of life to us, but the only way we can be reconciled to Jesus' God is through Jesus and his sacrificial death. -- John 14:6; Romans 5:10; 2 Corinthians 5:18; Colossians 1:21,22.

As the instrument of his God, Jesus has given to us the words of life from his God and Father. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Isaiah 61:1,2; Micah 5:4; John 1:18; 3:34; 5:19; 6:63; 7:16,28; 8:26,42; 12:44-50; 14:10,24; 17:2,3,6; Acts 3:13-26; 1 John 5:20.

As with all scriptures often presented to support the triune God concept, that concept has to be added to and read into what is actually stated in acts 7:55-59.

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