The Logos was with the only true Supreme Being in the beginning. (John 17:3,5) Here we see beautifully the close relationship existing in the very remote past between the heavenly Father and the heavenly Son. This also sets the context for the phrase that follows.
The final part of John 1:1 reads from the Westcott & Hort Interlinear (as found on the Bible Students' Library CD): KAI THEOS EEN HO LOGOS = AND GOD WAS THE WORD.
Was John here telling us that the Logos was the very God whom he was with in the beginning? Even most trinitarian scholars would not say this. Trinitarians usually do not wish to be understood as believing that Jesus is the Father. However, if the above meaning should be given to the phraseology used in the Greek text, then the only conclusion one could reach is that Jesus is the Father. Such would mean that Jesus was the One whom he was with him in the beginning of the world of mankind. (John 17:5; John 1:1,2) On the other hand, many of our neighbors who believe in the “oneness” teaching believe that Jesus is the Father; thus, they may be willing to have this scripture say that the Logos was the very God with whom he was. The most straightforward understanding of this verse, we believe, is in the context of the usage of “theoi” (the plural of “theos”), as Jesus used it in John 10:34,35. Thus, Theos, as applied to the Logos in John 1:1, should be read in the light of the Hebraic Old Testament background and usage, not according to Greek philosophy or the later-developed trinitarian dogma with its unique but often vague definitions of terms. Actually, the trinitarian definitions have to be aded to and read back into the scriptures, and then not applied consistently.
Probably no other phrase in the Bible is more disputed than this phrase. Translations of this phrase usually take one of the following three forms: (1) “and the Word was God”; (2) “and the Word had the same nature as God”, or, “and the Word was divine”, or “and what God was, the Word was”, or “he was the same as God”; (3) “and the word was a god”. Before we begin, we might state that each translation has some support, and each translation has some weaknesses. We should also note that none of the translations should be viewed as being exactly what John said, since John did not write in English, but in Greek. The translations should be viewed as translators' renderings, according to what they believe John meant to say, rather than what he actually said. We will discuss each view with pros and cons.
Translation #1: “and the Word was God”
This is often the preferred translation by many trinitarians, even though it tends to make the Word the Father, which they deny. Some point to what has come to be called Colwell's Rule concerning the absence of the definite article before the word theos. The Rule states: “In sentences in which the copula is expressed, a definite predicate nominative has the article when it follows the verb; it does not have the article when it precedes the verb.” (E. C. Colwell, “A Definite Rule for the Use of the Article in the Greek New Testament,” Journal of Biblical Literature 52, 1933, page 20; See Summary at: http://searchpdf.adobe.com/proxies/0/12/10/96.html)
Many have misused this rule by claiming that it states that whenever the predicate noun precedes the verb, it is understood to be definite, which is not what Colwell said. According to Donald E. Hartley of Dallas Theological Seminary: “Both orthodox and otherwise utilize Colwell's rule to promote not only different but contradictory interpretations of this passage -- obviously contradictory interpretations cannot at the same time and in the same way be true. Adding to this problem, otherwise careful scholars misstate and misunderstand Colwell's rule.” (
Revisiting the Colwell Construction in Light of Mass/Count Nouns, Donald E. Hartley, 1998) Colwell did his study mainly in an effort to disprove that the usage of theos in the phrase we are discussing was due to Hebraic influence. His contention was that this usage of theos in John 1:1 had to do with NT Greek grammar, not any Hebraic influence. Several scholars (both trinitarian and non-trinitarian) have found some fault with Colwell's methods and his conclusions. As to Colwell's rule, we will reproduce a quote from a website:
A definite predicate nominative has the article when it follows the verb; it does not have the article when it precedes the verb. . . . The opening verse of John's Gospel contains one of the many passages where this rule suggests the translation of a predicate as a definite noun. The absence of the article [before theos] does not make the predicate indefinite or qualitative when it precedes the verb; it is indefinite in this position only when the context demands it. The context makes no such demand in the Gospel of John, for this statement cannot be regarded as strange in the prologue of the gospel which reaches its climax in the confession of Thomas [John 20:28, “My Lord and my God”]. (E. C. Colwell, “A Definite Rule for the Use of the Article in the Greek New Testament,” Journal of Biblical Literature, LII (1933), 12-21. Cf. also B. M. Metzger, “On the Translation of John 1:1,” Expository Times, LXIII (1951-52), 125 f., and C. F. D. Moule, The Language of the New Testament, Inaugural Lecture, delivered at Cambridge University on May 23, 1952, pp. 12-14.)
The quote above is quoted as proof that Jesus is divine [with the meaning of uncreated, etc.]. However, notice very carefully that it says that “the absence of the article before Theos does not make the predicate indefinite or qualitative when it precedes the verb; it is indefinite in this position only when the context demands it.” Then, upon the assumption that John is presenting in a context that Jesus is God Almighty throughout, the author states: “The context makes no such demand in the Gospel of John, for this statement cannot be regarded as strange in the prologue of the gospel which reaches its climax in the confession of Thomas [John 20:28].” In other words, the author is assuming that the context of the whole book of John supports the idea that Jesus is God Almighty; thus, because of this, there is no question that theos applied to the Logos in John 1:1 is definite, and then from this one would further assume that John is showing that Jesus is God Almighty. It is circular reasoning: “We believe that John, in context, is saying that Jesus is God Almighty, thus this must be what it means in John 1:1, and therefore, John 1:1 proves that Jesus is God Almighty.” Whether the context demands that it be definite, qualitative, or indefinite, in reality, ultimately depends on how one interprets what John was saying. Was John saying what later theologians claimed, or was he simply using a Hebraic expression, and emphasizing this by stating that the Logos was with Ton Theon? Using the Hebraic background for the usage of EL and ELOHIM would be the simplest way to explain this; trying to force the idea that John was saying that the Logos was in fact the Supreme Being only confuses the matter, which confusion led to the formulation of the trinitarian tale of three persons in one God.
Thus, since the word “theos” in the phrase “the Word was God [theos]” is not preceded by the article “ho” (the God), as are the other two uses of theos in verses 1 and 2, it can be understood as an adjective rather than a noun; “the Word was mighty”, which would be our preferred way to translate the phrase. Theos is the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew word “elohim” which can mean “mighty” as shown in the King James Version in Genesis 30:8; 1 Samuel 14:15, and as applied to Moses in Exodus 7:1. It can also be translated from the Hebrew word *el*, which likewise is translated in the King James Version as “might”, “mighty”, “power”, “great”, etc. (Genesis 31:29; Deuteronomy 28:32; Nehemiah 5:5; Psalm 36:6; Psalm 29:1; 82:1; 89:6 -- see below) Thus we believe the proper thought of John 1:1 should be: In the beginning was the LOGOS and the LOGOS was with TON THEON, and the Logos was mighty.
Translation #3: “and the Word was a god”
Of all the translations, this is probably the most controversial, as to many English readers this would be tantamount to belief in polytheism. However, one has to understand that the Hebrew words for “god” and “gods” [especially, EL and ELOHIM] are applied to men and angels who are in power, as well as other usages. Thus, we would either have to accuse the Old Testament of being polytheistic, or else recognize that there are various usages of the words for “god” beyond meaning Supreme Being or false gods. In view of the context stating that the Logos was with God in the beginning spoken of, we believe that there is no need to add to the scriptures a tale about three persons in one God, for certainly the Logos, in his prehuman condition, was a mighty being — EL — much more so than were the angels. -- Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7.
The Hebrew word for “god” — EL — has as its basic meaning: “strength, power, might.” In its broad application, it can be used for anything powerful. That the word is thus used may be readily seen by anyone who will carefully note the following texts from the King James Version, in which English translations of the Hebrew word El are in denoted by *..*: “It is in the *power* of my hand.” (Genesis 31:29) “There shall be no *might* in thine hand.” (Deuteronomy 28:32) “Neither is it in our *power*.” (Nehemiah 5:5) “Like the *great* mountains.” (Psalm 36:6) “In the *power* of thine hand to do it.” (Proverbs 3:27) “Pray unto *a god* [mighty one] that cannot save.” (Isaiah 45:20) “Who among the sons of the *mighty*.” (Psalm 89:6) “God standeth in the congregation of the *mighty*.” (Psalm 82:1) “Who is like unto thee, O Lord [Jehovah] among the *Gods* [mighty ones or ruling ones]?” (Exodus 15:11) “Give unto the Lord [Jehovah] of ye *mighty*.” (Psalm 29:1) “The mighty *God* [ruler] even the Lord [Jehovah].” - Psalm 50:1.
Thus, certain men and angels are also called ELOHIM: Exodus 4:16; 7:1 — The KJV adds the words “instead of” before “God” in Exodus 4:16, which words do not appear in the Hebrew; Psalm 8:5 {compare Hebrews 2:9}; 86:6-8; 95:3; 50:1; Psalm 82:6,7 (See John 10:34,35; 1 John 3:2) Likewise, we read of the anointing of Jesus as elohim by his elohim — his God: Psalm 45:6,7 (Hebrews 1:8,9; Isaiah 61:1)
We can be sure that John was aware of the Hebrew usage of the words EL and ELOHIM, as he refers to Jesus’ defense in using Psalm 82 at John 10:34,35. Thus it would not be unusual for him to bring this usage into Greek by using the word *theos* in reference to the Son of God.
We might note that Strong gives the definition of *theos* as: “of uncertain affinity; a deity, especially (with 3588) the supreme Divinity; figuratively, a magistrate; by Hebraism, very: –X exceeding, God, god(ly, ward)”, thus implying that the word, like its Hebrew counterpart, can be used of one in power, as a magistrate.
Some have claimed, usually using Colwell’s Rule as a basis (which we discussed earlier), that it does not represent the Greek to use the translation of “a god” here. (Remember, Colwell’s purpose was to discredit any Hebraism in John 1:1.) However, many point out that the same form is used in many places, such as John 4:19; 6:70; 8:44; 9:28; 12:6; and possibly John 18:37. No one questions the presence of the English indefinite article in most of these texts; it is only questioned simply because of its usage in the John 1:1 would tend to negate the preconceived trinitarian concept.
Some produce an argument that if the definite article in John 1:1 denotes God Almighty and theos without the article should be translated “a god”, that everyplace throughout the Greek New Testament theos without the article should be translated “a god”. They point to scriptures such as Matthew 5:9; 6:24; Luke 1:35; Luke 1:78; 2:40; John 1:6,12,13,18; 3:2,21; 9:16,33; Romans 1:7,17,18; 1 Corinthians 1:30; 15:10; Philippians 2:11,13; Titus 1:1, etc., and state: To be consistent in this rendering of “a god”, the anarthrous theos should be so translated as “a god” in every instance where the article is absent. Of course, no one claims that the anarthrous theos should always be translated as “a god”, and such actually throws attention away from the contextual usage of the predicate nominative in John 1:1. Even Colwell notes that the context needs to be considered in whether to consider the predicate nominative as definite or indefinite: “A predicate nominative which precedes the verb cannot be translated as an indefinite or a ‘qualitative’ noun solely because of the absence of the article; if the context suggests that the predicate is definite, it should be translated as a definite noun in spite of the absence of the article.” (Colwell, “A Definite Rule,” 20-21) Of course, Colwell believed and argued from the standpoint that the context was stating that the Logos was God Almighty; we see no reason to agree with him on this, as the context clearly shows that the Logos was with God, thus was not the God who he was with.
Additionally, it is argued that the four oldest and best manuscripts in John 1:18 read, “the only begotten god…,” which favors adding the indefinite article in verse one to read “the Word was a god.”
We should note that many translators, being trinitarian, avoid this translation. Usually the actual reason for the rejection is that it runs counter to what is generally accepted as Christian doctrine. Some translations and/or scholars that render or give support to the latter *theos* as “a god” in John 1:1 are: The New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures Watchtower Bible and Tract Society; The New Testament in an Improved Version (Unitarian translation based upon Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation – Edited by John Thompson in 1808); The New Testament in Greek and English (A. Kneeland – 1822); A Literal Translation Of The New Testament (H. Heinfetter – 1863); The Coptic Version of the New Testament (G. W. Horner, 1911); Epiphany Studies in the Scriptures, Vol, I, GOD (Paul S. L. Johnson – 1938).
Philip B. Harner, in the work quoted earlier (pages 84-85) tells us that John could have written any of the following:
A. ho Logos en ho theos (The Word was the God);
B. Theos en ho Logos (God was the Word — as appears in John 1:1);
C. ho Logos Theos en (the Word God was — less emphatic than B);
D. ho Logos en Theos (the Word was a god);
E. ho Logos en Theios (the Word was divine);
He states: “John evidently wished to say something about the logos that was other than A and more than D and E.”
Thus, Harner expresses that if John had wanted to say that Jesus was the actual being of the God, he could have used the definite article to definitely say so. He could have shown that he was definitely not including Jesus as the God by putting the word theos after the verb and ho logos before the verb. He, in effect, rules out the first translation above (and the Word was God) and favors something in between translations #1 and #2.
At any rate, the arguments against translation #1 appear to us to be stronger than against translations #2 or #3. If one considers that the word theos is not a name, but a title based on Hebrew usage of the word EL and ELOHIM, meaning “mighty” or “mighty one”, the choice of translation might be between “The Word was a Mighty One,” or “The Word was Mighty.”
John 1:2
The same was in the beginning with God.
Here John adds this phrase with the evident intent to show that he does not reckon the Logos to be same being or person with whom he was with in the beginning. To make sure the reader understood this, he added the phrase to the effect that the Logos with or toward TON THEON in the beginning, and thus he was not TON THEON with whom he was with.
John 1:3
All things [Greek, panta, Strong’s #3956] were made through [Greek, di, Strong’s #1223] him. Without him was not anything [oude hen, Strong’s #3761, 1520] made that has been made.
John 1:4
In him was life, and the life was the light of men.
“All things came into being through him, and without him not one thing came into being. What has come into being in him was life, and the life was the light of all people.” — John 1:3,4, New Revised Standard Version
John 1:3,10 speaks of the creation of the world of mankind, not of absolutely everything in the universe. Thus, the word panta (usually translated in John 1:3 as “all things”) and the words “oude hen” (usually translated as “not one thing”) need to viewed relative to what is being spoken of, that is the world of mankind into which the Logos came and was not recognized by. (John 1:10) The words “things” and “thing” are supplied by the translators. Without adding the supplied word “things” and “thing”, the verse would read: “All through him came to be, and without him not one came to be.” Where to end the sentence has been disputed for centuries. Many would extend the sentence to include the rest of verse 3: “All through him came be, and without him not one came to be which has come to be.” Others would put the last part of verse 3 with the next sentence. Either way, one has to consider the context, which speaks of that which was made through the Logos as the world of mankind into which the Logos came.
The above would be in harmony with several scriptures where creation is spoken with reference to creation of mankind, not the angels, stars, etc. — Mark 10:6; Romans 8:20,22; 2 Peter 3:4.
We might add that many Bible Students have thought that the “all” here refers to angels, cherubim, seraphim, worlds, etc., as well as mankind. (R3475:1; R5351:6; R5372:1) Nonetheless, from the context of John 1:3 (as well as the rest of the scriptures), and the actual wording that John used, we are enabled to conclude that the “panta” — all — that is being spoken of is the creation of the things of the world of mankind, and not that of the angels, etc. At any rate, it should be apparent that the one through whom the things are made would of necessity not be included in the things that being spoken of as made, even if he had been brought into existence before the things being referred.
Jesus is not being called the Creator here, as some have assumed. In the King James Version we read in John 1:3: “All things were made by him.” The word translated “by” in the KJV is the Greek word di (Strong’s #1223). Its basic meaning is “through”, as an instrument or container being used, or as an agent. Thus, in connection with the context, Ton Theon created all the things being spoken of by means of the Logos. Many trinitarians realize that this is speaking of the Logos as the agent of God. Regarding this verse, Newman and Nida states: “This statement is literally ‘all things through him came into being.’ The Greek phrase through him indicates that the Word was the agent in creation, but at the same time the context clearly implies that God is the ultimate source of creation.” — A Translator’s Handbook on the Gospel of John, by Barclay M. Newman and Eugene A. Nida, 1980 edition, page 10.
Many, noting that some translations refer to the LOGOS as “it”, conclude that the LOGOS is not a person, but an “it”. Usually, this thought is presented in connection with the idea that Jesus did not have a pre-human existence as a person, but that the LOGOS was with God only in the “mind of God”, “in the counsels of God”, or in the Torah, or some similar thought. Many unitarians, as well as many oneness believers, often present this or some similar thought.
Tyndale’s translation, reads: “”All thinges were made by it and with out it was made nothinge that was made. In it was lyfe and the lyfe was ye lyght of men.” Several other translations read similar to this. Does this mean that the LOGOS is an “it”, and not a person? To reason so, would make the application of LOGOS only to Jesus before his birth, but, as we have shown above, the word LOGOS is applied to Jesus while on earth, as well as, after his ascension. Those who support the above often quote the scripture, as quoted above, ending with verse four. Evidently the thought is that before the world was made, that all things were made through God’s spoken word, and in some vague manner that in that spoken word “was” life, and that “life” was the light of men. This, we believe, is a misapplication of the scripture. Why? As shown above, the term LOGOS also refers to Jesus as a human, and also after his exaltation. In 1 John 1:1, John describes Jesus as the “Word [Logos] of Life.” Jesus, while the days of his flesh, had life in him, life which was not under the condemnation in Adam. Jesus sacrificed that life for the whole human race. We further note that in John 1:14 he is called the “Word” at his first advent. It is also probable that Jesus was referring to himself as the Logos of God whom he spoke of as coming to the sons of God in John 10:35; Psalm 82:1,6,7; John 1:12). In Revelation 19:13 he is called the “Word” in his future glory. Thus, in all three stages he is still the Logos, or Word of God. In Greek, the word Logos itself is neuter; this does not mean the Logos was, or is not, a title of a living person. Most translations recognize this, and thus use masculine pronouns in reference to the Logos, not to the neuter “it”.
Furthermore, the LOGOS “was” the life and the light of men while on earth, not before the world of mankind was made, as many would like to apply John 1:4. Why do we say this? Let us look at the verses, and other related scriptures, comparing spiritual revealing with spiritual revealing.
John 1:4 – In him [the LOGOS] was life, and the life was the light of men.
When was the LOGOS the “light of men”? John partly answer this when he said:
and the light in the darkness did shine, and the darkness did not perceive it. — John 1:5, Young’s Literal Translation.
More directly, Jesus said:
As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world. — John 9:5.
Jesus narrows this down to the time that he was in the world of mankind. While he was in the world of mankind, he was the light of the world. Therefore, John 1:4,5 is speaking about the LOGOS as a person while on the earth, that in this person was life, and that he was the light of men, the light of this world.
The Logos came to earth by means of a miracle. Unlike all the dying mankind around him, he had life, the crown of glory that Adam originally had. (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7,9) Mankind, however, still does not have the glory and dominion originally given to him (Genesis 1:25,28; Psalm 8:5-8), thus Paul says: “now we don’t see all things subjected to him [man], yet.” (Hebrews 2:8) But, Paul adds, we do “see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.” Jesus, having been totally obedient to his God, did not fall short of the glory of God as did all mankind. (Romans 3:23) Thus, “in him was life”, and that life offered “light” to men.
Was Jesus as LOGOS while in the world an “it”? Only in that you could refer to him with the title of “LIGHT” as an “it”, but this does not mean that Jesus was not a person. The LOGOS as the “light of men” was indeed a person walking around on the earth. The LOGOS was most definitely a person while in the flesh, and is most definitely a person after being exalted.
Now we examine another related scripture, pertaining to “where” Jesus was, as spoken of in John 1:1, before coming to the earth. Jesus said:
John 6:62 – What if you would see the Son of Man ascending to where he was before?
The “where” that the LOGOS is spoken of as being in John 1:1 is the same “where” that the LOGOS ‘returned’ to. Where is that Jesus ascended? To heaven to be with his God. (Mark 16:19; Luke 24:51; John 13:1; 16:28; 17:3; Acts 3:21; Hebrews 9:24) So wherever the LOGOS returned to is the same “where” that he was in John 1:1. Jesus returned, as a person, to be with his God, where he has been exalted as a mighty ruler, at the right hand of the Most High himself. Thus, the spiritual revealing is that Jesus, as a person, was with his God before coming into the world of mankind. And, that is what is confirmed in John 17:1,3,5. If Jesus was not a person before he came to earth, then he must not be a person after his ascension, since Jesus returned to the same “where” that he was before he came into the world of mankind. ---- Ronald R. Day, Sr.
Just one thought even before reading the article that was sometime came to me.
ReplyDelete"And God said, Let..." (book of Genesis)What God said? The word, or Word or words. After He said something, it happened. In this way of reasoning, word, words is coming from a person. And word, spoken or unspoken,(unspoken word we often named as "thought")is old as old is that same person. This is just kind of illustration. Little children, babies are persons but adults did not calling child voice, in their first months or a year of living, as words, rather inarticulate voices. But you can see first point of this example. The word of God is eternal as God.
Other question is what we as people means that word "Word" in Bible must be?! Person? or Voice of God?
Or all of this (or maybe and more of this) but changing meaning depending on context of text.
I did not see this comment until today. The Word, the Logos who was with God Almighty in the beginning was certainly not a spoken word. The Logos whose glory the disciples saw was a person. (John 1:14) He who bears the name "The Word of God" (Revelation 19:13) is a person. See more in my studies on Jesus' Prehuman Existence
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