Jesus and His God

By Ronald R. Day, Sr. (ResLight; RLBible) (This study needs to edited)  The claim is being made that Jesus' words in John 14:28 means: The Father is “greater” than the incarnate Christ in terms of position because Christ’s humanity is a creation, though in His divinity He is equal to the Father…. This verse is a clear reference to the Hypostatic Union of Christ. As is often the case with trinitarians, it is simply assumed that acceptance of the trinity dogma should considered the default reasoning,  and that it is up to others to disprove that which being promoted as the default position. Of course, there is nothing directly in the scriptures where the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob bluntly states: I am not more than one person. Why should there be? In reality, the default assumption is that Yahweh is only person, not that he is more than one person. Indeed, throughout the Bible, in what God has revealed of Himself by means of His Holy Spirit, we find that Yahweh, the God of ...

(The text below was copied from the old site that no longer exists, without editing. This still needs to be edited. Links may not work.)  Revelation 1:7 Behold, he is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, including those who pierced him. All the tribes of the earth will mourn over him. Even so, Amen. Revelation 1:8 “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord God, “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.” — World English Bible Version. Should we assume that the “the Lord God” “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty” in Revelation 1:8 is Jesus? The most simple and straightforward scriptural conclusion is that in Revelation 1:8, “the Lord God” “who is and was and who is to come” is not Jesus, but rather the unipersonal “God” of Revelation 1:1,4. However, many trinitarians and some others do not accept the simple and straightforward conclusion, but would imagine and assume  that in Revelation 1:8 Jesus himself cl...

Many note that certain translations refer to the Holy Spirit as “he”, “him”, “his”, etc., and present such scriptures as an argument that the Holy Spirit is a male person. Some even have made the erroneous claim that the Textus Receptus never refers to the Holy Spirit as an “it”, or that the Greek New Testament always refers to the Holy Spirit with masculine pronouns. Actually, the Textus Receptus does indeed refer to the Holy Spirit with neuter pronouns, not masculine pronouns, as is also true of all the known New Testament Greek manuscripts that are usually used for translation. The only exception I know of is when the holy spirit is being associated with being the Comforter, as in John 15:25. Since the Greek word for “Comforter” is masculine, masculine pronouns are used to agree with this. This is often called “gender agreement”, but such agreement in Koine Greek does not necessarily mean that what is being spoken of is actually being designated as a “he” or “she” or “it”. The same ...

By Ronald R. Day John 14:24 - He who doesn't love me doesn't keep my words. The word which you hear isn't mine, but the Father's who sent me.  It has been claimed that Jesus, by his words recorded in John 14:24, was denying that he is the Logos of John 1:1-15, and evidently also of Revelation 19:13. John 1:14,15,29,30 definitely shows that the Logos spoken in John 1:1 is the Son of God, Jesus. Denying that the Logos became flesh, or that when the Logos became flesh he ceased being the Logos does not actually fit what is stated. The name "Logos of God" -- applied to Jesus -- signifies one who speaks, who delivers, the words of God. Of course, Jesus is not literally "the Word." Revelation 19:13 shows that this is a titular name. A comparison can be made in that Jesus also refers to himself as "the truth". (John 14:6) Does this mean that Jesus is literally "the truth"? Obviously, Jesus is referring to himself as the embodiment of tru...

 And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption. -- Ephesians 4:30, King James Version. Many trinitarians (and some others) may point to Ephesians 4:30 as proof that the Holy Spirit is a person. "God," however, in the expression, "the holy spirit of God", obviously is referring to only one person, and the "holy spirit" is presented as be a possession of that one person who is God. This is in harmony with Ephesians 4:6, where only the Father is presented as being  the "one God". Likewise in Ephesians 4:13, "God" is again presented as being only one person, and "Christ" (meaning the anointed) is distinguished from being that one person, since he is presented as being the son of that one person.  The scriptures show that God's Holy Spirit is is likened to God's finger, at least in as God's Holy Spirit represents the power of God. (Matthew 12:28; Luke 11:20) One's finger i...

In John 14:16, we read, “I will pray the Father, and He shall give you  another Comforter, even the Spirit of Truth”. And again in John 14:26, “but the Comforter, the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, He shall teach you all things”. And again in John 15:26, “When the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, He shall testify of me”. The claim is that in all three of these passages, we have a perfect statement of  the three Divine Persons, acting in perfect unity, yet each Person in the same relative position – the Father as the Fountain of all authority; the Son as obeying the Father, revealing, and teaching, and praying, in His prophetic and priestly offices; and then the Holy Spirit proceeding from the Father, by the command of the Son, as the anointing and powerful Comforter. As is always the case, in all of the scriptures referred to, one has to assume beyond what is written, ...