Contents
1 Corinthians 8:6—One God, One LordPhilippians 2:5-11—Jesus' Exaltation to a Name Above All Names
The “One God” and the “One Lord” in 1 Corinthians
8:6: Why Jesus Is Not the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob
Paul’s statement in 1 Corinthians 8:6 is often pressed into service to support the claim that Jesus is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. Yet the verse itself sharply distinguishes between “one God, the Father, of whom are all” and “one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all.” This distinction is not accidental, nor is it a veiled Trinitarian formula. It is a deliberate contrast that aligns with the entire testimony of Scripture.
1. The Father Alone Is the “One God”
Paul identifies one God—and he explicitly names Him: the Father. This matches the Old Testament confession:
The Hebrew text of Deuteronomy 6:4 contains no word meaning “lord.” It contains the Holy Name YHWH, not a title. The later Greek rendering in Mark 12:29 replaces the Holy Name with kurios, but this reflects scribal convention, not Jesus redefining the Holy Name.
The Old Testament never presents Jehovah as more than one person. The idea that “one Jehovah” secretly means “three persons” must be imagined and added to the text. Scripture never says, “We will do…” or “We did…” when Jehovah speaks. The default reading is the correct one: Jehovah is one person.
2. The New Testament Uses “Lord” (Kurios) Broadly—Not Exclusively for Jehovah
Many assume that “Lord” in the New Testament automatically means Jehovah. But “kurios” is applied to:
Jesus (as Messiah and appointed ruler)
Prophets (John 4:19)
Ordinary men (John 12:21)
Angels (Genesis 19:2, LXX)
Abraham (Genesis 18:12)
Bullinger catalogues dozens of uses of kurios that do not refer to God. Thus, the mere application of “Lord” to Jesus does not make Him Jehovah.
3. Paul Says There Are “Many Gods and Many Lords”
Paul acknowledges:
These include:
Demons (Deuteronomy 32:17; Psalm 106:37)
Angelic “sons of God” (Psalm 82:1,6; John 10:34–36)
Human rulers
These beings are “gods” or “lords” because they possess derived authority, not because they are the Supreme Being.
Thus, when Paul says “one Lord”, he is not denying the existence of other lords. He is identifying the one appointed Lord over the church—Jesus—whom God made both Lord and Christ (Acts 2:36).
4. The “One God” and the “One Lord” Are Not the Same Being
Paul qualifies both titles:
One God — “of whom are all”
One Lord — “through whom are all”
These roles are not interchangeable. The source is not the instrument; the instrument is not the source. To collapse the two into one person is to erase Paul’s inspired distinction.
Jesus is Lord because God made Him Lord (Acts 2:36). Jesus is Christ because God anointed Him (Isaiah 61:1; Hebrews 1:9). Jesus is sent, empowered, and glorified by His God (John 17:3; 20:17).
Jesus never claims to be the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. Instead, He repeatedly identifies that God as His Father.
5. The “All” in 1 Corinthians 8:6 Is Contextual, Not Absolute
Some argue that “all things” means the entire universe, and therefore Jesus must be uncreated. But:
The Greek phrase is ta panta (“the all”), not “all things.”
Translators add “things.”
Context determines scope.
In 1 Corinthians 8, Paul is addressing believers, not the entire created order. In verse 7, “all” clearly refers to all Christians, not all humanity. Thus, “the all” in verse 6 most naturally refers to the redeemed community—those regenerated by God through Christ.
Even if “the all” were universal, the one through whom God works is still not the one God from whom all originates.
6. Jesus Is Never Called “Most High” or Jehovah
Scripture consistently distinguishes:
Jehovah — the Most High, the Supreme Being
Jesus — the Son of the Most High, the anointed Lord
Jesus is never called:
“Most High”
“Jehovah”
“the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob”
Instead, He is:
Sent by God (John 5:30,43)
Given authority by God (John 17:2)
Raised by God (Acts 2:24)
Exalted by God (Acts 2:33)
Made Lord by God (Acts 2:36)
7. The Prophet Like Moses Must Speak in Jehovah’s Name
Deuteronomy 18:15–22 requires that the promised prophet:
Speak in Jehovah’s name
Speak Jehovah’s words
Not replace Jehovah’s name with another title
If Jesus had replaced the divine name with “Lord,” He would fail the test of Deuteronomy 18. The replacement occurred later, in scribal transmission—not in Jesus’ own speech.
8. Summary: The Biblical Distinction Is Clear
The one Jehovah of Deuteronomy 6:4 is the one God of 1 Corinthians 8:6.
The one Lord of 1 Corinthians 8:6 is not Jehovah, but the one whom Jehovah made Lord.
Jesus is the appointed Lord, not the innate Lord Jehovah.
The Father is the source of all; Jesus is the agent through whom the Father works.
To merge the two is to ignore Paul’s qualifications and impose a Trinitarian assumption onto the text.
Ronald R. Day, Sr. - Restoration Light Bible Study Services
Philippians 2:5-11— Jesus' Exaltation to a Name Above All Names
touto phroneite en humin ho kai en christw
THIS BE YOU MINDING IN YOU WHICH ALSO IN CHRIST
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ieesou
JESUS,
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Philippians 2:6
hos en morphee theou huparchwn ouch harpagmon
WHO IN FORM OF GOD EXISTING NOT SNATCHING
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heegeesato to einai isa thew
HE CONSIDERED THE TO BE EQUAL (THINGS) TO GOD,
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Philippians 2:7
alla heauton ekenwsen morpheen doulou labwn en
BUT HIMSELF HE EMPTIED FORM OF SLAVE HAVING TAKEN, IN
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homoiwmati anthrwpwn genomenos
LIKENESS OF MEN HAVING BECOME;
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Philippians 2:8
kai scheemati heuretheis hws anthrwpos etapeinwsen
AND TO FASHION HAVING BEEN FOUND AS MAN HE MADE LOWLY
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heauton genomenos hupeekoos mechri thanatou
HIMSELF HAVING BECOME OBEDIENT UNTIL DEATH,
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thanatou de staurou
OF DEATH BUT OF STAKE;
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Philippians 2:9
dio kai ho theos auton huperupswsen kai
THROUGH WHICH ALSO THE GOD HIM PUT HIGH UP OVER, AND
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echarisato autw to onoma to huper pan onoma
HE GRACIOUSLY GAVE TO HIM THE NAME THE OVER EVERY NAME,
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Philippians 2:10
hina en tw onomati ieesou pan gonu kampsee
IN ORDER THAT IN THE NAME OF JESUS EVERY KNEE SHOULD BEND
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epouraniwn kai epigeiwn kai
OF THOSE IN HEAVEN AND OF THOSE ON EARTH AND
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katachthoniwn
OF THOSE UNDERGROUND,
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Philippians 2:11
kai pasa glwssa exomologeeseetai hoti kurios
AND EVERY TONGUE SHOULD CONFESS OUT THAT LORD
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ieesous christos eis doxan theou patros
JESUS CHRIST INTO GLORY OF GOD FATHER.
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Westcott & Hort Interlinear, as obtained from the Bible Students Library DVD.
In harmony with so many scriptures that distinguish Jesus from being the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, the default reasoning should be that Jesus, before he became flesh, although he had a form of his God, did not think to make himself equal to his God but rather went so far as to become in likeness of a sinful man under bondage.
In Philippians 2:6, we do read that Jesus was existing in the form (external appearance, external expression) of God (assuming that Paul actually meant the word transliterated as THEOS to mean “God”, Supreme Being, and not “a god”—a mighty being, as the angels—Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7). Before he became flesh (John 1:14), Jesus had a celestial glory that was in the likeness of his God. — John 17:1,3,5; 1 Corinthians 15:40.
Unlike the one spoken of in Isaiah 14:14, however, Jesus did not seek to be equal to his God; rather, he “did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped.” — Philippians 2:6, New American Standard.
The word "God"—throughout Paul’s letter to the Philippians—refers to only one person, as can be seen from Philippians 2:9,11, and even in the latter part of Philippians 2:6.
However, some believe that in Philippians 2:6, the first instance of “God” may not actually refer to “God”, as in the sense of the Mighty One who is the Supreme Being, but rather to mightiness in general, using the Hebraic meaning for the word for "God." Thus, this would mean that Jesus was in a form of mightiness before he became flesh.
However, the use of the Greek word transliterated as morphe (as meaning “external appearance”, or "external expression") indicates that the first instance of “God” actually refers to the God and Father of Jesus.
Jesus existed in the external appearance, in the likeness of his God, but he was not his God, nor did he seek to be equal to his God.
Instead of seeking to be equal to his God, he became in the likeness of men of sinful flesh, externally appearing as a bondservant of corruption, although he was not really such. -- Romans 8:3,20-22.
The word “morphe” is being used in Philippians 2:7 in parallel with two other words, all of which carry similar meanings.
There is nothing in Philippians 2:5-11 that means Jesus was God Most High, any more than it means that Jesus was actually a bond-servant of sin in the likeness of men. — Genesis 14:22; Psalm 7:17; 83:18; 92:1; Luke 1:32; John 13:16; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17,32-35; 4:34; 5:19,30,36,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; 20:17; Acts 2:22,34-36; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 8:6; 11:31; Colossians 1:3,15; 2:9-12; Hebrews 1:1-3; Revelation 1:1.
Philippians 2:6-11 discusses how Jesus left the form (Morphe—external appearance) of God, that is, the glory he had with his God and Father (Ephesians 1:3) before coming into the world (John 17:5), and took on the form (Morphe—external appearance) of a bondservant. — Philippians 2:7.
Jesus was already a servant of God before coming to the earth, so Philippians 2:7 cannot be referring to his becoming a servant of God, as some have claimed. — John 3:16,17; 5:30,36; 6:38,44; 8:29,38,42; 10:36; 17:3; Galatians 4:4; Hebrews 10:5; 1 John 4:9,10.
Thus, this relates to the purpose for which Jesus came to earth, that is, to give his human soul, his human body, his human blood, and his human flesh once for all time as a ransom for many, for all. — Matthew 20:28; Mark 10:45; Luke 22:19; John 6:51; 1 Corinthians 11:27; 1 Timothy 1:15; 2:5,6; Hebrews 2:9; 10:10; 1 Peter 3:18; 1 John 4:9,10,14.
The human race came to be in bondage to corruption, sin, and death due to Adam’s sin—Genesis 3:17-19; Ecclesiastes 1:2,13-18; 7:13; Romans 5:15-19; 8:15,20-22; Galatians 4:3; Corinthians 15:21,22.
Was Jesus in bondage to sin and corruption as the rest of the human race? Obviously not. Jesus had no sin, but he did come in the likeness—the appearance—of sinful flesh to be sin on our behalf. — John 8:46; 1 Peter 2:2; Romans 8:3; 2 Corinthians 5:21; Hebrews 4:15.
Although he was born of a woman, he was begotten as a human by means of God’s Holy Spirit. — Matthew 1:20; Luke 1:35; Galatians 4:4.
It was God, by means of his Holy Spirit, who prepared the body of Jesus; thus, he was born sinless, without any bondage of corruption as is common to mankind under condemnation in Adam. — Romans 5:12-19; 8:21; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; Hebrews 10:5.
Nevertheless, Jesus, as a human, did have a “form” of that bondage, the external appearance, so to speak, of that bondage, since he suffered and paid the price for sin. — 2 Corinthians 5:21; Galatians 3:13; Hebrews 10:10; 1 Peter 2:24; 3:18; 4:1.
Jesus suffered the consequences of sin to pay the price of sin—death—for the human race, although he himself was not sinful.
Therefore, just as Jesus had the external appearance of being a sinner, so likewise, Jesus in his prehuman existence had the external appearance of God, being even then the image of his God.
Regardless, there is nothing in these verses that says anything about Jesus’ being a “person of God”. The idea has to be added to and read into what Paul said.
Nor is there anything that says that Jesus has two “natures” at once, that of being the Most High and also that of being a human, a little lower than the angels.
On the other hand, Paul shows that Jesus did not consider equality with God to be something for him to grasp, and Jesus is exalted by the unipersonal God. — Philippians 2:9.
But doesn't Paul say that Jesus has the name that is above all names? Doesn't this mean that Jesus is Jehovah, the Most High? No. The expression in Philippians 2:9 actually states, "Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name.” God gave this “name” to Jesus? If this “name” was given to Jesus after his God exalted him, would not this mean that Jesus did not have this name before his God exalted him?
Philippians 2:9 should be understood within its own context as well as the rest of the Bible, for instance, Ephesians 1:3,17-23:
Ephesians 1:3—Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ:
Ephesians 1:17—that the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you a spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him;
Ephesians 1:18—having the eyes of your heart enlightened, that ye may know what is the hope of his calling, what the riches of the glory of his inheritance in the saints,
Ephesians 1:19—and what is the exceeding greatness of his power to us-ward who believe, according to that working of the strength of his might
Ephesians 1:20—which he wrought in Christ, when he raised him from the dead, and made him to sit at his right hand in the heavenly places,
Ephesians 1:21—far above all rule, and authority, and power, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come:
Ephesians 1:22—and he put all things in subjection under his feet, and gave him to be head over all things to the church,
Ephesians 1:23—which is his body, the fulness [full amount] of him that filleth all in all.
Obviously, the word “name” in Ephesians 1:21 and Philippians 2:9 is being used, not in the sense of an appellation, but rather in the sense of authority, rank. If the word “name” refers to “Jehovah” as Ellicott and many others claim, that would mean that Jesus was not “Jehovah” until after his God, Jehovah (Micah 5:4) exalted Jesus to Jehovah's right hand (Psalm 110:1; Matthew 26:64; Mark 14:62; 16:19; Luke 22:69; Acts 2:32-35; 5:31; Romans 8:34; Colossians 3:1; Hebrews 1:3; 8:1; 1 Peter 3:21) and gave him the name “Jehovah”, which would be contrary to what man's “trinity” dogma claims.
In Ephesians 1:22, rather than being presented as being God Almighty, God is presented as being only one person. God is the one person who puts all in subjection under the feet of Jesus (Psalm 110:1), and it is the one person who is the God and Father of Jesus (Ephesians 1:3,17) who gives to Jesus the headship over the church.
Regardless, Paul shows that Jesus is not God who exalted him, and that Jesus' exaltation results in “the glory of God, the Father” (Philippians 2:11), the God and Father of Jesus, the only true God. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.
Links of Studies Related to Philippians 2:5
ADDENDUM:
The unipersonal “God” of Philippians 2:9 did not give to God the name of God to be above every name that God has given. Such would actually mean that God would have exalted God from being a little lower than the angels to being a higher than the angels. (Hebrews 1:4; 2:9; 1 Peter 3:22) It would further mean that God did not have this name until God exalted God.
Nor did Jehovah give to Jehovah the designation word name of Jehovah to be above every name that Jehovah has given; such an idea would mean that Jehovah exalted Jehovah from being lower than the angels to a position greater than the angels, and that Jehovah did not have the name Jehovah until Jehovah exalted Jehovah. — Philippians 2:9; Hebrews 1:4; 2:9; 1 Peter 3:22.
Nor did Jesus receive either the appellation “Jesus” or “Jehovah”/“Yahweh” at the time when the unipersonal “God” exalted Jesus. The Son of the Most High (Luke 1:32,35) already had the appellation “Jesus” before he was exalted. (Matthew 1:23; Luke 1:31) Jesus is nowhere spoken of receiving the designation “Jehovah” as being his name.
It should be apparent that when the Most High — the unipersonal “God” — exalted His Son (Luke 1:32,35; Philippians 2:9; Ephesians 1:3,17-23), that the unipersonal “God” gave to Jesus the name (office, position of glory) that is above every name, with the evident exception of that of being Jehovah, the only the Most High. — 1 Corinthians 15:27.
One commented: //Trinitarians do not have to explain Jesus' kind of "subordination" exclusively from His humanity: it can exist even if we consider that He is the Son, and the Father is the Father.//
ReplyDeleteOf course, what "can" exist does not mean that it does exist. The fact is that there is only ONE PERSON in the Bible who is identified as being the "one God" from whom are all. (1 Corinthians 8:6). Jesus identified only one person who is the "only true God (Mighty One Innate)" who sent him. (Isaiah 61:1,2) ONLY ONE PERSON is identified as being the God who spoke through the prophets of old. (Hebrews 1:1,2) ONLY ONE PERSON is the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob who raised Jesus up as the prophet like Moses. (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Acts 3:13-26) Only one person is GOD who exalted Jesus and gave to Jesus a name above all other names. -- Acts 5:31; Ephesians 1:3,17-26; Philippians 2:9-11.
The idea of a hypostatic union of Jesus is not found anywhere in the Bible. The idea has to be read into any scripture that is claimed to refer to such an idea.
See our page on the alleged dual natures of Jesus.