1 Peter 2:3 – Tasted That The Lord Is Gracious

1 Peter 2:3 – If you have tasted that the Lord is gracious.

1 Peter 2:4 – To whom we are approaching. He is a living stone, rejected indeed of men, but with God chosen, precious.

1 Peter 2:5 –  You also, as living stones, are built up as a spiritual house, to be a holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God through Jesus Christ. — World English.

Psalms 34:8 - Taste and see that Jehovah is good; blessed is the man seeking refuge in Him.

 -- Green's Literal

The above verses are often placed together in effort to prove that Jesus is Jehovah. Many assume that when Peter wrote “the Lord is gracious” that he was quoting Psalm 34:8, “Jehovah is good”, and that therefore by “the Lord” in 1 Peter 2:3, Peter meant Jehovah. The following verse applies “the Lord” to Jesus, and therefore Jesus is assumed to be Jehovah, and thus it would have to be further assumed that Jehovah is the stone that Jehovah chose, and that Jehovah is Jehovah that laid the stone (Jehovah) in Zion. (1 Peter 2:6) To keep this from being self-contradictory, the trinitarian then has to go against the default reasoning so as to call upon human imagination in order to imagine, assume and add to the scriptures that Jehovah is more than one person, and assume that it would mean that there is one person who is Jehovah who laid the stone, who is another person of Jehovah who is the stone that was laid by Jehovah. But it would have to be then further assumed and read into the scriptures that these two who are both one Jehovah -- that they are not two different Jehovahs, etc.

The trinitarian would, in effect, by use of the spirit of human imagination and formed assumptions would have the verses understood as:

1 Peter 2:3 if indeed you have tasted that the Lord [the alleged second person of the triune God] is gracious:

1 Peter 2:4 coming to him [the alleged second person of the triune Jehovah], a living stone, rejected indeed by men, but chosen by God [not the triune God, but rather only the first person of the triune God], precious.

1 Peter 2:5 You also, as living stones, are built up as a spiritual house, to be a holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God [not the alleged triune God, but only the alleged first person of the triune God] through Jesus Christ [the alleged second person of the triune God].

1 Peter 2:6 Because it is contained in Scripture, “Behold, I [not the alleged triune God, but rather only the alleged first person of the triune God] lay in Zion a chief cornerstone [the alleged second person of the triune God], elect, precious: He who believes in him [the alleged second person of the triune God] will not be put to shame.”

Of course, in reality, we have no scriptural reason to use the spirit of human imagination so assume, add, and read all of the above into the scriptures as shown.

Additionally, it is an assumption that Peter had Psalm 34:8 in mind when he wrote the words recorded 1 Peter 2:3. If Peter did have Psalm 34:8 in mind when he wrote the words of 1 Peter 2:3, at most one might assume it to be an indirect reference, since Peter did not use the word “good”, and since what Peter stated is not in the same structure as stated in Psalm 34:8.

Rather than assume all that the trinitarian would assume, one would best assume in line with what is revealed in the Bible, that Peter is speaking of Jesus as the one who speaks and represents Jehovah.  — — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 22:32; 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; 12:26; Luke 13:35; 20:37; John 3:2,17,32-35; 4:34; 5:19,30,36,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; 20:17; Acts 2:22,34-36; 3:13-26; 5:30; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 8:6; 11:31; Colossians 1:3,15; 2:9-12; Hebrews 1:1-3; Revelation 1:1.

Whether Peter had Psalm 34:8 in mind or not, the context, however, would indicate that Peter, by use of “the Lord” in 1 Peter 2:3, did not mean that as stating that Jesus is Jehovah. Such a claim that Peter was stating that Jesus is Jehovah in 1 Peter 2:3 would make the context totally confusing, to say the least, and even self-contradictory.

Some points we might consider: As all the Bible writers do, Peter depicts “God” — the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15) — as one person, and not as more than one person, and he distinguishes “God” from Jesus. “God” is depicted in 1 Peter 1:3 as “the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ”. In Acts 3:13-26, Peter depicts the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as one person who raised up Jesus as a prophet like Moses. In 1 Peter 1:21, “God” is depicted as having raised Jesus from the dead, and having giving glory to Jesus. In 1 Peter 2:4, “God” is depicted as one person who chose Jesus. In 1 Peter 2:5, the sacrifices of the church are acceptable to “God” through Jesus, and thus Jesus is not included in “God”. In 1 Peter 3:18, “Christ” is distinguished from “God”, as Jesus is depicted as the one who brings us to “God”. In 1 Peter 3:22, we find that Jesus is at the right hand of “God”, is thus being excluding from being “God”. Indeed, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is depicted as only one person throughout Peter’s letter, as we find to be true throughout the entire Bible.

If we belong to the Lord Jesus, we taste of his graciousness. We can say: “His fruit was sweet to my taste.” (Song of Solomon 2:3) As we come to Jesus and sit down under his shadow with great delight, we hear his words as recorded in the Bible, and learn of his sacrifice and of his resurrection. Nevertheless, to taste of this graciousness of Jesus is same as tasting of the goodness of his God and Father, since it is through Jesus that one can gain access to the Father. (John 14:6) Jesus has declared his God to us. (John 1:18) Jesus has given us the words of His God. (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; John 3:34; 14:10) Jesus, in the days of his flesh, demonstrated the goodness of his God and Father, and he has shown that goodness to those who believe on him; and will yet show that goodness to the world in the coming age when the glory of Jehovah will fill the earth. -- Isaiah 6:3; 35:2; 40:5; Habakkuk 2:14

Acts 20:28 – Whose Blood?

Does what is stated in Acts 20:28 give reason to imagine and assume that Jesus is God Almighty, or that God is more than one person?

Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood. – Acts 20:28, King James Version.

Many of our trinitarian neighbors (and some others) would have us believe that this text means that the Almighty God himself died for the church. If so, then, the Almighty God himself died, which of course, scripturally is totally impossible. If God Almighty had flesh and blood, this would make him lower than the angels. — Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7.

We first want to point out that it was the only true God (John 17:1,3), the "one God" of 1 Corinthians 8:6, who prepared the body of flesh and blood for Jesus by means His Holy Spirit. (Matthew 1:18,20; Hebrews 10:5) Since Jesus, while in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), was directly the Son of God, the blood running through the veins of Jesus' flesh was indeed the blood of his God and Father, for that blood came from him. This, however, does not mean that we need to imagine that Jesus is God Almighty, etc.

We might note that the Alexandrine manuscript as well as some other manuscripts read as “to shepherd the church of the Lord which…” Thus the New English Bible renders this verse: “Keep watch over yourselves and over all the flock of which the Holy Spirit has given you charge, as shepherds of the church of the Lord, which we won for himself by his own blood.” The Antigua Version de Casidoro De Reina, Revisada por Cipriano de Valera (1602), Revision de 1960, reads “iglesia del Senior”, that is, “church of the Lord” instead of “iglesia de Dios” (Church of God).

However, let us look at how several other translations render this verse:

Keep watch over yourselves and over all the flock, of which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to shepherd the church of God that he obtained with the blood of his own Son. — New Revised Standard Version.

Take heed to yourselves and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to care for the church of God which he obtained with the blood of his own Son. — Revised Standard

So keep watch over yourselves and over all the flock which the Holy Spirit has placed in your care. Be shepherds of the church of God, {F32 } which he made his own through the blood of his Son. {F33} — Today’s English

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FOOTNOTES:

F32: God; [some manuscripts have] the Lord.

F33: through the blood of his Son; [or] through the sacrificial death of his Son; [or] through his own blood.

Be careful for yourselves and for all the people the Holy Spirit has given to you to care for. You must be like shepherds to the church of God, which he bought with the death of his own son. — New Century Version

Take heed, therefore, to yourselves and to all the flock, in which you the Spirit Holy placed overseers, to shepherd the church of God, which He purchased through the own blood. — Jay Green’s Interlinear.

Take heed therefore to yourselves, and to all the flock, wherein the Holy Spirit has set you as overseers, to shepherd the assembly of God, which he has purchased F184 with the blood of his own. F185

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FOOTNOTES:

F184: Middle voice; reflexive: see Note e, Heb. 1.3.

F185: I am fully satisfied that this is the right translation of ver. 28. To make it a question of the divinity of Christ (which I hold to be of the foundation of Christianity) is absurd. It has been questioned whether ‘of his own’ can be used thus absolutely in the singular. But we have it in John 15.19, and in the neuter singular for material things, Acts 4.32. The torturing of the passage by copyists arose, I believe, from not seeing, the real sense of it; a touching expression of the love of God. — Darby Translation

Thus Darby, although believing that Jesus is God Almighty, realizes that it is “absurd” to look to this scripture as proof of the trinity doctrine, although we know many do so.

If it was actually the blood of God, it would mean that such blood was of  He whose glory is greater than the angels, rather than the blood of man, whose glory is lower than the angels. (Psalm 8:5; 1 Corinthians 15:39-41; Hebrews 2:7). It would mean that it was not the blood of the man Jesus Christ (1 Timothy 2:5,6), and thus  there has been no ransom, for it is the blood of one lower than the angels — a human — that was needed to make satisfaction for the sin of Adam. (Of course, we realize the trinitarians claim that Jesus was both a spirit being in nature and a human being in nature at the same time, and they often style this the “dual natures” or "hypostatic union" of Christ, but no scripture reveals such a concept.) Jesus, being our high priest appointed by the only true Supreme Being, offers his own blood to the only true Supreme Being; he is not the the only true Supreme Being who receives the sacrifice. — Psalm 8:5; John 17:1,3; Hebrews 2:9; 3:1,2; 9:14.

We recommend the studies:

The Basis of the Atonement

The Price of Redemption - God or Man?

Nevertheless, in reality, God Almighty is a spiritual being and does not have flesh and blood. (John 3:24; 2 Corinthians 3:17) Jesus was made a spiritual being in his resurrection. (1 Corinthians 15:45) He was not a spiritual being while he was a human being. — 1 Corinthians 15:38.

At any rate, God's bodily glory -- the bodily glory of the Surpeme Being -- does not contain blood, as His bodily glory is spiritual. Blood is fleshly, earthly, terrestrial. -- Leviticus 17:11; 1 Corinthians 15:39-41.

God -- the Supreme Being -- did not die for the church; His Son -- a human being, a little lower than that angels -- died for the church and the world of mankind. -- Hebrews 2:9; 1 John 2:2..

Yet many claim that if one applies the dual natures of Jesus to Acts 20:28, one could see that the verse is referring to Jesus as God (Supreme Being). By doing this, it is claimed that "the blood" refers the God's blood. Of course, as pointed out, the Supreme Being, who is spirit, does not have blood. So how does one actually apply the idea of dual natures to the verse?  Although many, in some vague way, try to apply their "dual natures" (or, hypostatic union) concept of Jesus to this verse, they fall short in providing reasoning as to how it could be applied and make sense. Evidently one would have assume that  "God" in the verse refers to the alleged Supreme Being Jesus. But as Jesus, the Supreme Being, Jesus would not have any blood. How does one get from the Supreme Being Jesus to the blood of the human being Jesus? If it is referring to the blood of the human Jesus, then it is not the blood of the alleged Supreme being Jesus, since the alleged Supreme being Jesus never had any blood.

The Greek wording, however, indicates that the verse does not refer directly to the blood as being blood flowing in the veins of the Supreme Being (who, being a spirit being, actually has no blood), but rather to the blood of the human being Jesus, who is God's own (son, servant, prophet, etc.). Being that God provided the blood to his son, it is his own blood, but not blood as though God has a body of flesh and blood, etc.. Similarly, we often may hear it be said that a son has the blood of his father running through his veins. This does not make a son the same human being as his father.

Nothing in the verse says that Jesus is God Almighty. There is definitely nothing in the verse about three persons in one being or three persons all of whom are wholly God Almighty, or that God is more than one person, or that Jesus exists on two levels of consciousness at the same time, etc.

---Ronald R. Day, Sr., Restoration Light Bible Study Services (RLBible, ResLight)

Colossians 1:15 – Firstborn Of The New Creation?

Acts 17:31 - The Man That God Ordained

{Acts 17:31} Because he has appointed [a] day in which he comes to judge the world in righteousness by means of [a] man whom he appointed, having provided a guarantee to all, having raised him out of [the] dead."

This scripture is often presented by trinitarians and some others as proof that Jesus is still a man; and many also have offered this scripture as proof of the claim that Jesus now has two "natures", one nature alleged to be that of the Supreme Being, and another nature being that of a human being.

We should first note that "he" who appointed the day, ordained Jesus, and raised Jesus from the dead, is identified in context as being "God" -- only one person -- in harmony with John 17:1,3 and 1 Corinthians 8:6. The Greek words meaning God and "Godhead" (King James Version - Acts 17:29) of Acts 17 are therefore referring to only one person, and it is this same unipersonal "God" who has appointed a day in which the world is to judged, and who gives that guarantee to all men of that judgment by raising the one whom He ordained out of death.

Jesus, of course, sacrificed his body of flesh to pay for our sins. (Luke 22:19; John 6:51; Hebrews 10:10) The scriptures thus speak of the days of his flesh as being in the past. (Hebrews 5:7) He is no longer a human being (man) which is defined in the Bible as being "a little lower than the angels." (Psalm 8:4,5; Hebrews 2:6-8) Jesus, however, has been exalted far above the angels; he is no longer "a little lower than the angels". (Hebrews 2:9) If Jesus still has his body of flesh and bones in heaven, then Jesus never completed his sacrifice for our sins, or else he took back his sacrifice, and we have no redeemer.

Since a man, as meaning a human being, is a little lower than the angels (Psalm 8:4,5; Hebrews 2:5-8), this does not describe Jesus as he is now, for he has been highly exalted far above all dominion, including that of the angels. (Ephesians 1:3,17-23; 1 Corinthians 15:27; Colossians 2:9,10; 1 Peter 3:22) Furthermore, Hebrews 5:7 lets us know that Jesus is no longer in the days of his flesh. Indeed, since Jesus came to give his flesh for the life of the world (John 6:51), he no longer has any need to be a human being of flesh. Furthermore, since the condemnation upon Adam would have been eternal had it not been for Jesus' sacrifice, Jesus, as a human being must remain dead for all eternity in order to be the satisfaction of paying the wages of sin. (1 Corinthians 15:21,22; Romans 5:12-19; 6:23) Thus, Peter wrote: "Christ also suffered for sins once, the righteous for the unrighteous, that he might bring you to God." (1 Peter 3:18) And then Peter says that Jesus had been "put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit." Jesus did indeed give his body of flesh and its blood on our behalf (Luke 22:19; Hebrews 10:10). Since there is no more sacrifice for sin, as we said, Jesus has no need now to be a man, flesh, earthly, with a body which is sustained by blood. (Leviticus 17:11,14) It was not just Jesus' blood that was sacrificed, but it also his body of flesh.

Thus, whatever Paul meant by the word "man" as applied to Jesus in Acts 17:31, we can be certain that Paul was not saying that Jesus is still a human being in heaven. Indeed, elsewhere, Paul kept the glory of a celestial body and the glory of a terrestrial body separate from each other (1 Corinthians 15:35-41); the glory of the fleshly body he associated only with the terrestrial glory. He never associated the glory of the fleshly body with the celestial glory, which he obviously corresponds to the glory of a spiritual body; thus the crown of glory (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7) that belongs to "man" is the terrestrial glory, not the celestial glory. This was indeed the crown of glory that Jesus had when he became flesh (John 1:14; Hebrews 2:9), which fleshly glory Jesus sacrificed in death so that he "tasted death for every man".

The word "man" [Greek transliterated, Aner, Strong's #435] does not always mean human being. In Luke 24:4, two angels are referred to as "men". This word also describes the church as becoming a "full grown man". (Ephesians 4:13) Thus, some claim that by "man" in Acts 17:31, Paul was referring to the whole man of Jesus as Paul later described, that is, Jesus as head and the church as a body. While this may be, more than likely, however, in view of the reference Jesus' resurrection from the dead, Paul was simply being accommodating in Acts 17:31, using "man" in the sense of a person, not that he had meant to say that Jesus is still a human being, with some kind spiritualized, invisible, body of flesh in heaven. The Bible never speaks of such.

See links to relate studies at:
Is Jesus Now Flesh?

Son of Man and Son of God

Daniel 7:9,13,22 – Is Jesus the Ancient of Days?

Is Jesus the "Ancient of Days" spoken of in Daniel 7?

Daniel 7:9

I saw until thrones were placed, and one who was ancient of days sat: his clothing was white as snow, and the hair of his head like pure wool; his throne was fiery flames, [and] the wheels of it burning fire. -- World English.

Daniel 7:13

I saw in the night-visions, and, behold, there came with the clouds of the sky one like a son of man, and he came even to the ancient of days, and they brought him near before him. --World English.

Daniel 7:22

until the ancient of days came, and judgment was given to the saints of the Most High, and the time came that the saints possessed the kingdom. -- World English.

According to some, one of the titles (or “names”)  of Jesus is “Ancient of Days”. One has claimed: “The book of Daniel also speaks of Christ, Who is represented as both the Ancient of Days and the Son of man.” Another claims: “Jesus is the Ancient of Days, the one on the throne, our judge, our redeemer.” It is also claimed: “Daniel 7:21-22 verifies that ‘the Ancient of days’ is Jesus Christ.” These offer scriptures that, with only a surface examination, may seem to support their conclusions, but when the scriptures are examined closely, we believe that this conclusion is not valid.

On the other hand, many, if not most, trinitarian scholars do realize that the Ancient of Days is the Father of Jesus, but claim that Jesus and the Ancient of Days are both one God.

Some others claim that Jesus is the Ancient of Days and he is also the one described as like “a son of a man,” claiming the dualism or "hypostatic union" of Jesus being both God Almighty and a human being. Of course, in reality, no such concept that Jesus is two beings [God Almighty/Supreme Being and man/ human being] at the same time is ever even once presented in the Bible. It is another of the extra-Biblical concepts that has been formulated beyond what is found in the Bible, and then added to, and read into, many scriptures, in order to accommodate the trinitarian concept, which concept is also no where to be found in any scripture.

The scriptures do, however, reveal that the one who appeared like a son of man in Daniel’s prophetic vision is Jesus, and the Ancient of Days is the One described in the Revelation is He who sits on the throne, that is, Jehovah, the God of Jesus.

Who Is, Was, To Come – Jesus?

Nevertheless, the designation in Daniel 7:13 may seem to some to refer to Jesus simply as a man, as it is applied to the mankind in general in Psalm 8:4 and Hebrews 2:6, and to Jesus specifically as a man in Hebrews 2:9, as he was in the days of his flesh. (Hebrews 5:7) If we carefully anslyze what is stated, we find that Daniel does not say that he saw “the son of man,” but that he saw one “like” a son of a man. This would indicate an appearance of the one who comes in the clouds as though he were a son of a man, but not actually so, evidently similar to the the way the angels appeared to Abraham as “men”, when they were not actually men. Many translations add the word “the” before “son of man”, but the Hebrew does not have it. Likewise, there is no definite article before the word “man”. In other words the expression in Daniel 7:13 is indefinite on both nouns, while the expression -- in the New Testament Greek -- that is usually used of Jesus to designate him as the Messiah is literally translated as “son of the man,” containing to definite article before the word for "man", which apparently designates the Messiah the son of the man David. In Matthew 24:30; 26:64; Mark 13:26; 14:62; Luke 21:27, for instance, we find that Jesus is depicted, not as one like a son of a man, but as the "Son of the Man," evidently referring to Jesus with a Messianic title as being the promised son of the man, David. (Matthew 1:1; 9:6,27; 10:23; 11:19; 12:8,23,32,40; 13:37,41; 16:13,27,28; 17:9,12,22; 18:11; 19:28; 20:18; 22:42; 24:27,30,37,39,44; 25:13,31; 26:2,24; 26:45; Luke 1:32,69; 3:31; John 7:42; Acts 13:34; Romans 1:3; 2 Timothy 2:8; Revelation 3:7; 22:16) Most translations, however, fail to distinguish between the two phrases, "son of a man," and "son of the man," so the distinction between the two terms are not made apparent. In Revelation 14:14, however, the expression in the Greek is not definite, but indefinite, "son of a man," and corresponds to Daniel 7:13. In both scriptures, Jesus is spoken of as being like a son of man, not that he was actually human being.

We also should note that in Daniel we are dealing with a vision of symbolism, which symbolism represent realities. In those visions, what Daniel saw being symbolically depicted is how Jesus appears symbolically to the world, as with clouds. This symbolism is also used in Isaiah 5:30, which coincides with the time of trouble that Daniel (Daniel 12:1) later speaks of. “They shall roar against them in that day like the roaring of the sea: and if one look to the land [earth], behold, darkness [and] distress; and the light is darkened in the clouds of it.” Clouds are also be used in the Bible in connection with glory. (Exodus 16:10; 40:35) Jesus speaks of his coming with glory, saying: “then the sign of the Son of [the] Man will appear in the sky. Then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of [the] Man coming on the clouds of the sky with power and great glory.” (Matthew 24:30) “I tell you, henceforth [after this] you will see the Son of [the] Man sitting at the right hand of Power, and coming on the clouds of the sky.” (Matthew 26:64) “Then will they see the Son of [the] Man coming in clouds with great power and glory.” (Mark 13:26) “You will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of the sky.” (Mark 14:62) And the angel of Jehovah stated in the Revelation concerning Jesus: “He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, including those who pierced him. All the tribes of the earth will mourn over him.” (Revelation 1:7) Thus the one like a son of man is described by Jesus being the same as the son of the man (the man, David), that is, Jesus himself. 

Daniel 7:13 - I saw in the night-visions, and, behold, there came with the clouds of the sky one like a son of man, and he came even to the ancient of days, and they brought him near before him. -- World English.

Obviously, two persons are depicted here: The ancient of days and the "done like a son of [a] man." 

The “Ancient of Days” is understood by many Protestant  Bible commentators to be applied to the God and Father of Jesus,  and from the trinitarian standpoint, it is often assumed to represent the first person of their alleged triune God. John Gill states regarding the Ancient of Days in Daniel 7:9:

And the Ancient of days did sit; on one of the thrones pitched, as chief Judge: this is to be understood of God the Father, as distinct from the Messiah, the Son of God, said to be like the Son of man brought unto him, Daniel 7:13 and is so called, not only because he is from everlasting, and without beginning of days; but chiefly because he is permanent, and endures for ever; his years fail not, and of his days there will be no end; and he will be when these empires, signified by the four beasts, will be no more; and very fit to be Judge of them, because of his consummate wisdom and prudence, signified also by this phrase; and the divine Father of Christ is still more proper, because it is in Christ's cause the judgment will proceed; and this in order to introduce him openly into his dominions in the world.

Concerning the one like a son of man in verse 13, Gill states:

And, behold one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven; not Judas Maccabaeus, as Porphyry; nor the Roman people, as Grotius; nor the people of Israel, as Aben Ezra; nor the people of the saints of the most High, as Cocceius; but the Messiah, as most Christian interpreters, and even the Jews themselves, both ancient and modern, allow. 

Gill, John. "Commentary on Daniel 7".

"The New John Gill Exposition of the Entire Bible".

  https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/geb/daniel-7.html. 1999.

Matthew Henry says regarding Ancient of Days in Daniel 7:9:

The Ancient of days - God Almighty; and this is the only place in the sacred writings where God the Father is represented in a human form.

And regarding he who is like a son of a man:

The Messiah is here called the Son of man--one like unto the Son of man for he was made in the likeness of sinful flesh, was found in fashion as a man. I saw one like unto the Son of man, one exactly agreeing with the idea formed in the divine counsels of him that in the fulness of time was to be the Mediator between God and man. He is like unto the son of man, but is indeed the Son of God. Our Savior seems plainly to refer to this vision when he says (John 5:27) that the Father has therefore given him authority to execute judgment because he is the Son of man, and because he is the person whom Daniel saw in vision, to whom a kingdom and dominion were to be given.

Henry, Matthew. "Complete Commentary on Daniel 7:4".

"Matthew Henry Complete Commentary on the Whole Bible".

 https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/mhm/daniel-7.html. 1706.

Adam Clarke states of Ancient of Days in verse 9:

The Ancient of days - God Almighty; and this is the only place in the sacred writings where God the Father is represented in a human form.

Regarding verse 13, Clarke states:

One like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven - This most certainly points out the Lord Jesus, אנש בר bar enosh, the Son of miserable man; who took our nature upon him that he might redeem us unto himself. To prove himself to be the Messiah he applies, before the high priests, these words of the Prophet Daniel to himself Matthew 24:30.

Near before him - The Ancient of days.

Clarke, Adam. "Commentary on Daniel 7:4".

"The Adam Clarke Commentary".

https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/acc/daniel-7.html. 1832

We believe that the “Ancient of Days” represents Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus, but the idea that the Ancient of Days is the first person of an alleged triune God has to be assumed in the realm of human imagination, added to, and read into what is stated. 

We have been asked two questions:

a.  Who is the Ancient of Days? Our answer is that the Ancient of Days is Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus.

b.  Was He the one sitting on the throne of whom the Son of Man came or he is the one coming for the saints to possess the kingdom? Our answer is that the Ancient of Days is the one sitting on the throne, and that the Ancient of Days is not the one who is like a son of man.

The person who asks the above questions concludes from these questions that  “the Father and the Son are one God.”

Although we are not certain exactly the purpose of for the questions, evidently it is in some vague way meant to claim that Jesus and His God and Father are one God. Apparently, the thought is that by connecting some of the words that are related to both Ancient of Days and also the one designated as like a son of man, that this means that both are God.

Some claim that Jesus is the Ancient of Days because judgment is spoken of in connection with the Ancient of Days, and we read that Jesus judges the living and the dead. (1 Timothy 4:1) The reality is that the Ancient of Days (Jehovah) comes to judge the world through the one whom he as ordained, his Son Jesus Christ. (Psalm 96:13; 98:9; Acts 17:13; Romans 2:16) This does not mean that the one whom God ordained to judge the world is God, or a person of God.

Jesus stated:

John 5:22 - For neither does the Father judge any man, but he has given all judgment to the Son.

The God and Father of Jesus does not directly do the judging; he has committing all the judging to His Son.

Thus, in Acts 17:13, we find that one person who is God in the preceding verses will judge by means of Jesus, whom God has ordained to do such judging. But there will more who will be judging along with Jesus:

Speaking prophetically, Daniel says:

“Judgment was given to the saints of the Most High, and the time came that the saints possessed the kingdom.” — Daniel 7:22.

This speaks of the saints, in that the authority to judge was given to the saints.

The language used in Daniel 7:22 is basically the same language that is used of Jesus in John 5:22:

For neither does the Father judge any man, but he has given all judgment to the Son. — World English.

Additionally, Paul states:

Don’t you know that the saints will judge the world? — 1 Corinthians 6:2.

And we also read:

Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly I tell you, that you who have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of Man will sit on the throne of his glory, you also will sit on twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. — Matthew 19:28.

Likewise, John wrote prophetically of those who participate in the first resurrection:

I saw thrones, and they sat on them, and judgment was given to them. — Revelation 20:4.

Furthermore, the Hebrew word translated as given in Daniel 7:27 is the same word that is used in Daniel 7:27, which states:

And the kingdom and the dominion, and the greatness of the kingdoms under the whole heaven, shall be given to the people of the saints of the Most High. Their kingdom is an everlasting kingdom, and all dominions shall serve and obey them.

In Daniel 7:27, it is not that the kingdom is given on behalf of the saints, but rather it means that the kingdom is given to the saints, and they actually receive the authority and power to rule. Likewise, in Daniel 7:22, it is not that the judgment is given on behalf of the saints, but rather the power and authority is given to saints so that they judge both the world of mankind and the angels.  -- 1 Corinthians 6:2,3.

The Ancient of Days is said to come to judge, and also the son comes to judge, but by a comparison of scriptures we realize that  the Ancient of Days comes to judge representatively through, or by means of his Son, whom he has ordained. (Acts 17:31) As we stated, however, none of this means that Jesus and his God are both one God, etc. Any such thought has to imagined and assumed upon what the scriptures actually say.

But the real point is that he who is like a son of a man is brought before He who is "Ancient of Days." Jesus, being the brought before the Ancient of Days, is therefore, not the Ancient of Days before whom he brought.

The Ancient of Days corresponds to He who is on the throne, He who is, was and is to come, of Revelation 1:4,8; 4:8-10; 5:1,7; 6:16; 7:10,15; 19:4; 21:5.

He who is like a son of a man in Daniel 7:13 corresponds to the figurative "lamb" of Revelation 5:6,8,12,13; 6:1,16; 7:9,10,14,17 and he who is like a son of a man in Revelation 1:13; 14:14. In Daniel 7:13, the one like a son of man is brought before the Ancient of Days; in Revelation 5:7, the lamb is pictured as coming before He who is the throne, and takes the book out of the right hand of him who is on the throne. Jesus, therefore is not being pictured in Daniel 7 as the Ancient of Days, but as the one who is brought before the Ancient of Days.

Some Related Studies:

Revelation 1:8 - Is Jesus or Jehovah Being Quoted?

Son of Man and Son of God


Comments/Objections

One has presented several objections/assertions regarding our conclusion that the Ancient of Days refers, not to Jesus, but his God. We addressing these one at a time below:

1) "Since Jesus Christ has no beginning of Days nor end of life." The fact is no scripture presents such an idea. Some may read such an idea into Hebrews 7:3, but that is not what it says. See our study:

Melchizedek and Jesus' Priesthood

2) "And since he is God." Assuming "God" here to mean "Supreme Being," the fact is that no scripture presents Jesus as being the Supreme Being. In the Bible, only the God and Father of Jesus is presented as being the Supreme Being. See our study:

Jesus is not Jehovah (Yahweh)

3) "The reference you provided is provided by the Holy Spirit to help us distinguish between the Father and the Son." Since the one God of whom are all (1 Corinthians 8:6) is always distinguished from being the Son of the one God of whom are all, yes, the same distinction is presented in Daniel 7.

This statement, however, is evidently meant to refer to the trinitarian 3 persons of God. Since the Bible never presents the one God of whom are all (1 Corinthians 8:6) as being more than one person, the idea of distinguishing the imagined and assumed persons of the imagined and assumed trinitarian God scripturally has no relevance to Daniel 7.

4) "As God, Jesus had no beginning!" Again assuming "God" to mean Supreme Being, no scripture presents Jesus as as the Supreme Being, and no scripture presents Jesus as having no beginning, although this idea is read into several scriptures. See links to various studies provided on our page:

Did Jesus Have an Eternal Past?

5) "As a man, he cane into existence approximately 2,000 years ago in the little town of Bethlehem." This we agree with; the Logos of God, who was with God, was before a became flesh, a mighty spirit being, but he was not the Supreme Being whom he had been with. The body (substance) that Jesus had before he became flesh was that which Paul likened to a celestial body -- substance), which Paul contrasts with the terrestrial, flesh, physical body (substance). (1 Corinthians 15:39-41) Jesus, while he was in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), possessed the sinless glory of a human being (Romans 3:23; 2 Corinthians 5:21; 1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5), a little lower than the angels. -- Psalm 8:4,5; Hebrews 2:6-9.

Before he became flesh, however, he had a different glory -- a different body (substance), the celestial glory, which he asked to be returned to him. Thus, he did not possess two forms of substance at once as trinitarians and oneness believers claim. -- John 17:5.

See our studies on Jesus' Prehuman Existence

6) "The Jewish understanding of God only permits for the belief in a Mono (singular) theistic understanding." Monotheism as a word is definted aside from the Bible. As such it is not in the Bible. The Jewish adoption of this term, we believe, is appropriate, however, in the definition given is the belief that there is only one God. "God" with a capital "G" usually refers to Supreme Being. The Bible does present only one Supreme Being, and Paul identifies that one Supreme Being as being the God and Father of Jesus. -- 1 Corinthians 8:6; Ephesians 1:3.

If however, "monotheism" is defined as meaning that forms the Hebrew and Greek words for God (often transliterated as EL and THEOS) cannot be used of any except Jehovah or false gods, this would  be incorrect, since the Bible does use these words of many others than Jehovah or false gods, and thus they can be used also of the Son of the Most High without meaning that Jesus is the Most High Jehovah. See our study:

The Hebraic Usage of the Titles for "God"

7) "The Schema of Deuteronomy 6:4 allows for a unified plurality of being for the Lord." We are assuming that this is meant to say that there is something written in Deuteronomy 6:4 that gives meaning to the trinitarian claim that Jehovah is three persons. Some claim that the word "one" can mean more than one person, and it can, as speaking of one group, figurative body, family, etc. In such, however, one one member of the group is never equal to the totality of group. If this is applied to the trinity doctrine, it would mean that Jesus is part of, but not wholly and fully, the Supreme Being; it would mean that the Father is part of, but not wholly and fully the Supreme Being, and likewise with Jehovah's Holy Spirit. The reality is that there is nothing in Deuteronomy 8:6 that supports the trinitarian claims. For more related to this, see our study:

The Meaning of Echad

1 Corinthians 2:8 – Lord Of Glory

The Lord of Glory

When Paul wrote of Jesus as "Lord of glory" in 1 Corinthians 2:8, was he saying that Jesus is Jehovah?

For had they known it, they wouldn’t have crucified the Lord of glory. — 1 Corinthians 2:8, World English.

The claim is sometimes made that 1 Corinthians 2:8 proves that Jesus is Jehovah (Yahweh), “the King of glory.” The way this is allegedly proved is that 1 Corinthians 2:8 is crossed with the following scriptures, by which it is supposed that this proves that Jesus is Jehovah (Yahweh):

{Psalm 24:7} Lift up your heads, you gates! Be lifted up, you everlasting doors, and the King of glory will come in.
{Psalm 24:8} Who is the King of glory? Jehovah strong and mighty, Jehovah mighty in battle.
{Psalm 24:9} Lift up your heads, you gates; yes, lift them up, you everlasting doors, and the King of glory will come in.
{Psalm 24:10} Who is this King of glory? Jehovah of Armies is the King of glory! Selah. — RLIV.

At most, what we can see between the two scriptures is that both Jesus and His God have an attribute of “glory”. Nevertheless, any thought that this means that Jesus is Jehovah has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into the scriptures. And then to get trinity into the verses, one has to imagine and assume and add to the first assumption that Jesus is a person of Jehovah, and then add this and read this also into the scriptures.

Although many speak of Jesus as the “King of glory,” this expression, as such, is never used of Jesus in the Bible. It is only used of Jehovah (Yahweh), the God and Father of Jesus, whom Jesus spoke of as the “only true God” (Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3). As such, the expression, “King of glory” in Psalm 24 describes Jehovah’s glory as related to His being King, the ruler of all that he has created. This glory is not something that anyone has given to Him. It is innately His glory, and His right as Most High to be this “King of glory.”

This is not to say that Jesus is not a “king of glory.” Prophetically, Jesus, in speaking of his second appearing, said, “the Son of the Man [the son of the man, David] will sit on the throne of his glory.” (Matthew 19:28) “They will see the Son of the Man coming on clouds of the sky with power and glory.” (Matthew 24:30) “He comes in the glory of himself, of the Father, and of the holy angels.” (Luke 9:26) Thus, at Jesus’ second appearing, his rulership at that time, the power and authority given to him by the only Most High, could be described as a “king of glory.” Unlike Jehovah, however, this kingship of Jesus is given to him from Jehovah his God, in whose strength Jesus stands (Micah 5:4), and Jesus’ kingship is that of lineage of David, who sat on the throne of Jehovah . (1 Chronicles 29:23) All the glory of his rulership is given to him by the only Most High, Jehovah, and reflects the glory of Jehovah, to praise of Jehovah. — Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Daniel 7:13,14; Matthew 12:28; 28:28; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; Acts 2:22; 10:38; Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 15:27; 2 Corinthians 13:4; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:17-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22.

Does what Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 2:8 support the claim that Jesus is Jehovah (Yahweh), the “King of Glory?” Paul wrote: “which none of the rulers of this world has known. For had they known it, they wouldn’t have crucified the Lord of glory.” Jesus is here spoken of as the “Lord of glory.” “The Lord of glory” was crucified. Except in the sense that what was done to Jesus was also considered to be done to the God and Father of Jesus (John 15:23), Jehovah, the only Most High Himself was not crucified. Jesus was made “Lord” by Jehovah. (Isaiah 6:1; Acts 2:36) Jesus’ being made “Lord” and “Christ” by Jehovah does not mean that Jesus became Jehovah.

Our trinitarian neighbors may say that it was not "God the Son" that was crucified, but that it was simply Jesus' manhood that was crucified. If so, it would seem to say that the fleshy body of Jesus is the "Lord of glory", and thus, one would wonder how such would mean that Jesus is Jehovah, the King of glory, who is not a man, having the glory that is a little lower than the angels. -- Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7,9.

It is possible, however, that 1 Corinthians 2:8 refers to Jesus' sinless glory as a human, since, unlike all the offspring of Adam, he never fell short of the glory of his God while he was in the days of his flesh. -- Romans 3:23; 2 Corinthians 5:21; Hebrews 4:15; 1 Peter 2:22.

In reality, there is no scriptural reason to imagine, assume, add to, and read into 1 Corinthians 2:8 that Paul had any intent of saying that Jesus is Jehovah of Psalm 24. There is definitely nothing there that says that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is more than one person, or that Jesus is a person of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, etc.

Illustration at top adapted from image by OpenClipart-Vectors from Pixabay

Romans 10:13 – Whoever Will Call On The Name Of Jehovah

“For, `Whoever will call on the name of Jehovah will be saved [Joel 2:32].'” — Romans 10:13

Some try to prove that Jesus is Jehovah (Yahweh) by pointing to Romans 10:13 and Joel 2:32. The argument is made that Paul is here calling Jesus “Lord”. Since this is a reference to Joel 2:32, where it tells us that whoever calls on the name of Jehovah will be delivered, trinitarians as well as oneness believers claim that this means that Jesus is the same (sentient?) being (or person, in the case of our “oneness” neighbors) as Jehovah. Some translations render Romans 10:13 as calling upon Jehovah (or, as some prefer, Yahweh).

The reality is that there is nothing in Romans 10 that warrants the idea that Jesus is Jehovah who spoke through the prophet Joel. Hebrews 1:1,2 shows that He who spoke to the prophets of old is only one person, and now that one person speaks through someone else who is not Himself, that is, His Son, the Lord Jesus.

Certainly, Jesus is the means that Jehovah has provided for salvation (John 3:16,17), no one can come to Jehovah but through Jesus (John 14:6), and no other means has been given by Jehovah for salvation than through the name of Jesus. (Acts 4:12) Jesus’ name means: “Jehovah saves” or “Jehovah is savior,” which ascribes the actual source of salvation to Jehovah, as all things are of Jehovah, through Jesus. (John 3:16; Romans 5:8,10; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 15:57; 2 Corinthians 5:19-21; Titus 3:5,6; Hebrews 13:21; 1 John 4:9,10) Thus to properly call upon the name of Jesus as the spokesperson and one anointed by Jehovah (Deuteronomy 18:15,18,19; Psalm 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Matthew 12:18; Luke 4:18,21; Acts 3:13-26), would essentially be the same as calling upon the name of Jehovah. (Matthew 10:14; Mark 9:37; Luke 9:48; John 13:20; Romans 1:8; 7:25; 14:26; Philippians 1:11; 2:11) But to ascertain whether Romans 10:13 is calling Jesus “Jehovah”, let us go through the tenth chapter of Romans briefly, to see exactly who Paul speaks of.

Romans 10:1: Brothers, my heart’s desire and my prayer to God is for Israel, that they may be saved.

In verse one, Paul says he prays to God for the salvation of Israel. Who is the God of Israel? This, of course, is Jehovah. (Exodus 3:14,15; 16:12; 20:2; 34:32) In the New Testament, we learn that the God of Israel — Jehovah — is the Father of Jesus. (Deuteronomy 18:15,18,19; Matthew 23:39; Luke 13:35; John 5:43; 8:54; 10:25; Hebrews 1:1,2) Paul thus recognizes Jehovah, the God of Israel as the source of salvation. The God of Israel is differentiated from being Jesus in Romans 10:9. Thus, the default reasoning is not to imagine and assume that Jesus is being called Jehovah in verse 13, but rather that the verse is actually speaking of the one person who is Jehovah who sent Jesus, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who raise Jesus from the dead. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3; Acts 3:13-26.

Romans 10:2: For I testify about them that they have a zeal for God, but not according to knowledge.”
Romans 10:3: For being ignorant of God’s righteousness, and seeking to establish their own righteousness, they didn’t subject themselves to the righteousness of God.”
Romans 10:4: For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.

In these verses, Paul discusses Israel’s relationship with God — Jehovah. He says that they are ignorant of God’s righteousness (Romans 10:3), and sought to make themselves righteous by means of obedience to the Law. Then he reveals that the righteousness of God is in Christ, who is the end of the law [covenant] to everyone who believes. -- Romans 10:40.
See:
“How God’s Son Condemned Sin in the Flesh”

Romans 10:5: For Moses writes about the righteousness of the law, “The one who does them will live by them.”

Paul is still speaking about the relationship of Israel with Jehovah, the God of Israel. Anyone who could keep the Law would be totally righteous, having the right to life thereby. If it were possible to do so, then righteousness and life would have come by the Law. — Galatians 3:21.

Romans 10:6: But the righteousness which is of faith says this, “Don’t say in your heart, ‘Who will ascend into heaven?’ (that is, to bring Christ down);
Romans 10:7: or, ‘Who will descend into the abyss?’ (that is, to bring Christ up from the dead.)”

Those who seek righteousness by faith are, to the extent that God permits, not hidden from the truth. It is not something far off in heaven or in the grave. Those of faith do not have go to heaven to find the Anointed One of Jehovah, nor do they have to go to the grave to try to bring him back from the dead. This thing is not hidden from the one of faith, neither is it afar off — difficult to understand. (See also: Deuteronomy 30:11-14; notice that Paul is not directly quoting Deuteronomy, but he does use similar phraseology.)

Nevertheless, we should note that in this Paul is still writing about the relationship of Israel with the God of Israel, Jehovah. He is showing that the proper way to obtain the righteousness of God is through faith, which he goes on to show is through faith in the ransom sacrifice given by the one whom Jehovah has anointed and sent, that is, Jesus. The only way to be reconciled to Jehovah, the God of Israel is through the one whom Jehovah sent. -- John 14:6; Romans 5:10,12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 2 Corinthians 5:18,19; 1 Timothy 2:5,6; 1 John 2:2.

Romans 10:8: But what does it say? “The word is near you, in your mouth, and in your heart;” that is, the word of faith, which we preach:
Romans 10:9: that if you will confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus, and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Here Paul points out the way to Jehovah’s righteousness as provided through Jesus. (John 3:17; Romans 3:22-24; 5:1,9,10; 2 Corinthians 5:18; Galatians 4:7; 1 Thessalonians 5:9) Paul, as usual, presents "|God' as one person who is not Jesus. We must remember that it is Jehovah who made Jesus “Lord” and “Christ” [Christ means “anointed one”] (Psalm 2:2; 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Acts 2:36) Many read this verse as though only Jesus is spoken of, but we note the context is about Jehovah, the God of Israel, and the salvation he provides through Jesus. “God” in Romans 10:9 refers to only one person, the same person Paul wrote about in 1 Corinthians 8:6 as being the source of all, He who is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob of Exodus 3:14,15 and Acts 3:13-26.

Romans 10:10: For with the heart, one believes unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
Romans 10:11: For the scripture says, “Whoever believes in him will not be put to shame.”

In Romans 10:11, Paul uses language similar to that of Isaiah 28:16: “So, the Lord Jehovah says this: Behold, I place in Zion a Stone for a foundation, a tried Stone, a precious Cornerstone, a sure Foundation; he who believes shall not hasten.” (Green’s Literal) Here is it Jehovah who is the provider of the sure foundation, and then he tells us that he who believes in him, that is, in the foundation provided by Jehovah, shall not be in haste. The one of faith does not have to be anxious about trying to find any other source or any other way of salvation, for it is found in the sure foundation provided by Jehovah, nor does the one of faith in this sure foundation have any reason to have any hint of disappointment or shame in the foundation provided by Jehovah. It is still to Jehovah, not to Jesus, that Israel needs to be reconciled to. Jesus, however, is the only way any can be reconciled to Jehovah, Jesus' God and Father. -- Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3.

Romans 10:12: For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, and is rich to all who call on him.

Here the apostle joins the God of Israel — the God and Father of Jesus — with the believing Greeks (representing those outside the law covenant). Jehovah is the same Lord (the One spoken of as Adonay [or, Adonai] in Isaiah 28:16 just referenced) over all, and will richly bless all who call on him. We believe it probable that in the first instance of "Lord" the copyists changed the Holy Name of God to a form of the word often transliterated as Kurios.* If so, then this should read "the same Jehovah is Lord of all," showing that Jehovah is Lord, not only of the Jew, but also of Greek. At any rate, the “Lord of all” is here evidently referring, not to Jesus, but rather the Lord Jehovah of Isaiah 61:1, He who anointed Jesus, making Jesus both Christ and Lord. — Acts 2:36.
*Links to some of our studies related the Holy Name in the New Testament.

Romans 10:13: For, “Whoever will call on the name of Jehovah will be saved.”

This brings us to the scripture in question. As it reads in the extant manuscripts, a word-for-word translation would be: "Whoever for that shall call upon the name of Lord will be saved." The Greek texts do not have a definite article before Kyriou (a form of Kurios, meaning Lord), which could mean that Kyriou has replaced God's Holy Name in Romans 10:13. If Paul was quoting Joel 2:36, then Paul here makes reference to whoever will call upon the name of Jehovah will be saved. If we consider scriptures leading up to this scripture, it supports the probability that Paul is making reference to Jehovah, the God of Israel, with whom both Jew and Gentile need reconciliation. That reconciliation, however, as the apostle points out, is by faith, not by the keeping of the law.  Definitely, however, if Paul was quoting Joel 2:36, we find that God's Holy Name has been changed to Kyriou  (meaning Lord) in Romans 10:13. The conclusion we come to is that throughout the New Testament, later copyists changed God's Holy Name to other words such as forms of Kurios. While we highly doubt that Paul himself substituted  a form of “Kurios” here for God’s name, even if he did it does not mean that he was not referring to Jehovah for it is Jehovah -- not Jesus -- with whom both Jew and Gentile needs to be reconciled (Romans 5:9,10), and it is from Jehovah, the Father, that a means for salvation has been provided, that is, through his Son, Jesus. — Acts 10:43; 20:21; John 3:17; 6:44; Hebrews 1:1,2.

On the other hand, if Paul was referring to the calling upon the name of the Lord Jesus, then it could mean that he was not quoting Joel 2:36, but simply making a statement regarding the one whom Jehovah sent to be our Savior. Nevertheless, Paul could have simply meant that the only way to call upon Jehovah is through Jesus.

However, in the Greek manuscripts of the New Testament, when it is referring to calling upon the name of the Lord Jesus, one usually finds the definite article before Kurios, but we do not find this in Romans 10:13.  

Romans 10:14: How, then, shall they call on him whom they have not believed? And how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? And shall they hear without a preacher?

Again in verse 14 the thought is primarily of Jehovah, who sent his Son. No one can call upon Jehovah if they don’t believe in him through his Son, Jesus. (Romans 3:22-24; 5:1,11; 7:25; 14:26) The vast majority have never come to Jehovah, he who provided the “ransom for all” through the offering of the man, Christ Jesus, which will be testified, made known, in due time. (1 Timothy 2:5,6) Thus, in due time, all heathen will hear, and they will all be brought to a knowledge of Jehovah and his Son Christ Jesus in the age to come. — Isaiah 2:2-4.
See:
Mankind’s Course to the Day of Judgment

What we do not find in Romans 10, or anywhere else in the Bible, is the concept of a triune God. No such God is ever revealed in the Bible. Nor, does Romans 10 reveal the concept that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob of Exodus 3:14,15, as many read into several scriptures. If Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who spoke through Moses and the prophets, then, to be consistent, one would have to reason that it is Jesus in Hebrews 1:1,2 who speaks through his son, which of course, is not true.

ADDENDUM

"Name of the Lord" in the Greek

The expression, the name of the Lord, as it appears in most translations may be found at: Matthew 21:9; 23:39; Mark 11:9; Luke 13:35; 19:38; John 12:13; Acts 2:21; 8:16; 9:28; 10:48; 19:5,17; 21:13; 22:16; Romans 10:13; 1 Corinthians 6:11; Colossians 3:17; James 5:10, and some other places, depending on the translation being used. For instance, translations based on the Textus Receptus may also have it at Mark 11:10. It is interesting to note that in Matthew 21:9; 23:39; Mark  11:9,10; Luke 13:35; 19:38; John 12:13; Acts 2:21; Romans 10:13; Colossians 3:17, 2 Timothy 2:19; and James 5:10, the Greek word KURIOS is anarthrous, without a definite article. This means that in the Greek the phrase is not "name of the Lord," but rather "name of Lord." The Greek phrase for "name of the Lord" -- with the Greek article before KURIOS -- is found at: Acts 5:26; 19:13,17; 21:31; 1 Corinthians 1:2; 5:4l; 6:11; 1 Thessalonians 1:12; James 5:14. In looking at all these scriptures, we find that usually, when the Holy Name has been changed to KURIOS, it is indefinite, without the definite article, whereas, usually, when it is referring to the Lord Jesus, KURIOS is definite, with the definite article. There are exceptions, but there may be other reasons for the lack of the definite article or the use of the definite article beyond designating a proper name or not. 

by Ronald R. Day, Senior -- Restoration Light (ResLight; RlBible) Bible Study Services

Jeremiah 31:9 – Ephraim As Jehovah’s Firstborn

Who Really is the Power of God?

We have been asked the question, evidently with thought of finding support for the trinity dogma, "Who really is the power of God in the Scriptures?"

The expression "power of God" appears in the World English Bible version 12 times. (Matthew 22:29; Mark 12:24; Luke 22:69; Acts 8:10; Romans 1:16; 1 Corinthians 1:18,24; 2:5; 2 Corinthians 6:7; 13:4; 2 Timothy 1:8; 1 Peter 1:5) It is used in various ways and applied variously as to how it is represented. It is most often applied as "it", not a "who". Of course, God's power is mentioned many other times in the Bible, but I have only presented the exact expression as it appears in English as "power of God."

Matthew 22:29 - But Jesus answered them, “You are mistaken, not knowing the Scriptures, nor the power of God."

Mark 12:24 Jesus answered them, “Isn’t this because you are mistaken, not knowing the Scriptures, nor the power of God?"

Here Jesus was speaking the Sadducees who tried to trick him regarding the resurrection. Jesus does not apply the expression "the power of God" as being a "who."

Some may claim that Jesus was speaking of himself as being the "power of God"; if this is so, then it would only mean that Jesus is the instrument of God's power, and it would further mean that he recognized God as being only one person. Such would harmonize with 1 Corinthians 8:6.

Luke 22:69 From now on, the Son of Man will be seated at the right hand of the power of God.”

Here Jesus applies the expression "power of God", not as being a "who", but rather as related to his position relative to that power. Again, he does not represent "power of God" as being a "who." Additionally, it is obvious that Jesus believed "God" to be only one person, and that he was to sit at the right hand of power with that one person.

Acts 8:10 to whom they all listened, from the least to the greatest, saying, “This man is that great power of God.”

Here the people of Samaria are quoted and they do apply the expression "power of God" to a man: Simon the sorcerer. It should be obvious, however, that they were using the Greek form transliterated as "estin" (Strong's #1510)  -- is -- in the sense of representation.

Romans 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the Good News of Christ, for it is the power of God for salvation for everyone who believes; for the Jew first, and also for the Greek.

Paul here does not apply the expression to a "who" but to a "what", stating that the "Good News" is (Greek, transliterated, estin) the power of God, for a purpose, that is, for salvation. Again, it should be apparent that the Greek word "estin" is used in the sense of representation of God's power in what is being spoken of. It should also be obvious that Paul believed that "God" is only one person, and that "Christ" is the one anointed by that one person who is "God".


1 Corinthians 1:18 For the word of the cross is foolishness to those who are dying, but to us who are saved it is the power of God.

Here Paul again uses the Greek word transliterated a "estin" in representative sense. "It" refers to the "word", which in turn is referring Paul's preaching concerning the cross (not the instrument, but the act of crucifixion that took place on the instrument).

Again, one may claim that the Word here is Jesus, although it is highly unlikely that Paul meant this. Obviously, Paul is using the term "word" to signify the message of Christ's dying on the cross, not that Jesus is the word itself.

Additionally, it should also be noted that Paul is using the term "word" as being the instrument of God's power, not that it literally is God's power.

1 Corinthians 1:23-24 - but we preach Christ crucified; a stumbling block to Jews, and foolishness to Greeks, [24] but to those who are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ is the power of God and the wisdom of God.


1 Corinthians 1:23
heemeis de keerussomen christon estaurwmenon
WE BUT ARE PREACHING CHRIST HAVING BEEN PUT ON STAKE,
1473_7 1161 2784 5547 4717
ioudaiois men skandalon ethnesin de mwrian
TO JEWS INDEED FALL CAUSER TO NATIONS BUT FOOLISHNESS,
2453 3303 4625 1484 1161 3472

1 Corinthians 1:24
autois de tois kleetois ioudaiois te kai
TO THEM BUT TO THE CALLED (ONES), TO JEWS AND AND
0846_93 1161 3588 2822 2453 5037 2532
0846_99
helleesin christon theou dunamin kai theou sophian
TO GREEKS, CHRIST OF GOD POWER AND OF GOD WISDOM.
1672 5547 2316 1411 2532 2316 4678 -- Westcott & Hort Interlinear.

This is only place that one might consider a "who" as being referring to as the "power of God", although in the Greek it does not actually say that. Additionally, there is not a form of the Greek word "eimi" (is - Strong's 1510) in either 1 Corinthians 1:23 or 1 Corinthians 1:24, so translators add "is" where they believe it should be. Nevertheless, adding "is" into the verse in the way it appears in the World English (and many other translations) would be representative of the preaching of Christ, which is understood in verse 24 by what is said in verse 23. In other words, to those who believe, the preaching of Christ does not represent "foolishness" nor a "stumblingblock", but rather it represents the power of God and wisdom of God.

Again, it is obvious that Paul believed "God" to be one person, and that Christ is the one anointed by that one person who is God.

2 Corinthians 13:4 For he was crucified through weakness, yet he lives through the power of God. For we also are weak in him, but we will live with him through the power of God toward you.

In this verse, Jesus is said to living through (out of) the power of God, and also the saints are spoken of living through (out of) the same power of God. In this verse Jesus is not spoken of as being the power of God, and certainly not as being "God", but rather Jesus' being alive is due to the power of God. Indeed, it should be very obvious here that Paul believed that "God" is one person, and that Jesus' life is dependent on the power of that one person who is God.

2 Timothy 1:7-9 World English Bible (WEB)

7 For God didn’t give us a spirit of fear, but of power, love, and self-control. 8 Therefore don’t be ashamed of the testimony of our Lord, nor of me his prisoner; but endure hardship for the Good News according to the power of God, 9 who saved us and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given to us in [Strong's 1722, instrumental, "by means of"] Christ Jesus before times eternal.

Here we find salvation connected to the expression "power of God". "God" in this expression is referring not to Jesus, but rather to only one person: the God and Father of Jesus, since Jesus is distinguished from "God" in verse 9.

1 Peter 1:5 who by [instrumental Strong's #1722, by means of] the power of God are guarded through faith for a salvation ready to be revealed in the last time.

Here Peter does not apply the expression "power of God" as "who" but simply refers to it as the instrument the saints use for protection through faith.

Of course, what we do not find in any of these verses (or anywhere else in the entire Bible) is any idea that God is more than one person, or that Jesus is a person of God; indeed, throughout these verses God is only one person.

Psalm 110:1 and the Identity of David’s “Lord”: A Scriptural Analysis

Psalms 110:1 - Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool.  -- American Standard Version.

(This study is being edited) 

Psalm 110:1 is frequently cited in discussions about the identity of Jesus and his relationship to Jehovah (Yahweh). Many trinitarian interpreters argue that because David refers to “my Lord,” and because the New Testament applies this verse to Jesus, David must have been addressing a divine person within a triune Godhead. According to this view, one “person” of Jehovah speaks to another “person” of Jehovah, implying that Jesus is Jehovah Himself.

A closer examination of the biblical text, however, shows that Psalm 110:1 does not require such a conclusion. The passage is prophetic, and its fulfillment occurs only after Jesus’ resurrection and exaltation—not during David’s lifetime, nor during Jesus’ earthly ministry.

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Did David Speak to Jesus in Psalm 110:1?

Scripture does teach that Jesus existed before the creation of the world of mankind (John 1:1–3; 17:5). In that sense, David could have addressed the pre-human Jesus. Yet Psalm 110:1 provides no evidence that David was doing so. Even if he were, this would not mean that David’s Lord is Jehovah Himself.

David often speaks prophetically in the Psalms, and Psalm 110 is no exception. The New Testament writers consistently interpret Psalm 110:1 as a prophecy fulfilled after Jesus’ resurrection.

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When Did Jesus Sit at God’s Right Hand?

The biblical record is clear: Jesus sat at Jehovah’s right hand only after his resurrection and ascension.

• Mark 16:19 – Jesus “was received up into heaven, and sat down at the right hand of God.”

• Acts 2:34–36 – Peter explains that David did not ascend to heaven but spoke prophetically of the exalted Christ. God “made him both Lord and Christ.”

• Ephesians 1:17–21 – Paul states that “the God of our Lord Jesus Christ” raised Jesus and seated him at His right hand, far above all authorities.

• Hebrews 1:3 – After making purification for sins, Jesus “sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high.”

• 1 Peter 3:22 – Jesus is now at God’s right hand, with angels and powers subject to him.

These passages confirm that Jesus became the enthroned “Lord” of Psalm 110:1 only after his resurrection—not before.

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Jesus’ Question About David’s Lord

Jesus himself raised the issue in Matthew 22:42–45 (cf. Mark 12:35–37; Luke 20:41–44). He asked how the Messiah could be both David’s son and David’s Lord. Revelation 22:16 provides the answer: Jesus is both “the root and the offspring of David.” As the resurrected, life-giving spirit (1 Corinthians 15:45), Jesus becomes Lord even over David, for he will raise David from the dead (Romans 14:9).

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“Lord” as a Title of Superiority, Not Deity

In ancient times, angels sent by God were addressed as “lord” because they were superior to humans. Likewise, the pre-human Jesus was superior to mankind. During his earthly life, Jesus remained sinless (Hebrews 5:7; 10:5), making him morally superior to those around him. As Jehovah’s appointed agent and teacher, he rightly said, “You call me ‘Teacher’ and ‘Lord,’ and you say well, for so I am” (John 13:13).

Yet this is not the same “Lord” of Psalm 110:1. Jesus did not become that Lord until after his resurrection (Romans 14:9).

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The Importance of God’s Name in Psalm 110:1

Many English translations obscure the meaning of Psalm 110:1 by replacing God’s personal name, Jehovah (Yahweh), with the title “the Lord.” This creates the appearance of two identical “Lords,” which can mislead readers into thinking the verse supports Trinitarian theology.

Translations that preserve the divine name make the distinction clear:

• “Jehovah said unto my Lord…” — Darby

• “The affirmation of Jehovah to my Lord…” — Young’s Literal

• “A declaration of Yahweh to my Lord…” — Rotherham

• “Yahweh says to my Lord…” — World English Bible

In every case, Jehovah is one person—the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob (Exodus 3:14–15)—and David’s “lord” is someone distinct from Jehovah.

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Does “My Lord” Refer to David Himself?

Some Jewish interpreters argue that “my lord” refers to David, supposedly spoken by Levitical singers. This interpretation fails for several reasons:

1. Psalm 110 never mentions Levitical singers.

2. The context identifies the speaker as David himself.

3. David could not be “a priest forever after the order of Melchizedek” (Psalm 110:4), since David died.

4. The New Testament explicitly applies Psalm 110:1 to Jesus, not David (Acts 2:34–36; Hebrews 1:13).

The psalm speaks of a living, eternal priest-king—fulfilled only in the resurrected Christ.

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The New Testament Identifies David’s Lord

The New Testament provides the inspired interpretation of Psalm 110:

• Jesus is the exalted Lord at God’s right hand.

• Jesus is the eternal priest after the order of Melchizedek.

• Jesus inherits the throne of David and brings the promised blessings to all nations.

This theme appears throughout Scripture: Genesis 3:15; 2 Samuel 7:11–13; Psalm 2:6–8; Isaiah 9:6–7; Daniel 7:27; Luke 1:32–33; Acts 2:22–36; Ephesians 1:20–22; Hebrews 1:3,13; 1 Peter 3:22; Revelation 22:16, and many others.

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Conclusion

Psalm 110:1 does not depict two persons within a triune God. Instead, it presents:

• Jehovah, the one God of Israel, speaking.

• David’s Lord, the Messiah, who would be exalted after his resurrection.

• A prophetic declaration fulfilled in Jesus’ ascension and enthronement.

The psalm distinguishes Jehovah from the Messiah while affirming the Messiah’s exalted role in God’s plan. Jesus becomes David’s Lord not because he is Jehovah, but because Jehovah raised him, exalted him, and appointed him as the eternal priest-king who will rule in righteousness and restore life to all humanity.

Acts 2:17-21 – Did Peter Apply God’s Holy Name To Jesus?

It is being claimed that Peter, as recorded in Acts 2:17-21, makes several appeals to “YHWH” texts in the Hebrew Bible and applies them to Jesus. In reading Acts 2:17-21, however, we find that such a thought has to actually read into what Peter stated.

Acts 2:14-36, World English Bible translation, with our notations added:

Acts 2:14 But Peter, standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and spoke out to them, “You men of Judea, and all you who dwell at Jerusalem, let this be known to you, and listen to my words.

Acts 2:15 For these aren’t drunken, as you suppose, seeing it is only the third hour of the day.

Acts 2:16 But this is what has been spoken through the prophet Joel:

Acts 2:17 ‘It will be in the last days, says God [The Greek Theos has probably been substituted for the holy name, Yahweh/Jehovah (Joel 2:19); Jehovah is the God and Father of Jesus (1 Peter 1:3), He who sent Jesus — Isaiah 61:1], I will pour forth of my Spirit on all flesh. Your sons and your daughters will prophesy. Your young men will see visions. Your old men will dream dreams. (Joel 2:28)

Acts 2:18 Yes, and on my servants and on my handmaidens in those days, I will pour out my Spirit, and they will prophesy. (Joel 2:29)

Acts 2:19 I will show wonders in the the sky above, And signs on the earth beneath; Blood, and fire, and billows of smoke. (Joel 2:30)

Acts 2:20 The sun will be turned into darkness, And the moon into blood, Before the great and glorious day of the Lord [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus] comes. (Joel 2:31)

Acts 2:21 It will be, that whoever will call on the name of the Lord [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus] will be saved.’ (Joel 2:32)

Acts 2:22 “You men of Israel, hear these words. Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved by God [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus] to you by mighty works and wonders and signs which God [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus] did by him in the midst of you, even as you yourselves know,

Acts 2:23 him, being delivered up by the determined counsel and foreknowledge of God [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus], you have taken by the hand of lawless men, crucified and killed;

Acts 2:24 whom God [Jehovah, the God of Jesus] raised up, having freed him from the agony of death [not eternal suffering], because it was not possible that he should be held by it.

Acts 2:25 For David says concerning him, ‘I [Jesus] saw the Lord [Jehovah] always before my face, For he is on my right hand, that I should not be moved. (Jesus is depicted, not as being Jehovah, but as having Jehovah as his right hand.)

Acts 2:26 Therefore my heart was glad, and my tongue rejoiced. Moreover my [Jesus’] flesh also will dwell [reside] in hope;

Acts 2:27 Because you [Jehovah] will not leave my [Jesus’] soul in Hades [death, not eternal suffering], Neither will you allow your Holy One to see decay.

Acts 2:28 You [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus] made known to me [Jesus] the ways of life. You [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus] will make me full of gladness with your presence.’

Acts 2:29 “Brothers, I may tell you freely of the patriarch David, that he both died and was buried, and his tomb is with us to this day.

Acts 2:30 Therefore, being a prophet, and knowing that God [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus] had sworn with an oath to him [David] that of the fruit of his body, according to the flesh, he [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus] would raise up the Christ to sit on his throne,

Acts 2:31 he [David] foreseeing this spoke about the resurrection of the Christ, that neither was his soul left in Hades [Jesus’ soul is not now suffering for eternity in hades/sheol to pay the wages of sin, Jesus died for our sins] , nor did his flesh see decay [His flesh was to be paid to God in heaven as the offering for sin].

Acts 2:32 This Jesus God [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus] raised up, whereof we all are witnesses.

Acts 2:33 [Jesus] Being therefore exalted by the right hand of God [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus], and having received from the Father [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus] the promise of the Holy Spirit [the Holy Spirit is received by Jesus from Jehovah, the only true God, the God and Father of Jesus — Luke 24:29; John 14:16,26; 15:26], he [Jesus, acting for his God] has poured forth this, which you now see and hear.

Acts 2:34 For David didn’t ascend into the heavens, but he says himself, ‘The Lord [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus] said to my Lord [Jesus], “Sit by my [Jehovah’s] right hand, [rather than identifying Jesus as Jehovah, the reference Peter makes to Psalm 110:1 actually distinguishes Jesus from Jehovah.]

Acts 2:35 Until I make your enemies the footstool of your feet.”‘

Acts 2:36 “Let all the house of Israel therefore know assuredly that God [Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus] has made him both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you crucified.” [Again, rather than identifying Jesus as being Jehovah, Peter distinguishes Jesus from Jehovah.]

Jesus is not the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and there is nothing in these verses that depicts Jesus as being Jehovah, the God of Israel. (Deuteronomy 6:4; Mark 12:29) Indeed, the God and Father of Jesus is depicted as being different from Jesus all throughout these verses. However, Jesus, having been sent by the only true God, performs the works of his God. What the one sent by Jehovah does in performing the works of Jehovah is claimed by Jehovah as being performed by him. (Exodus 3:10,12; 12:17; 18:10; Numbers 16:28; Judges 2:6,18; 3:9,10; 6:34; 11:29; 13:24,25; 14:6,19; 15:14,18; 16:20,28-30, 2 Kings 4:27; Isaiah 43:11, 45:1-6; and many more scriptures could be provided.) If Jesus’ performance of the works of Jehovah, his God, means that Jesus is Jehovah, then, if one would be consistent in such reasoning, one would also have to conclude many of the Old Testament judges and prophets are all Jehovah.

Nevertheless, some questions have been raised by another: Doesn’t Acts 2:22-36 show that “the Lord” spoken of in Acts 2:21 is none other than Jesus? Isn’t Peter reminding these people that this man Jesus was the Messiah, and that he was the Lord of verse 21? Then, since Acts 2:17-21 are actually being quoted from Joel 2:28-32, does this mean that that Jesus is Jehovah?

Actually verses 22-36 show that Jehovah worked through Jesus, just as many other scriptures show. — Matthew 6:9; 21:9; 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; 19:38; John 5:43; 10:25; 12:13,28; 17:6,11,12,26; Acts 15:14,17.

(Quotes from New American Standard Version):

“A man [Jesus] attested to you by God [Jehovah] with miracles and wonders and signs which God performed through Him in your midst.”– Acts 2:22

“This Man [Jesus], delivered up by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God [Jehovah].” — Acts 2:23

Peter here clearly testifies that Jesus was a man. Additionally, he declares that Jesus was attested to by God. If Jesus is Jehovah, surely this would have been a very good place for Peter to have so stated; but instead he tells that Jesus was attested to by God, thus demonstrating that Jesus is not God.

“God [Jehovah] raised Him [Jesus] up again.” — Acts 2:24

“I [Jesus] was always beholding [Jehovah] in my presence.” — Acts 2:25.

“Thou [Jehovah] wilt not abandon my [Jesus’] soul to Hades.” — Acts 2:27.

“Thou [Jehovah] hast made known to me [Jesus] the ways of life.” — Acts 2:28.

“Thou [Jehovah] wilt make me [Jesus] full of gladness.” — Acts 2:28.

“This Jesus God [Jehovah] raised up again.” — Acts 2:32.

”Having been exalted [by Jehovah — Acts 5:31; Philippians 2:9; Ephesians 1:3,17-23] to the right hand of God [Jehovah –Psalm 110:1], and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit [Jesus was NOT the Holy Spirit, as some claim, but the promise was that Jesus would receive the Holy Spirit as being put under Jesus’ authority], He [Jesus] has poured forth this [the Holy Spirit, which he had received from his God and Father] which you both see and hear.” — Acts 2:33.

“Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God [Jehovah] has made Him [Jesus] both Lord and Christ — this Jesus whom you crucified.” — verse 36.

Verses 17-21 are quoted from Joel 2:28-32. In Joel 2:28-32 the Hebrew Masoretic text has the tetragrammaton of the Holy Name three times in verse 32; it also appears in verse 27.

Joel 2:32 (American Standard Version) “And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of Jehovah shall be delivered; for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be those that escape, as Jehovah hath said, and among the remnant those whom Jehovah doth call.”

The last days as quoted in this text in its final application refers to the time of blessing of all the families of the earth, all flesh, thereby allowing all flesh to see the glory of Jehovah. (See God’s Hidden Glory to be Revealed) The outpouring of the Holy Spirit in 33 CE was but a foreshadow, a token (earnest) of the Millennial inheritance of the church and outpouring of the Holy Spirit on all peoples. — 2 Corinthians 1:22; 5:5; Ephesians 1:14.

However, the prophecy in Joel does not use the term “last days.” It is Peter who uses the phrase “last days”. (Acts 2:17) Like most quotations in the New Testament, Peter is probably making an indirect quotation. While Joel quotes Jehovah as saying “afterwards”, Peter, using indirect quotation, tells us that Jehovah was saying that “in the last days” he would pour forth his spirit. Nevertheless, John Gill states:

“R. David Kimchi, a celebrated commentator with the Jews, observes, that “afterwards” is the same “as in the last days”, and which design the times of the Messiah; for according to a rule given by the same writer on (Isaiah 2:2) wherever the last days are mentioned, the days of the Messiah are intended.

Noting Peter’s reference to the “last days” in 2 Peter 3:3 and also Paul’s reference to the “last days” (2 Timothy 3:1), some have suggested that Peter may have been referring to the “last days” as a period of time just before the destruction of Satan’s empire, and from this conclude that there may be another similar outpouring of the holy spirit again in the last days of Satan’s world, but we highly doubt this to be what Peter meant. If so, it would still be but a token fulfillment of the time coming after Christ’s return during the Millennial age.

Others suggest that Peter was referring to the “last days” of the Jewish age of favor, which most Bible Students believe ended in 70 A.D. or 73 A.D., or some time around this. This would certainly fit the application for the pouring out of God’s spirit in the first century.

Another possibility is that Peter was referring to a period of 3,000-years as the “last days” — three millennial days, If applied as beginning when Jesus died (in 33 CE) they would end in 3033. Such an application would include, not just the Gospel Age of this present evil age, but also for the entire Kingdom Millennial age — the age to come — as well.

Regardless, “the Lord” in Acts 2:21 refers, not to Jesus, but to the God of Jesus (Matthew 27:46: Mark 15:34; John 20:17; Romans 1:7; 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12) — to the eternal Supreme Being. The God and Father of our Lord Jesus has always been. In other words Jehovah has always been Jehovah. Yet Peter does not say that Jesus is Jehovah but rather that the God and Father of Jesus made Jesus “Lord”. (Acts 2:36; Hebrews 1:9) Jesus was not made “Jehovah” — this would be nonsense; no, but he was made “Lord” and “Messiah” by his God, Jehovah. — Acts 2:36; see also: Isaiah 61:1; Acts 5:31; 10:38; Matthew 28:18; John 3:35.

However, Paul wrote to Christians in Corinth: “to the assembly of God which is at Corinth; those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all who call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ in every place, both theirs and ours.” We note here that he speaks of the Christians “who call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ”. Does this mean that we are to call upon Jehovah (Acts 2:21; Joel 2:32) and also the name of Jesus? Yes, for as Jesus said: “I and the Father are one.” (John 10:30) “No one comes to the Father, but by me.” (John 14:6) If we remember that the name Jesus means “Jehovah saves” or “Jehovah is savior”, then to call upon the name of Jesus also acknowledges the name of his God. Additionally, Jesus said: “No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him.” (John 6:44) Thus we need both the God of Jesus, the Father, as well as the Son of Jehovah. This is what John says: “Whoever transgresses and doesn’t remain in the teaching of Christ, doesn’t have God. He who remains in the teaching, the same has both the Father and the Son.” (2 John 1:19) This also agrees with Jesus’ statements in John 17:1-3.

There is nothing in any of this, however, that should give one the idea that Jesus is Jehovah. Jesus was sent by Jehovah, speaks for Jehovah, represents Jehovah. Jesus is not Jehovah whom he represents and speaks for. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.