Colossians 1:19 -- All Fullness Dwells in Jesus

Colossians 1:19 - For it was the Father's good pleasure for all the fullness to dwell in Him,
-- New American Standard.

This scripture is sometimes given as proof as Jesus is God Almighty. Many translations indeed render it in such a way for the purpose of making it appear that Jesus is God Almighty.

The default should be to understand the fullness (plentitude) of Colossians 1:19 is given to Jesus from his God and Father. -- Ephesians 1:3,17-23.

Quote:
The words “the Father” are not in the original, but they are not improperly supplied. Some word must be understood, and as the apostle in Colossians 1:12 referred to “the Father” as having a claim to the thanks of his people for what he had done, and as the great favor for which they ought to be thankful is that which he immediately specifies - the exaltation of Christ, it is not improper to suppose that this is the word to be understood here. -- Barnes, Albert. "Commentary on Colossians 1". "Barnes' Notes on the Whole Bible". https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/bnb/colossians-1.html. 1870
:Endquote.

Indeed, any other reasoning would only be to due to the preconceived idea that Jesus is the "one God" of whom are all, and thus force that thought into what is stated. In harmony with other scriptures, it should be understood that in Jesus dwells the plentitude as has been given to Jesus from He who is the source of all MIGHT. -- 1 Corinthians 8:6.

He who is the "ONE GOD [MIGHTY ONE]" who is the source of all (1 Corinthians 8:6) has exalted His Son to the highest position in the universe, far above the angels, next to the only Most High.-- Acts 2:33,36; 5:31; Philippians 2:9; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; 1 Corinthians 15:27; Hebrews 1:4,6; 1 Peter 3:22.

Thus, in Colossians 2:9, we find that in Jesus' present spiritual body dwells the fullness (plentitude) of MIGHTINESS (GODNESS) that is needed by Jesus in his highly exalted office.

"All the fullness" in Colossians 1:19, however, should not be understood to mean that Jesus is God Almighty any more than "all the fullness" in Ephesians 3:19 should be understood mean that Christ's followers are God Almighty.

What we do not find in Colossians 1:19 -- or anywhere else in the Bible -- is any thought that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is more than one person, or that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. In harmony with Acts 3:13-26; 1 Corinthians 8:6 and Hebrews 1:1,2, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is presented as being only one person.

John 16:30 - Did the Disciples Think Jesus was Omniscient?

It is being claimed that three persons have omniscience: the Father (Psalm 147:5), the Son (John 16:30), and the Holy Spirit (1 Corinthians 2:10).  And by this reasoning, it is then imagined that all three are persons of the one God, forming what is often called the trinity.

{Psalms 147:5 - Great is our Lord, and of great power: his understanding is infinite.

The phrase, "Our Lord," is referring to "Jehovah" of verses 1 and 2; in the King James Version we find that God's Holy Name has been changed to "the LORD" in  verses 1 and 2.

The word translated as "infinite" above is Strong's #369. Brown-Driver-Brigg's definition of this word is: "1) nothing, not, nought; 1a) nothing, nought (noun); 1b) not (negative); 1c) to have not (of possession); 1d) without (adverb): 1e) for lack of (without a preposition)." Strong himself defines the word as meaning "As if from a primitive root meaning to be nothing or not exist; a non-entity; generally used as a negative particle: - else, except, fail [father-] less, be gone, in [-curable], neither, never, no (where), none, nor (any, thing), not, nothing, to nought, past, un [-searchable], well-nigh, without." As a negative, it appears to be not putting a limit on Jehovah's understanding.

Jehovah's understanding is definitely not limited. Jehovah certainly posseses all knowledge of all his creation, and that knowledge never ends. But as related to the verse, God understands each of us where man may not understand. He understands each of us better than we understand ourselves. His understanding is not limited as is man's.

{John 16:30} Now we know that you know all, and do not need for anyone to question you. By this we believe that you came forth from God."

1 John 2:20 - But ye have an unction from the Holy One, and ye know all things.

"God" in John 16:30 refers to only one person, not three persons. That one person is the God and Father of Jesus. (John 16:28) Thus, we certainly have no reason to think that disciples were calling Jesus God or a person of God by their response. Indeed, Jesus had taught them that he had come forth from God, and that Jesus' teachings were from God (John 6:46; 7:17; 8:40,42; 13:3; 16:27,30) and thus, according to scriptures, his power and might -- including his ability to know the thoughts of men -- is because God had anointed Jesus with the Holy Spirit and power, for God was with him. -- Isaiah 11:2-3; 61:1; Acts 10:38.

The word "all" is translated from a form of the word often transliterated as "pas." (Strong's 3956) A study of its usage in the Bible reveals that all forms of the Greek word "pas" rarely are speaking of absolutely everything in the entire universe. The context most often shows what is included in the usage of pas, although not always. Common evidence should also be applied to determine what is or what is not being included, as Paul wrote of in 1 Corinthians 15:27. 

A form of the same phrase rendered "know all" that the disciples used in John 16:30 is also in used in 1 John 2:20, where it is applied the anointed sons of God. The King James Version (and many other translations) adds the word "things" after "all" in 1 John 2:20. There is actually corresponding word in the Greek that means "things." Nevertheless, John was not saying those anointed ones knew absolutely everything in the universe. Obviously, in 1 John 2:20 the "all" is referring to the knowledge and understanding about Jesus and his God. Likewise, in John 16:30, the "all" should be understood as referring to "all" pertaining to what Jesus was speaking about in context. Jesus, however, shows that he does not know absolutely everything that his God and Father knows. (Mark 13:32) Likewise, in Revelation 1:1, if Jesus knew absolutely everything in the universe and time, there would not have been any need for him to receive the revelation from his God.

Related info on other sites:
Anaylsis of John 16:30 (Oddly this analysis adds the word "things' to "all." The word "things" is not inherit in the form Panta)
Analysis of 1 John 2:20
Analysis of Strong's #3956

1 Corinthians 2:10 - But to us, God revealed them through the spirit. For the spirit searches all things, yes, the deep things of God.

Again, "God" here is presented as being only one person, not more than one person. "The spirit" spoken of here "searches", more correctly "examines", seeking to know the deep things of God. Obviously, "the spirit" spoken of here is not an omniscient person, for why would an omniscient being need to search, or examine, the deep things of God? 

Paul is obviously referring to the spirit within "us" -- the apostles especially. God has revealed his truths by means of his holy spirit through the apostles. The one person who is the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob (Acts 3:13-26; Acts 17:29-31; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Hebrews 1:1,2), by means of His Holy Spirit, especially led the apostles into all the truths concerning Christ and what he said, and thereby the faith was delivered to the saints in the first century. (John 14:26; 16:4-13; Galatians 1:12; Ephesians 3:5; 2 Timothy 2:2; Jude 1:3) The truths revealed to the apostles and made available to us are recorded in the Bible itself. (Ephesians 3:3-12; Colossians 1:25,26; 1 John 4:6) Of course, without the holy spirit, these things that are recorded will still be a mystery to us. -- Mark 4:11; 1 Corinthians 2:7-10.

What we do not find in Psalm 147:5, John 16:30 and 1 Corinthians 2:10 is any thought that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is more then one person, nor do we find any thought that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Such ideas have to formulated with assumptions beyond what is written, and then those assumptions have to added to and read into the scriptures.

Matthew 28:20 - Jesus' Ability to be Present in Many Places

1 Kings 8:27, Matthew 28:20, Psalm 139:7 have been given to us as proof that all three persons of the "trinity" possess omnipresence. We will look at these scriptures in this short study to see what they say and what they do not say.

1 Kings 8:27 - But will God in very deed dwell on the earth? behold, heaven and the heaven of heavens cannot contain thee; how much less this house that I have builded!

Psalms 139:7 - Where could I go from your Spirit? Or where could I flee from your presence?

Matthew 28:20 - teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I commanded you: and lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world.

The above scriptures are usually presented as "proof texts" of the trinity doctrine, and/or the oneness doctrine. Usually without comment, the scriptures, are other scriptures similar to the above, are placed together without comment so as to make it appear that all three -- God, Jesus, God's spirit -- are referring to the same being, the same God, or in the case of the oneness believers, the same person.

 Strictly speaking, we have no scriptural reason to imagine and assume that "God" in 1 Kings 8:27 is any other than the one person who is God in Isaiah 61:1,2; Micah 5:4 and Hebrews 1:1,2. In these scriptures, Jehovah (God) is one person and He is distinguished from being Jesus.

There is definitely a lot about God's being that we cannot fully comprehend. Indeed, to fully comprehend the bodily substance of His being, we would actually have to be Supreme Being. God's presence, however, is certainly as unlimitless, as is the universe itself. His presence throughout the universe, however, should be not be understood to mean that he is present in the entirety of absolutely all his creation. That would mean that every plant, every animal, every speck of dust, and yes, you and I, would be God. This belief is called pantheism.

Our limited body, however, we believe, can help us to partially understand some scriptures related to God's presence. While one's body of flesh is often considered to be the person, yet who and what we are all stems from the brain, or the mind. One's finger is not actually wholly and fully the person, but what one's finger does is what the person does to whom the finger belongs, as directed from the person's brain. God's Holy Spirit is likened to God's finger. (Matthew 12:28; Luke 11:20) What is done by Jack's finger is done by Jack. That does not mean that Jack should consider his finger to be a separate and distinct person of Jack. Likewise, God's spirit as represented as being His hand would mean that His spirit is part of God, but it gives no reason to imagine, assume, add to, and read into the scriptures that God's Spirit is a separate and distinct person of a triune God.

As the instrument of the revealing of truth, the holy spirit is likened to God’s “mouth”. (Deuteronomy 8:3; 1 Kings 8:24; 2 Chronicles 6:4; 36:12,21; Ezra 1:1; Isaiah 1:20; 40:5; 45:23; 48:3; 58:14; 62:2; Jeremiah 9:12,20; Ezekiel 33:7; Micah 4:4; Matthew 4:4; Mark 12:36; Acts 1:17; 28:25; Hebrews 3:7; 9:8; 10:15,16; 2 Peter 1:21) Likewise, God's Holy Spirit could likened to God's eyes, arm, etc.

Nevertheless, a person's finger and his mouth are integral parts of the person as being a part of the person's body. Likewise, God's Holy Spirit is integral to God, and should be viewed as being similar to our bodies, not as a separate and distinct person of God. As our body extends our influence and presence beyond just our brain, so God's Holy Spirit extends God's influence and presence throughout the unlimited sphere of the universe, both material and spiritual.

Matthew 28:20 - teaching them to observe all things which I commanded you. Behold, I am with you always, even to the end of the age." Amen. -- World English.

Jesus, in his exalted spiritual body, has certainly been given the power to be present in more than one place at once. He certainly would need this ability in order to carry out the work God has given to him. (Isaiah 11:2-4; Colossians 2:9,10) This does not mean that He is the Supreme Being, the "one God" of whom are all. (1 Corinthians 8:6) His strength and power still originates from God through God's Holy Spirit. -- Micah 5:4; Isaiah 11:2-4; Matthew 12:28; 2 Corinthians 13:14..

There is definitely nothing in 1 Kings 8:27; Matthew 28:20 or Psalm 139:7 that declares God to be more than one person, or that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, or that Jesus is a person of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Nor is there anything in the verses that would mean we should imagine, assume, add to, and read into the scriptures that God is three persons, etc.  --- Ronald R. Day, Sr.

******************