Acts 3:14 - Does Jesus' Holiness Mean that He is Jehovah?

The claim is that holiness is ascribed to each of the three persons: the Father (Revelation 15:4), the Son (Acts 3:14), and the Holy Spirit (Romans 1:4), and thus this is proof that Jesus is Jehovah, and/or that Jesus, his Father, and God's Holy Spirit are three persons of the one Supreme Being.

{Revelation 15:4} Who wouldn't fear you, Jehovah,
   and glorify your name?
For you only are fully right.
   For all the nations will come and worship before you.
   For your righteous acts have been revealed." -- RLIV

The word rendered as "fully right" above is given the general transliteration as HOSIOS (Strong's G3741). Evidently, the contrast here is Jehovah with the many false gods which the nations have worshiped throughout the centuries of this the present evil age. (Galatians 1:4) In the age to come, all the nations, however, will come and worship before Jehovah, and Jehovah will be the only one proven to be fully right. Most translations render HOIOS as "holy", but such a rendering in English does not distinguish HOSIOS from other words often translated as "holy," and thus it can lead to some confusion.

The word HOSIOS is given the following meanings:

Strong's Definition:  Of uncertain affinity; properly right (by intrinsic or divine character; thus distinguished from G1342, which refers rather to human statutes and relations; from G2413, which denotes formal consecration; and from G40, which relates to purity from defilement), that is, hallowed (pious, sacred, sure): - holy, mercy, shalt be.

Mounce's Definition:  holy, pious, devout; (n.) Holy One; divine decree (Ac 13:34).

Thayer's Definition:  undefiled by sin, free from wickedness, religiously observing every moral obligation, pure holy, pious.

Forms of the word HOSIOS may be found in eight verses of the Bible: Acts 2:27; 13:34,35; 1 Timothy 2:8; Titus 1:8; Hebrews 7:26 and Revelation 15:4; 16:5. It is not used in either Acts 3:14 or Romans 1:4.

The word is used of men (other than Jesus), however, in 1 Timothy 2:8 and Titus 1:8, and thus its usage is not limited to that of the Supreme Being. It is used of Jesus in Acts 2:27; 13:35, where it used to quote Psalm 16:10. Peter and Paul used this word to render the Hebrew word often transliterated as CHASIYD (Strong's H2623).

https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/hebrew/2623.html

At any rate, the usage of the Greek word HOSIOS of Jesus in Acts 2:27; 13:35 does not designate Jesus as being the Supreme Being.

Acts 3:14 - But ye denied the Holy (Strong's #G40) and Righteous One, and asked for a murderer to be granted unto you.

Here we find that Peter used a form of the Greek HAGIOS of Jesus. This word is definitely not confined to being used of the Supreme Being, as it used many times of humans and things in the New Testament.

https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/greek/40.html

Romans 1:4 - who was declared [to be] the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness (Strong's #G42, a form of #G40), by the resurrection from the dead; [even] Jesus Christ our Lord.

https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/greek/42.html

Many claim "spirit of holiness" is referring to God's Holy Spirit. This could be, but one should realize that the word "spirit" in the Bible is not always referring to God's Holy Spirit. The word "spirit" in Romans 1:4 is probably used as may be contrasted with its usage as in the phrases such as "spirit of bondage" (Romans 8:15), "spirit of stupor" (Romans 11:8), "spirit of the world" (1 Corinthians 2:12), "spirit of fearfulness" (2 Timothy 1:7), "spirit of error." -- 1 John 4:6.

Of course, God's Holy Spirit is just as holy and God Himself is Holy. Such, however, does not mean that we need to imagine and assume that God's Holy Spirit is a separate and distinct person of God, etc.

What we do not find in any of the scriptures above is any thought that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is more than one person, or that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, or that Jesus is a person of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

1 Corinthians 10:9 - Does This Offer Proof of the Trinity?

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Exodus 17:2 - Wherefore the people strove with Moses, and said, Give us water that we may drink. And Moses said unto them, Why strive ye with me? Wherefore do ye tempt Jehovah?
 - American Standard Version.

Numbers 21:5-6 - And the people spake against God, and against Moses, Wherefore have ye brought us up out of Egypt to die in the wilderness? for there is no bread, and there is no water; and our soul loatheth this light bread.[6] And Jehovah sent fiery serpents among the people, and they bit the people; and much people of Israel died. -- American Standard Version

1 Corinthians 10:9-10 - Neither let us tempt Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed of serpents. [10] Neither murmur ye, as some of them also murmured, and were destroyed of the destroyer. -- King James Version.

1 Corinthians 10:9-10 - Neither let us make trial of the Lord, as some of them made trial, and perished by the serpents.[10] Neither murmur ye, as some of them murmured, and perished by the destroyer. - American Standard Version

1 Corinthians 10:9
meede ekpeirazwmen ton kurion kathws tines
NEITHER MAY WE BE TESTING OUT THE LORD, ACCORDING AS SOME
3366 1598 3588 2962 2531 5100
autwn epeirasan kai hupo twn ophewn
OF THEM TESTED, AND BY THE SERPENTS
0846_92 3985 2532 5259 3588 3789
apwllunto
THEY WERE DESTROYING SELVES.
0622
== Westcott & Hort Interlinear with Greek transliterated.

Now these things have become types to us, for us not to be desirers of evil things, as they also desired. -- Berean Literal Bible.

Many trinitarians (and possibly some others) place 1 Corinthians 10:9 with Exodus 17:2 and/or Numbers 21:5,6 as being proof that Jesus is Jehovah whom the children of Israel tempted, or put to the test. From this, they would imagine and assume that Jehovah is more than one person, and that Jesus is one of the persons of Jehovah. 

1 Corinthians 10:9 is one of the verses that has variant readings in the manuscripts: some read as "Christ," some as "the Lord," and a few as "God."

Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary tells us:

9. tempt Christ — So the oldest versions, Irenæus (264), and good manuscripts read. Some of the oldest manuscripts read "Lord"; and one manuscript only "God."

"TON KURION", as given in the Westcott and Hort text above, could be a replacement for the Holy Name. If so, it surely refers, not to Jesus, but rather to the God and Father of Jesus, the "one God [Mighty One] ... of whom are all" that Paul refers to in 1 Corinthians 8:6. Indeed, the reference is to Exodus 17:2; Numbers 21:5,6, and/or Deuteronomy 6:16, which speaks of Jehovah; thus it is quite probable that Paul actually used some form of the Holy Name in 1 Corinthians 10:9, and later copyists, after the death the apostles, changed it to a form of the Greek word meaning "LORD", or to forms of the Greek words meaning "Christ" or ."God".

While Ellicott does not speak of God's Holy Name as being replaced in the New Testament, he does say the following:

(9) Neither let us tempt Christ. -- Better, Neither let us tempt the Lord, as some of them tempted, and perished by serpents. There is much controversy as to whether the word here is "God" or "Christ" or "the Lord," each having a certain amount of MS. support. On the whole, the reading here adopted (the Lord) seems from internal evidence to have been most likely the true reading. It is possible that the word "God" crept into the text, having been put as a marginal explanation to get over the supposed difficulty involved in applying the words which follow, "they also tempted," to Christ. For in what sense could it have been said that the Israelites tempted Christ? There is no reason, however, for connecting "some of them tempted" (the word "also" is not in the original) with the object of the previous clause: and it is noticeable that the second word translated "tempted" is not the same as the first. "Let us not tempt" is in the original an intensified form of the verb which is used in its simple form in "some of them tempted." The reading "Christ" may have come into the text as being an explanation that by the word "Lord" St. Paul meant the Redeemer.
The real meaning of the passage, however, is evident. The Israelites had, by their longing after the things left behind in Egypt, tried God so that God had asserted Himself in visiting them with punishment, and so Christians must be on their guard, with such a warning before them, not to tempt their Lord by hankering after those worldly and physical pleasures from which He by His death has delivered them. (See Numbers 21:4-6.) Some of the Corinthian Christians seemed by their conduct, as regards eating and drinking and indulging in sensuality, to long for that liberty in reference to things which they had enjoyed before conversion, instead of enjoying these spiritual blessings and feeding on the spiritual sustenance which Christ had provided for them -- Ellicott, Charles John. "Commentary on 1 Corinthians 10:9". "Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers". https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/ebc/1-corinthians-10.html. 1905.

Nevertheless, "TON KURION" (with the definite article) could be referring to the Lord Jesus. If so, it would not necessarily follow that the latter part of 1 Corinthians 10:9 should also be referring to Jesus as the one whom the children of Israel put to the test.

Likewise, even if Paul did write the word for "Christ," in the first part of the verse, it does not necessarily mean that that the last part of the verse is saying that the children of Israel had put Christ to the test. Many translations add the word "him" (which does not appear in the Greek manuscripts), but in keeping with the testimony of the scripture as whole, if the first part is referring to Christ, the default reasoning should be that the latter part is referring to either Moses (who was a type of Christ) or the God and Father of Jesus, rather than to imagine and assume that Paul was writing that the children of Israel put Jesus to the test, and then further imagine, assume, add to and read into the scripture that Jehovah is more than one person, and then further imagine, assume, add to and read into the scripture that Jesus is one of the persons of Jehovah, etc.

The point, however, is the antitypical application of how the children of Israel spoke against Moses (and thus against Jehovah), as applied to a Christian who may speak against the one whom Jehovah anointed (Isaiah 61:1), which would also be against Jehovah.

What we do not find in 1 Corinthians 10:9 is any clear designation of Jesus as being the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. There is definitely nothing here or anywhere else in the entire Bible that presents the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as being more than one person. In order to get trinity into the verse, one still has to create many assumptions beyond what is stated, and then add those assumptions to, and read those assumptions into, what is actually stated.