John 14:28 – The Father Is Greater Than I

By Ronald R. Day, Sr. (ResLight; RLBible)

(This study needs to edited) 

The claim is being made that Jesus' words in John 14:28 means:

The Father is “greater” than the incarnate Christ in terms of position because Christ’s humanity is a creation, though in His divinity He is equal to the Father…. This verse is a clear reference to the Hypostatic Union of Christ.

As is often the case with trinitarians, it is simply assumed that acceptance of the trinity dogma should considered the default reasoning,  and that it is up to others to disprove that which being promoted as the default position. Of course, there is nothing directly in the scriptures where the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob bluntly states: I am not more than one person. Why should there be? In reality, the default assumption is that Yahweh is only person, not that he is more than one person. Indeed, throughout the Bible, in what God has revealed of Himself by means of His Holy Spirit, we find that Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, is always presented as one person, and never once presented as more than one person. Additionally, we find that he God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is identified as one person who is the God and Father of Jesus. (Acts 3:13-26; Ephesians 1:3; Hebrews 1:1,2; 1 Peter 1:3) Thus, the default reasoning should be that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is one person, not that He is three persons. Nor do we find any reason within the Bible for adding to what God has revealed through the prophets and the apostles that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is three persons.  (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Acts 3:13-26; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:1,2,9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.

The truth is, since the Bible no where identifies Jesus as the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and since the Bible no where says one word about there being more than one person in the only true God, we have no reason to imagine and assume that what is being suggested above, that the idea of a hypostatic union in which Jesus has two alleged natures at once, that is, that he is both fully man, a little lower than the angels, and at the same time that he is fully God, the Supreme Being over all. Thus, the imaginations and assumptions that are being placed upon Jesus’ words so as to make them appear to support the added-on trinitarian dogma is not the basis we should accept for such belief.

One of the odd things about this is that the following words of Jesus as recorded in John 14:29 are often referred as proof that Jesus is the only true God. Those who do such, in effect, would separate Jesus’ statement in John 14:28 from his following statement in John 14:29 so as to make it appear that his first statement is not his alleged God being speaking, while the second statement is the God Jesus speaking. And such an application of Jesus’ words would have to applied, not only throughout the Gospels, but also in the Revelation, as well as many of the Old Testament prophets and all of the books of the Bible. If one analyzes the implications of such applications, it would become obvious that, in many cases, it would result in self-contradictions.

In John 14:1 Jesus is recorded as stating: ““Don’t let your heart be troubled. Believe in God. Believe also in me.” In this verse, is “God” three persons, or one person? Is Jesus saying to his disciples, you believe in the three persons of the “trinity”; believe also in me”? Obviously, Jesus is using the word “God” here as referring to only one person.

In John 14:9, however, rather than claiming that Jesus is speaking as a man, many trinitarians claim that Jesus spoke as God. We are pointing this out only to show how the trinitarians will go back and forth in applying and forcing their “hypostatic union” assumption upon the scripture, applying words that they would like use to prove that he is the Most High as allegedly being the God Jesus speaking, while words that would show that he is not the Most High as meaning that it was the man Jesus.  In reality, it was the man Jesus who spoke all of these words attributed to Jesus in John 14, since Jesus was indeed in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7) while he spoke these words.

Click Here regarding Hebrews 2:9. Hebrews 2:9 applies to Jesus throughout all the time describe in Hebrews 5:7 as the days of his flesh. Thus everything that Jesus said during the days of his flesh was the man Jesus Christ speaking, that man who gave himself as ransom for all, who was put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit. — 1 Timothy 2:5,6; 1 Peter 3:18.

Revelation 1:8 – The Lord God, Who Was, Is, And Is To Come (Video Script)

(The text below was copied from the old site that no longer exists, without editing. This still needs to be edited. Links may not work.) 

Revelation 1:7

Behold, he is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, including those who pierced him. All the tribes of the earth will mourn over him. Even so, Amen.

Revelation 1:8

“I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord God, “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.” — World English Bible Version.

Should we assume that the “the Lord God” “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty” in Revelation 1:8 is Jesus?

The most simple and straightforward scriptural conclusion is that in Revelation 1:8, “the Lord God” “who is and was and who is to come” is not Jesus, but rather the unipersonal “God” of Revelation 1:1,4.

However, many trinitarians and some others do not accept the simple and straightforward conclusion, but would imagine and assume  that in Revelation 1:8 Jesus himself claimed to be the Almighty.

The phrase “is to come” is often taken out of context of what is said in verse 8 and associated with the word “coming” in Revelation 7, thus giving the inference that both are speaking of the same “coming”.

It is often further claimed that since in verse 7 it is Jesus who is being referred to as “coming”, that it is Jesus who is being quoted in verse 8 who states that he “is to come”..

Yes, the words in Revelation 1:7 are indeed the words of Jesus.

Nevertheless, in Revelation 1:8, John begins to quote the God and Father of Jesus (Ephesians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 3:5,12): “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord God, “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.” — World English.

All through the Revelation given to John, Jesus is distinguished from “God”.

All through the Revelation, Jesus is distinguished from ‘he who is, was and is to come’.

Revelation 1:1

This is the Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things which must happen soon, which he sent and made known by his angel to his servant, John. — World English Bible version.

We find that, in Revelation 1:1, “God” is clearly distinguished from “Jesus Christ”, as it should be.

It is “God” who gives the revelation to “Jesus Christ”. “Jesus Christ”, in turn gives the revelation to his servants by means of John. — Revelation 1:1.

Revelation 1:1 speaks of Jesus with the title “Christ”, that is: “Jesus Christ”. “Christ” means “Anointed”.

Who anointed Jesus?

Isaiah 61: 1 – The Spirit of the Lord Yahweh is on me; because Yahweh has anointed me to preach good news to the humble; he has sent me to bind up the broken-hearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening [of the prison] to those who are bound. — World English.

The Messiah is prophetically quoted as saying: “Yahweh has anointed me.” — Isaiah 61:1, World English.

Thus, the Anointed One — the Christ — recognizes “Yahweh” (Jehovah) as the one who anointed him.

In the words recorded as Luke 4:14-23, Jesus identified himself as the one whom Yahweh anointed as spoken of in Isaiah 61:1.

This means that “God” in Psalm 45:7; Acts 2:36; 10:38; and Hebrews 1:9 is “Yahweh”.

It also means that the unipersonal “God” of Revelation 1:1,2,4,6,8,9 is not Jesus, but the “Lord Yahweh” of Isaiah 61:1 who anointed Jesus, thus making him “Jesus Christ” of Revelation 1:1.

Also in Isaiah 61:1, note that the Messiah refers to his God as “the Lord Yahweh” and in verse two as "our God."

Since we have identified “God’ who anointed Jesus as as Christ (Revelation 1:1) as being “the Lord Yahweh”, this further means that in Revelation 1:8, it is this same one — “the Lord Yahweh” of Isaiah 61:1, who is referred to in the World English and many other translations as the “the Lord God”.

Thus, “the Lord God” of Revelation 1:8 in the World English Bible version is the Lord Yahweh of Isaiah 61:1, and is not Jesus, but rather the one who anointed Jesus, making him “Jesus Christ” as shown in Revelation 1:1.

Revelation 1:4

John, to the seven assemblies that are in Asia: Grace to you and peace, from God, who is and who was and who is to come; and from the seven Spirits who are before his throne;

Revelation 1:5

and from Jesus Christ, the faithful witness, the firstborn of the dead, and the ruler of the kings of the earth. To him who loves us, and washed us from our sins by his blood;

Revelation 1:6

and he made us to be a kingdom, priests to his God and Father; to him be the glory and the dominion forever and ever. Amen. — World English Bible version.

Revelation 1:4,5 clearly distinguishes Jesus from he ‘who is, was and is to come’. It is the unipersonal “God” of Revelation 1:1 who is identified in Revelation 1:4 as being “who is and who was and who is to come.”

Thus, in Revelation 1:8, “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.” is not Jesus, but rather the God of Jesus, “God” who has given the revelation to Jesus. — Revelation 1:1.

Nor does “is to come” in Revelation 1:8 refer to the same thing as the “coming” in Revelation 1:7.

As far as we know, no one claims that when the Almighty says “who was”, that this means that He was coming from somewhere or that he was going to somewhere in the past.

Likewise, we know of no one who claims that when He says “who is”, that this means He is presently going somewhere or coming from somewhere.

In other words, the Almighty was not saying that he was coming from or to somewhere in the past, or that he is coming from or to somewhere in the present, and thus, He was likewise not saying that he will be coming from or coming to somewhere in the future.

Consequently, most Greek Bible scholars conclude that Revelation 1:8 speaks of God’s being, his eternal existence, past, present and future, even if they believe that this verse is in reference to Jesus.

Nevertheless, the context (Revelation 1:1,4) tells us that, in Revelation 1:8, it is the Almighty Yahweh, the God and Father of Jesus who is speaking as the one who was, is and is to come.

Accordingly, the conclusion is that Jesus is not the one who was, is, and is to come in Revelation 1:8.

The peculiar phrase in Revelation 1:8 only belongs to Yahweh, not to Jesus.

Yahweh has existed from all eternity past, he exists now, and he exists for all time to come. This is basically what Yahweh is saying in Revelation 1:8.

“Is to come” simply extends the thought of God’s existence into the infinite future, just as “who was” is speaking of God’s past, and “is” is speaking his being in the present. Thus, it is all inclusive of past, present and future.

The summation is that the most direct scriptural conclusion is that “the Lord God, ‘who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty’” in Revelation 1:8 is “God” of Revelation 1:1,4, not Jesus, as has been demonstrated.

For further study, see:

Alpha and Omega, the First and the Last

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=325

Revelation 1:4 – Who Is, Was, To Come – Jesus?

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=1097

Revelation 1:8 – The God of Jesus Speaks

http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/09/18/ao-01/

Revelation 1:1,8 and the Unipersonal God

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=1393

Revelation 1:8 – Is Yahweh or Jesus Being Quoted?

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=66

Revelation 1:17,18; 2:8 – The First and the Last

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=911

Revelation 21:6 – God Who Sits on the Throne

http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/09/18/ao-2/

Revelation 22:13 – I am Alpha and Omega

http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/09/18/ao-03/

The video of the above is online at:

http://youtu.be/R8qRpSXDXbk

By Ronald R. Day, Sr. (ResLight, RLBible)

Spirit and Greek Gender

Many note that certain translations refer to the Holy Spirit as “he”, “him”, “his”, etc., and present such scriptures as an argument that the Holy Spirit is a male person. Some even have made the erroneous claim that the Textus Receptus never refers to the Holy Spirit as an “it”, or that the Greek New Testament always refers to the Holy Spirit with masculine pronouns. Actually, the Textus Receptus does indeed refer to the Holy Spirit with neuter pronouns, not masculine pronouns, as is also true of all the known New Testament Greek manuscripts that are usually used for translation.

The only exception I know of is when the holy spirit is being associated with being the Comforter, as in John 15:25. Since the Greek word for “Comforter” is masculine, masculine pronouns are used to agree with this. This is often called “gender agreement”, but such agreement in Koine Greek does not necessarily mean that what is being spoken of is actually being designated as a “he” or “she” or “it”. The same is true of Biblical Hebrew, and is also true of many other languages.

The Koine Greek word for “spirit” is neuter in form, and thus it usually takes neuter forms of pronouns. Many translations, however, based the preconception that God's Holy Spirit is a person, add masculine personal pronouns to many scriptures referring to the Holy Spirit.

The Biblical Hebrew word for spirit is feminine, and thus usually takes feminine forms of pronouns. Biblical Hebrew does not have a neuter gender. God's Holy Spirit, however, is definitely not a female, although I have come across some who have made such a claim.

The point is, however, that if translators view the Holy Spirit as being a person, they may supply the words “he”, “his”, “him”, etc., even though the Greek form is neuter, and thus, strictly speaking should be “it”. The usage of translations that supply masculine pronouns for the Holy Spirit as proof that God’s Holy Spirit is a person, however, would actually be “circular reasoning”, for it would be saying, in effect, that since we believe that the Holy Spirit is a person, we have supplied masculine pronouns related the Holy Spirit, and thus, because we have supplied these masculine pronouns, these masculine pronouns prove that the Holy Spirit is a person. Such is actually a form of fallacious reasoning.

The King James Version uses the neuter pronoun “it” of “the Spirit” four times. — John 1:32; Romans 8:16, 26; 1 Peter 1:11.

In reality, since both Hebrew and Greek most often uses gender in a different manner than such is used in English, the usage of either masculine and/or neuter pronouns in Koine Greek as well as Biblical Greek cannot be used to determine whether the Holy Spirit is a male person or an “it”. Likewise, in Biblical Hebrew the usage of feminine pronouns certainly does not designate the Holy Spirit as being a female person.

By Ronald R. Day, Sr. (ResLight, RLBible)

Written By Others
(I do not necessarily agree with all conclusions given)

Gender of the Holy Spirit (Wikipedia)

Pronouns, Subjects, Objects and Owners

The Living and True God

John 14:24 - Did Jesus Disclaim Being the Word of God?

By Ronald R. Day

John 14:24 - He who doesn't love me doesn't keep my words. The word which you hear isn't mine, but the Father's who sent me. 

It has been claimed that Jesus, by his words recorded in John 14:24, was denying that he is the Logos of John 1:1-15, and evidently also of Revelation 19:13.

John 1:14,15,29,30 definitely shows that the Logos spoken in John 1:1 is the Son of God, Jesus. Denying that the Logos became flesh, or that when the Logos became flesh he ceased being the Logos does not actually fit what is stated.

The name "Logos of God" -- applied to Jesus -- signifies one who speaks, who delivers, the words of God. Of course, Jesus is not literally "the Word." Revelation 19:13 shows that this is a titular name. A comparison can be made in that Jesus also refers to himself as "the truth". (John 14:6) Does this mean that Jesus is literally "the truth"? Obviously, Jesus is referring to himself as the embodiment of truth related to his God and Father, Jehovah. (Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3) Jesus reflects the glory of his God perfectly, and he came to declare the truth about His God. (John 1:18; 1 John 5:20) Thus, in the same manner, Jesus is the embodiment of Word of His God, for he represents his God and speaks the words of his God, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. (Exodus 3:13,14; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Isaiah 61:1; John 3:34; 5:19; 6:29; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,42; 10:36; 12:44-50; 14:10,24; 17:1,3,8; Acts 3:13-26; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Galatians 4:4; Hebrews 1:1,2; 1 John 4:9,10) This is what Jesus actually claimed in John 14:24, that the words he spoke on behalf of his God were not his own words, but that of his God. Thus, instead of not identifying himself as being the Logos of God, Jesus was actually stating that he is the Logos of his God. 

Ephesians 4:30 - Grieve Not the Holy Spirit

 And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption. -- Ephesians 4:30, King James Version.

Many trinitarians (and some others) may point to Ephesians 4:30 as proof that the Holy Spirit is a person. "God," however, in the expression, "the holy spirit of God", obviously is referring to only one person, and the "holy spirit" is presented as be a possession of that one person who is God. This is in harmony with Ephesians 4:6, where only the Father is presented as being  the "one God". Likewise in Ephesians 4:13, "God" is again presented as being only one person, and "Christ" (meaning the anointed) is distinguished from being that one person, since he is presented as being the son of that one person. 

The scriptures show that God's Holy Spirit is is likened to God's finger, at least in as God's Holy Spirit represents the power of God. (Matthew 12:28; Luke 11:20) One's finger is, of course, and extension of one's self, but one would not say that one's finger is another person of oneself. Regardless, what one's finger does is what is directed by the owner of that finger; what is done by one's finger is what is done by the person to whom the finger belongs. Likewise, with God and and His Holy Spirit. The point is that as one's finder is an extension of the person to whom the finger belongs, so God's Holy Spirit is an extension of God to whom the Holy Spirit belongs. God's Holy Spirit could be used as an extension of God as more or less figuratively being God's mouth, His eyes, His ears, His heart, His disposition, His will, etc. Of course, God's Holy Spirit, being an extension of God Himself, could certainly be spoken of as as being grieved. This does not mean that we need to imagine, assume, add to, and read into the scriptures that God is three persons, and that His Holy Spirit is one of the persons of Himself.

Because of their desire to make God's Holy Spirit appear to be a person, many translations add a personal pronoun to the Bible in this verse (and many other verses pertaining to the Holy Spirit). For instance, the New King James Version adds the pronoun "whom":

And do not grieve the Holy Spirit of God, by whom you were sealed for the day of redemption.

In the Greek, the word for spirit is neuter, and thus, in harmony with the Koine Greek syntax, all pronouns relating to spirit are neuter. IF the spirit were referring to a person, it could still be neuter in the Greek.  One cannot depend on the gender of pronouns in the Koine Greek to determine whether an object is referring to a person or not. Thus, supplying the pronoun "whom" in an English translation does not mean that we need to imagine and assume the God's Holy Spirit is actually a "him", a masculine person. There is certainly no reason to add to what Paul wrote anywhere in Ephesians 4 that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is three persons, and that one those persons is God's Holy Spirit.

John 14:16,26; 15:26 – The Comforter – Is It A Person?

 (This study has not yet been fully edited; links may not work)

In John 14:16, we read, “I will pray the Father, and He shall give you  another Comforter, even the Spirit of Truth”. And again in John 14:26, “but the Comforter, the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, He shall teach you all things”. And again in John 15:26, “When the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, He shall testify of me”.

The claim is that in all three of these passages, we have a perfect statement of  the three Divine Persons, acting in perfect unity, yet each Person in the same relative position – the Father as the Fountain of all authority; the Son as obeying the Father, revealing, and teaching, and praying, in His prophetic and priestly offices; and then the Holy Spirit proceeding from the Father, by the command of the Son, as the anointing and powerful Comforter.

As is always the case, in all of the scriptures referred to, one has to assume beyond what is written, and add to and read into those scriptures the idea of the three divine persons in one God.

Most translations refer to the holy spirit in the above scriptures in the masculine. It is only in reference to the holy spirit as the comforter that the masculine is ever used in the Greek concerning the holy spirit. All other references to the holy spirit, in the Greek, is neuter. This has to do with the way the Greek language is expressed, and in no instance can one use one or the other Greek gender used to prove that the holy spirit is or is not a person.

In 1 John 4:2, John states: “By this you know the Spirit of God.” When he uses the word “God” in this verse, is he speaking of “God” as a unipersonal God, or is he speaking of “God” as three persons? Most trintarians will say that “God” here refers to the “God the Father,” without thinking about how this makes the God to whom the holy spirit belongs as one person, not three. Indeed, all through the New Testament, God is most often used to refer the God and Father of Jesus as one person, not three persons.

The Bible reveals the holy spirit as a extension of God, figuratively as his finger, his mouth. (Matthew 12:28; Luke 11:20; 1 Kings 8:24; 2 Chronicles 6:4; 36:12,21; Ezra 1:1; Isaiah 1:20; 40:5; 45:23; 48:3; 58:14; 62:2; Jeremiah 9:12,20; Ezekiel 33:7; Micah 4:4; Matthew 4:4; Mark 12:36; Acts 1:17; 28:25; Hebrews 3:7; 9:8; 10:15,16; 2 Peter 1:21) As such it does indeed have the attributes of personality of its Owner, the unipersonal God. However, the scriptures never, ever, reveal the holy spirit to be a separate and distinct person of its Owner. Such an idea has to be assumed, added to and read into the expressions used of God’s holy spirit.

As regards the rendering in English, since the masculine usage in the verses should not be considered as stating that the Comforter is  a person, then the verses can be understood as: John 14:16-26: “I will pray to the Father, and He shall give you  another Comforter, even the Spirit of Truth”. “but the Comforter, the Holy Spirit, which the Father will send in my name that will teach you all things”. And again in John 15:26, “When the Comforter is come which I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceeds from the Father, that will testify of me”.

Related Studies:

Isaiah 61:1 — The Spirit of Yahweh On the Anointed One

Ephesians 3:11-15 - Must We See Trinity in What Paul Wrote?

2 Corinthians 1:21,22 – Christ, God and the Spirit

Romans 8:9 – Spirit of God and Spirit of Christ

Romans 5:5,6 – God’s Love, Holy Spirit, Christ’s Death

Acts 5:3,4 – Ananias Lied to God, Not to Men

Links to Other Bible Students’ Sites

How Does the Holy Spirit Work? (Christian Questions Radio)

Does the Holy Spirit Speak? (Christian Questions Radio)

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