Tuesday, June 21, 2022

Acts 4:12 – The Only Name Given By Which We Are Saved


The question has been asked, If the name “Jehovah/Yahweh” is so important, then why does Acts 4:12 say, “There is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name [v10 Jesus Christ] under heaven that has been given among men, by which we must be saved”? Would this not have been the logical place for God to have used the name “Jehovah”?

Acts 4:12 in the World English reads:

There is salvation in none other, for neither is there any other name under heaven, that is given among men, in [Greek, Strong’s #1722, instrumental “en”, by means of] which we must be saved!

From the Westcott & Hort Interlinear:

Acts 4:12
kai ouk estin en allw oudeni hee swteeria oude
AND NOT IS IN OTHER NO ONE THE SALVATION, NEITHER
2532 3756 1510_2 1722 0243 3762 3588 4991 3761

gar onoma estin heteron hupo ton ouranon to
FOR NAME IS DIFFERENT UNDER THE HEAVEN THE
1063 3686 1510_2 2087 5259_5 3588 3772 3588

dedomenon en anthrwpois en hw dei
HAVING BEEN GIVEN IN MEN IN WHICH IT IS NECESSARY
1325 1722 0444 1722 3739 1163

swtheenai heemas
TO BE SAVED US.
4982 1473_95

There is nothing in Acts 4:12 that robs the Holy Name of the Most High of its importance. The name “Jesus” is “given among men” from the God and Father of Jesus (Ephesians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3) as the name by which men must be saved. As an office, the God and Father of Jesus has exalted the name of Jesus above every name (Philippians 2:9), excluding that name (office, position) which only belongs to the Most High. (1 Corinthians 15:27) Nothing in the scripture says that the name of Jesus replaces the importance of the name of His God, Jehovah. -- Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3.

Jesus was sent by his God, Jehovah, speaks for his God Jehovah, and represents his God Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Acts 3:13-26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.

Some, however, would claim that Jehovah speaks of Himself as being the "only savior", and from this they reason that Jesus must Jehovah, since --  according to their reasoning -- there is only "one savior." Actually, the Scriptures say that there is no savior (or salvation) besides (apart from) him. (Isaiah 43:10) Jehovah sent many saviors to Israel, but these saviors were not besides (apart from) Jehovah. (Nehemiah 9:27) Likewise, Jehovah sent his firstborn son to be the savior of the world. Since Jesus was sent by his God, Jehovah, he was not a savior besides (apart from) his God, Jehovah.  -- Isaiah 61:1,2; John 3:17; 8:42; 10:36; 17;3; Galatians 4:4; 1 John 4:9,10.

Jesus receives his power and strength from Jehovah, his God. — Psalm 2:2,7,8; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 61:1; Micah 5:4; Luke 1:32; Jeremiah 23:5; Daniel 7:13,14; John 17:1,3; Acts 2:36; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Hebrews 1:2,6.

As shown in the Interlinear above, the Greek word transliterated as “EN” is instrumental. Jesus is the only instrument that God uses to pay the price necessary to deliver man from the condemnation in Adam, thus it is only logical that Paul would say that there is no other name by means of which we are saved. In other words, the only Most High is the ultimate savior, Jesus is the instrument that the Most High uses to bring salvation. 


References:

Links to Studies Related to Jesus as "Savior"

Links to Studies Related to God's Holy Name

https://biblehub.com/greek/1722.htm





















Thursday, June 16, 2022

Matthew 19:16-22, Mark 10:17-22, Luke 18:18-23 - Agathos



Was Jesus claiming to be God Almighty in his words recorded in Matthew 19:16-22, Mark 10:17-22, or Luke 18:18-23? Was he claiming that he was not God Almighty?

The word-for-word translation of Matthew 19:17 as presented from the Westcott and Hort Interlinear without the added words and punctuation:

THE BUT SAID TO HIM WHY ME ASK ABOUT THE GOOD ONE IS THE GOOD IF BUT YOU ARE WILLING INTO THE LIFE TO ENTER BE OBSERVING THE COMMANDMENTS
The word-for-word translation of Mark 10:18 as presented from the Westcott and Hort Interlinear without the added punctuation:

THE BUT JESUS SAID TO HIM WHY ME YOU ARE SAYING GOOD NO ONE GOOD IF NOT ONE THE GOD

The word-for-word rendering of Luke 18:19, without the added punctuation:

SAID BUT TO HIM THE JESUS WHY ME YOU ARE SAYING GOOD NOT ONE GOOD IF NOT ONE THE GOD
These verses are often referred to by trinitarians, oneness believers, and some others as being proof that Jesus was claiming that he is God Almighty. Non-trinitarians often refer to Jesus' words as proof that Jesus is not God Almighty. Not all trinitarians use these verses as proof that Jesus is God. Many do realize that Jesus was simply discussing the point of goodness as being from God. We believe that there is nothing in these verses that either supports that Jesus is God Almighty, or that Jesus is not God Almighty. The discussion was not about whether Jesus was God Almighty, nor was Jesus' reply meant to say that he was claiming to be God Almighty, or that he was disclaiming to be God Almighty. What Jesus said in the Greek text does not actually state, as many claim, that only God is good, although it could certainly be said that Jesus was saying God is the source of goodness, and this would imply indirectly that as the source of goodness, only God is good, and that anyone else who is good is of God. Jesus was evidently, in effect, stating, "I am with the Father who sent me." (John 8:18) Jesus, rather than claiming to be God, consistently claimed to have learned from God, from God, sent by God, delivering the words of his God, doing the works of his God, and in obedience to his God (Matthew 10:40; Mark 9:37; Luke 4:18 [see Isaiah 61:1,2],  Luke 9:48; 10:16; John 4:34; 5:24,30,36,37; 6:29,33-40,44,57; 7:16.17,28,29,33; 8:16,18,26,28,40,42; 9:4; 10:36; 11:42; 12:44,45,49; 13:3,20; 14:24; 15:21; 16:5,27; 17:8,21,23,25; 20:21), and Matthew 19:16-22, Mark 10:17-22, Luke 18:18-23 should be understood in harmony with this. 

Nevertheless, there is definitely nothing in Matthew 19:16-22, Mark 10:17-22, or Luke 18:18-23 that presents the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as being more than one person, nor does Jesus say he is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, as many trinitarians, oneness believers, and some others like to imagine, assume and read into his words.

However we may understand these verses, it must be in harmony with Isaiah 61:1,2; Micah 5:4; John 17:1,3; Acts 3:13-26; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Hebrews 1:1,2, and many other scriptures. Jesus, in effect, was claiming to be what he had elsewhere claimed to be, the one whom Jehovah sent, the Messiah. Jesus speaks the words given to him from the only true Supreme Being. 1 Corinthians 8:6 definitely distinguishes Jesus from the "one God" of whom are all. Hebrews 1:1,2 distinguishes Jesus from being the God who spoke through his prophets Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Not once in any scripture is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob presented as being more than one person or individual, and not once is Jesus presented as being a person of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. -- Exodus 3:13,14; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Isaiah 61:1; John 3:34; 5:19; 6:29; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,42; 10:36; 12:44-50; 14:10,24; 17:1,3,8; Acts 3:13-26; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Galatians 4:4; 1 John 4:9,10.

While Jesus was not denying that he was good, he did acknowledge that his God is the source of his goodness. He was certainly not saying that no one else in the universe is good except his God and Father. Such would have meant that he was claiming that no one else in the universe is "good". It would also mean that the word "good" could not be used of anyone in the Bible except that the person be God Almighty. The Greek word that Jesus used for "good" is often transliterated as agathos. Was Jesus here saying that the word transliterated "agathos" (Strong's G18) above could not be used of anyone but God Almighty? Obviously not, since Jesus and others use the word "agathos" of many persons other than the one true God. (Matthew 5:45; 12:35; 25:21,23; Luke 6:45; 8:15; 19:17; 23:50; Acts 11:24; 2 Corinthians 5:10; 9:8; Galatians 6:10; Ephesians 2:10; 4:28,29; 6:8; Philippians 1:6; Colossians 1:10; 2 Thessalonians 2:17; 1 Timothy 1:5,19; 5:10; Titus 2:5; 3:1; Philemon 1:14; Hebrews 13:21; 1 Peter 2:18; 3:11,13,21; 3 John 1:11) The "good" in all of but God, however, is due what they have received from God; likewise with Jesus.

Some like to point to John 10:11,14 as being proof that Jesus was claiming to be God Almighty since Jesus stated that he was the Good Shepherd. Jesus, however, did not use the word "agathos" in John 10:11,14, but rather he used the word often transliterated as "kalos" (Strong's G2570). The word has different meanings, and should be applied according to context. One of the meanings of this word is "genuine". In the context, we believe Jesus was saying that he was the "genuine shepherd" appointed by Jehovah as opposed to the false shepherds who had not actually been given the sheep. The sheep of Jesus are given to him from the one person who is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Jehovah is the Most High Shepherd; Jesus is the "genuine" (Kalos, Strong's #2570) shepherd appointed over the sheep by the Most High Shepherd, as opposed to the false shepherds. The Most High Shepherd Jehovah judges His sheep through, by means of the genuine shepherd whom he has appointed. -- Psalm 23:1; 96:13; 98:9; Ezekiel 34:2-24; John 5:22,23; 10:11-17,29; Acts 10:42; 17:31; Romans 2:16; 14:10; 1 Corinthians 4:5; 2 Corinthians 5:10.

Matthew 19:16-22, Mark 10:17-22, or Luke 18:18-23, however, were written in Koine Greek which uses syntax that is often a lot different from what we use in English. Sometimes a translation that is too literal may lose the intent of what is being said, as well as fail to harmonize what is said with other scriptures, and thus the scriptures could seem to be contradicting each other. Nevertheless, it is also possible that the translator may misunderstand what is being said, and add words or give a definition based on his misunderstanding. At any rate, Jesus must have been presenting to the rich young man a statement to show who is the source of all goodness, even Jesus' own goodness. He more than likely wanted the young man to know that he was not "good" of himself, that all goodness comes from his God and Father. (Ephesians 1:3) Jesus, of course, never fell short of the glory of his God through sin; he was always 100% obedient to his God and Father. (Romans 3:23; 2 Corinthians 5:21; 1 Peter 2:22-24; 1 John 3:5) Jesus' body of flesh was prepared especially for him aside from the condemnation through Adam that is upon all men. (Romans 5:12-19; Hebrews 10:5) Thus, although Jesus suffered as though he was a sinner, he was not actually of sinful flesh, but through his obedience to his God, he showed that a sinless man could remain obedient, thereby condemning sin the flesh. (Romans 8:3) The rich young ruler was referring to Jesus as "Good Teacher," thus, Jesus was letting him know that if he (Jesus) is "good", then he must be who He claimed to be, the promised Son of the Man, David, whom God sent (Isaiah 61:1; Matthew 10:40; Mark 9:37; Luke 4:18; 9:48; 10:16; John 4:34; 5:24,30,36,37; 6:38,39,44,57; 7:16,28,29,33; 8:16,18,26,29,42; 9:4; 11:42; 12:44,45,49; 13:20; 14:24; 15:21; 16:5; 17:1,3,8,18,21,23,25), for apart from God, no one is "good."

Although we do not believe Jesus was claiming to be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as do the some of the authors of the work we quote below, we do believe these comments are correct:

What he [the rich young ruler] might have seen and failed to see was that the good desires of which he was conscious in himself, and the good words and works which he recognized in Christ, all came from God. The man was too self-confident, too certain that of his own will and power he could do what would win eternal life. Christ, by attributing His own goodness entirely to God (John 5:9-30) cheeks this self-confidence. -- "Commentary on Mark 10". "Cambridge Greek Testament for Schools and Colleges". https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/cgt/mark-10.html. 1896.

John Meggison states:

Paraphrased this answer would mean: “Is this merely a mark of courtesy? Or do you recognize the fact that there is only one standard of goodness, which is represented by God the Father, and that therefore in calling me good you are recognizing not only this divine standard but me as a teacher whom God approves.” Doubtless our Lord’s words were calculated to set the young man thinking -- “This teacher claims to be of God, his claim is either true or false; he is therefore a true prophet or a false one. I have called him Good Master. If I have been sincere, if this is the result of my previous investigation of his teachings, I ought to be willing to accept whatever answer he gives me as of divine direction, and obey promptly.”

Carl Hagensick (not a trinitarian):

When a rich ruler approached Jesus, calling him "Good Master," Jesus answered, "why callest thou me good? There is none good but one, that is, God." It is unclear whether Jesus was here denying his own essential goodness, or challenging the ruler to realize that if he used that epithet for Jesus, he must also recognize him as the Messiah. In either case, it is obvious that to be completely objectively good is above the capabilities of mortal man.

In the first chapter of Genesis the word "good" is used six times to describe God’s evaluation of each progressive creative day. Here the sense of the word is "perfect." Thus "goodness" and "perfection" are closely related concepts. That which qualifies a work as perfect is revealed in Deuteronomy 32:4, "His work is perfect, for all his ways are just" (NAS).

Our goodness is only a reflection of God’s goodness. This is borne out in 2 Thessalonians 1:11, "Wherefore also we pray always for you, that our God would count you worthy of this calling, and fulfil all the good pleasure of his goodness, and the work of faith with power."

http://www.heraldmag.org/1998/98so_6.htm


See also our study:
Does the Law Covenant Give Everlasting Life?