This site's purpose is to respond to claims that Jesus is Jehovah/Yahweh by pointing out what the scriptures do say versus what people often imagine and assume.
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Monday, November 29, 2010
Saturday, November 27, 2010
Is Jesus the Creator?
Connected with the idea that Jesus is Jehovah (Yahweh) is the assumption that Jesus is the Creator. (By "the Creator" is meant the title often given to God -- the Supreme Being -- as being the Source of creation.) Scriptures often cited as proof of that Jesus is the Creator are John 1:3; Colossians 1:16,17 and sometimes Hebrews 1:3,10,11. The claim is that these verses prove that Jesus is "the Creator", and hence that Jesus is Jehovah, the Supreme Being, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. (Exodus 3:15; Acts 3:13) Additionally, Isaiah 44:24 is often offered as proof that Jehovah was alone at creation, and thus, if Jesus was at the creation, Jesus must have been Jehovah.
Actually, there is nothing in any of the above verses that identify Jesus as the Creator -- the source of creation. The word “creator” is never used of Jesus in the Bible. That thought is being imagined, assumed, added to, and read into the scriptures. Jesus himself applied the words “creator” and “creation” to his God and Father, but never to himself. — Mark 10:6; 13:19.
John 1:3
John 1:1-10 shows that Father, the only true God of John 17:1,3, created the world of mankind through His Logos.
In John 1:3,10, we have the Logos as being the one through whom ELOHIM of Genesis 1:1 made the world [kosmos] of mankind, the world into which the Logos came, the same world [kosmos] that became corrupted through the sin of one man. (Romans 5:12-19; 8:20-22) The world being spoken in John 1:3,10 does not include the angels, for Job 38:4-6 lets us know that the angels were already in existence at the "beginning" of Genesis 1:1 and John 1:1.
Many point out that in John 1:3, John says that not one thing was made without the Word, and they like to stress that John used both a form of the Greek word often transliterated as "pas" and it is alleged that he emphasized that this includes absolutely all creation by using a form of the word often transliterated as oude (negative - not, none, no) to say that without him not (oude) one (hen, neuter) thing was created. It is claimed that this means that it is "universal in scope", meaning that it absolutely refers to everything that was created, and thus it is claimed that this would exclude Jesus from having been created. However, the Greek words used rarely mean absolutely "all" in such a sense. A study of forms of the word often transliterated "pas" (all, every, etc.) shows that it is rarely, if ever, used as that which is often assumed in John 1:3; all forms of "pas" always look to context as well as to common evidence (1 Corinthians 15:27) for what is included or excluded in the "all" being spoken of.
For instance, we have a similar usage in Hebrews 2:6-8, based on Psalm 8:4-6, discussing God's original purpose that "all" be made subject to man. Hebrews 2:8 likewise uses a similar positive form of pas and a similar negative form of oude; if one is consistent with the assumed reasoning as often applied to John 1:3, one would also have to say that that which was subjected to man is "universal in scope." And yet Psalm 8:7,8 limits whatever universal scope might be applied to the usage of Hebrews 2:8; the original dominion given to man pertains universally only to the things on the earth. -- Genesis 1:26,28.
To elaborate, in Hebrews 2:8, in speaking of what has been subjected to man as spoken of in Psalm 8:6, we read: "For in that he subjected all things to him, he left nothing that is not subject to him. But now [due to the sin of Adam, man has been subjected to futility -- Romans 5:12-19; 8:20] we don’t see all things subjected to him, yet." Note that the scripture says that God left nothing that is not subject to him (man). Does this mean that God subjected absolutely everything in the entire universe to man? Absolutely not! Psalm 8:7,8 describes the "all things" that was subjected to man, which corresponds with Genesis 1:26,28. All that was subjected to man pertains to all the earth, not absolutely all in the universe.
Likewise, there is an indication of the same limitation of the scope of panta in John 1:3. John 1:10 speaks of the world (kosmos) that the Logos came into as the world that was made through the Logos. That world did not recognize Jesus (the Logos who lived among the disciples, and whose human glory was seen by them. -- John 1:.14. The world in John 1:10 It is this same "world" that Jesus spoke of as recorded in John 17:5. Matthew 24:21 and Mark 13:19 refer to the beginning of the world (kosmos); this world is described in John 1:10 as the world into which the Word came, but which world did not recognize the Word in their midst. Likewise, it is the same "world" that Paul wrote about in Romans 5:12 and Peter spoke of in 2 Peter 1:4. This "world" does not include the spirit sons of God, the angels who are always able to see God's face, even though we have every reason to believe that these invisible spirit sons of God were at some time created. The scriptures indicate that these invisible spirit sons of God were created before the beginning, the creation, of the world of mankind, since scripture shows that the spirit sons of God were already in existence at the beginning of the world of mankind. (Job 38:4-8; Colossians 1:15,16) This brings us to the conclusion that John 1:3,10 is speaking of the world of mankind, not the entire material universe, nor of the angels. This is the "world" that the Word came into, and that did not recognize him. (John 1:10) Thus, it can be seen that the NT writers in connection with "the beginning" of creation understood that this beginning was in reference to things upon the planet earth, not to the entire universe itself.
The Greek word "hen" -- one -- of John 1:3 refers back to "the beginning" spoken of in John 1:1, which is the beginning, not of the entire universe, but of the world (kosmos spoken of in John 1:10), the six days of creation of the land (earth) and the sky (heavens) and the things in them as seen from the surface of the planet. -- Genesis 1:1,3-31; Exodus 20:11; 31:17.
To illustrate further, another form of the Greek word "pas" is used in Romans 8:22: "For we know that all [pasa] creation groans and travails in pain together until now." The "all creation" that is being referred to in Romans 8:22 is not the angels, the stars, the sun, the moon, etc., but rather the world of mankind that has been subjected to vanity (Romans 8:20; Ecclesiastes 1:2,13-15) due to Adam’s sin. (Romans 5:12-19) Thus, absolutely "all creation" in the universe is not included in "all creation", neither in Romans 8:20, nor in what is said in John 1:3. Indeed, if one does a study of the usage of all forms of the word "pas" in the New Testament, one will see that this word rarely means absolutely everything in the universe, but that it is always understood in the context as well as common evidence. John 1:10 indicates that in John 1:3, the "all" that is being referred to is the world of mankind, as it is in Romans 8:22. The only true God (John 17:1,3) is the Creator (Mark 10:6; 13:19); the prehuman Jesus is the instrument — the agent — that the Creator used to bring into being the creation that is being spoken of.
Colossians 1:15-18
In Colossians 1:15-18 the use of the Greek transliterated as "en" as related to the Son and "God" begins in Colossians 1:12 where it shows that the God and Father of Jesus is the original source of the action and Colossians 1:13,14 shows that the action is done by means (Greek, en) the Son. As throughout the New Testament, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is spoken of in Colossians 1:3 as only one person, and that is the God and Father of Jesus. It is the one who is identified as a unipersonal "God" who is "Father" in Colossians 1:12, who is distinguished from his son in Colossians 1:13, and who "by means of" the son in verse 14 that God redeems through the blood of Jesus. In Colossians 1:15, "God" is again distinguished from the son, and in verse 15 we again find the word "en" being used in an instrumental sense, referring back to the Creator in Colossians 1:15, of whom Jesus is designated the firstborn of his creation. God, then, by means of Jesus, made the all in heavens and earth, both visible and invisible thrones, dominions, principalities, etc., (that is the living dominions both in heaven and earth, which excludes the material universe itself. The Bible indicates that God was alone when he created the material universe. Isaiah 44:24 does not refer to the creation of the heavens and earth, the beginning, of Genesis 1:1 and John 1:1, but rather of the actual creation of the material universe itself, before the six days of creation spoken of in Genesis 1:3-2:1; Exodus 20:11; 31:17, and the singular "day" of creation spoken of in Genesis 2:4. The planet earth itself already "was" before the beginning of the six days of creation. -- Genesis 1:2.
Isaiah 44:24
Isaiah 44:24 - Thus saith Jehovah, thy Redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb: I am Jehovah, that maketh all things (Strong's Hebrew #3605 - KOL); that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth (who is with me?);
The word "things" above is added by the translators. Jehovah formed Israel and made all. The Hebrew word often transliterated as KOL, meaning "all", rarely, if ever, in the Bible means absolutely everything in the universe. Absolutely everything would include God himself.
Jehovah stretched the heavens and spread abroad the earth. The latter part especially appears to be referring to the creation of the material universe itself. While "alone" here could be in comparison to the idol gods of the nations who did not form Israel or bring forth the universe, if Jehovah was totally alone when he created the material universe, it would mean that he who is the Logos was not yet created. Jehovah was definitely not totally alone at the beginning spoken of in Genesis 1:1 and John 1:1, since Job 38:4-7 speaks of the spirit sons of God as being present at that time. Thus, Isaiah 44:24 would have to be speaking of an event before the "beginning" of the world of mankind spoken of in John 1:1-3,10; 17:5, and before God brought forth his firstborn son. -- Colossians 1:15.
If Isaiah 44:24 is speaking of the creation of the material universe, as I presented, the creation spoken of in Isaiah 44:24 takes place before the creation of the firstborn son of Colossians 1:15, and before the "all" spoken of in Colossians 1:16. The creation spoken of in Isaiah 44:24 was before the "beginning" of Genesis 1:1 and John 1:1-3,10, since there many sons of God present at that beginning. -- Job 38:4-7l.
Hebrews 1:10,11
Hebrews 1:10,11 indicates that in perishing, the present world, the present heavens and earth will be "changed". Jesus spoke of the present heavens and earth as passing away. (Matthew 24:35; Mark 13:31; Luke 21:33; see also 2 Peter 3:10 and Revelation 21:1) This is not speaking of the heavens where the angels always are able to see the face of God (Matthew 18:10), nor is it speaking of the physical sun, moon, planets, and stars above. Isaiah 65:17 shows that God is creating a new heavens and new earth, a new creation, and that this new heavens and new earth will remain. (Isaiah 66:22) Revelation 21:1-5 reveals that God is to make all things new -- a regeneration of that which was lost through Adam.
See also:
A careful examination of the scriptures, therefore, does not give us any reason to think that Jesus is the Creator, but rather that the Creator, his God and Father, created all that is being spoken of through, or by means of, of his son.
See also our resource page for links to studies related to Jesus and Creation
Friday, November 26, 2010
Matthew 1:23: Immanuel - Does This Mean that Jesus is God?
Nevertheless, we know of no one who is consistent in the kind of application that many like to the name Immauel in Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew 1:23. Many other names given to many people are with similar construction speaking of God, but no one thinks that the usage of God or Jah in those names is being applied to the bearer of those names.
"Jehu", for instance, means "Jah he" or actually in English with the verb supplied: "Jah is he." "Jah" is a short form of the name often rendered as Jehovah. No one, however, thinks that the bearer of the name Jehu is Jehovah. Some references give the meaning as "He is God." This actually changes the shortened form of the Holy Name to "God"; God has nowhere given anyone authorization to change His eternal Holy Name to other words that do not even mean the same. The point, however, is that the bearer of this name is not who is being referred to as "Jah" or "God", but rather it is Jehovah Himself that is being spoken of.
The scriptures show that "God" (one person, not three persons) was "with" Jesus. This is the same one person who spoke through the prophets of old, and who now speaks through His son, Jesus. (Hebrews 1:1,2) Peter spoke of "Jesus of Nazareth, how God anointed him with the Holy Spirit (Isaiah 11:2; 61:1) and with power, who went about [in the days of his flesh -- Hebrews 5:7] doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with him." (Acts 10:38, World English) Peter used the word "God" twice while speaking of Jesus. He first stated how "God" anointed Jesus. Earlier Peter stated: "God has made him both Lord and Christ [meaning, anointed one], this Jesus whom you crucified." (Acts 2:36) Was it three persons that anointed Jesus, or was it one person? Isaiah quotes the Messiah prophetically as stating: "Jehovah hath anointed me" (Isaiah 61:1, American Standard Version) This is the same Jehovah who proclaimed Himself to be "the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob." (Exodus 3:14,15) The one person who is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob speaks and performs His works through His son. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; John 3:34; 5:19; 6:38; 7:16,28,29; 8:28,38,40; 12:29; 14:10; 17:8; Acts 3:13-26; Hebrews 1:1,2.
But when Peter said: "God was with him" (Acts 10:38), who was Peter speaking of as being "God"? Again, it is only one person spoken of as God that Peter speaks of who was with Jesus. However, the fact that "God was with him," and the fact that Jesus was with Israel, demonstrates that God, being with the one whom He anointed, was also with His people Israel through Jesus' presence. However, only a few recognized Jesus for who he really was. -- John 1:10-12.
There is no scriptural reason to add to the scriptures dogma that would make Jesus a person of the Most High, or any teaching that Jesus is the Most High.
For more on this see:
The scriptures show that "God" (one person, not three persons) was "with" Jesus. This is the same one person who spoke through the prophets of old, and who now speaks through His son, Jesus. (Hebrews 1:1,2) Peter spoke of "Jesus of Nazareth, how God anointed him with the Holy Spirit (Isaiah 11:2; 61:1) and with power, who went about [in the days of his flesh -- Hebrews 5:7] doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with him." (Acts 10:38, World English) Peter used the word "God" twice while speaking of Jesus. He first stated how "God" anointed Jesus. Earlier Peter stated: "God has made him both Lord and Christ [meaning, anointed one], this Jesus whom you crucified." (Acts 2:36) Was it three persons that anointed Jesus, or was it one person? Isaiah quotes the Messiah prophetically as stating: "Jehovah hath anointed me" (Isaiah 61:1, American Standard Version) This is the same Jehovah who proclaimed Himself to be "the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob." (Exodus 3:14,15) The one person who is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob speaks and performs His works through His son. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; John 3:34; 5:19; 6:38; 7:16,28,29; 8:28,38,40; 12:29; 14:10; 17:8; Acts 3:13-26; Hebrews 1:1,2.
But when Peter said: "God was with him" (Acts 10:38), who was Peter speaking of as being "God"? Again, it is only one person spoken of as God that Peter speaks of who was with Jesus. However, the fact that "God was with him," and the fact that Jesus was with Israel, demonstrates that God, being with the one whom He anointed, was also with His people Israel through Jesus' presence. However, only a few recognized Jesus for who he really was. -- John 1:10-12.
There is no scriptural reason to add to the scriptures dogma that would make Jesus a person of the Most High, or any teaching that Jesus is the Most High.
For more on this see:
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