Skip to main content

Was Jesus Divine as Human?

The affirmation below is made by many Bible Students:

I. We affirm the humanity of Jesus and the deity of Christ. (Reprints 4955)

Probably, most Bible Students would say that Jesus is divine, but Bible Students generally limit the term “divine” as applied to Jesus only after his resurrection, for they blend the meaning of “divine” with “immortality” in the spirit realm. We believe, however, the scriptures indicate that a broader usage of the terms “deity” and “divine” can be applied.

The question has been raised, was Jesus, as a human being, “divine”, or “deity”? Most Bible Students would probably answer “no”, for they generally view the term “divine” to be equivalent with “spirit being”, without consideration of any broader usage of the term. Additionally, to say, as a human, that Jesus was divine, implies agreement the trinitarian alleged dual nature of Jesus, in their claim that he was God in the flesh. But we believe that there is a scriptural sense in which Jesus, as a human, could be said to be divine.

In some cases, it is true that the Hebrew words EL and ELOHIM are used in the sense of divine being  as spirit beings, as in Psalm 8:5, and also I believe in John 1:1, THEOS is used to designate the kind of being that the LOGOS ‘was’ before coming into the world of mankind. However, the Hebrews also used the words designating divinity in a sense of special mightiness, even of humans. Therefore, Moses was made, not a divine being, but divine, mighty, toward Pharaoh of Egypt, and also toward Aaron, whom Yahweh spoke of as Moses’ prophet, or spokesperson (Exodus 4:16; 7:1), thus Moses could be referred to as divine although a human. The term Ha Elohim is applied to the judges of Israel, as a body of men, not as spirit beings (Exodus 21:6; 22:8,9,28 [See Acts 23:5]), thus these men could be referred to as “divine”, although men. Furthermore, in Psalm 82, the terms EL and ELOHIM are being applied to human sons of God, thus they could be referred to as divine, although human. In each of these instances those humans could be referred to as “divine” because of special powers and mightiness given to them by God.

Likewise, Jesus, as a human, was given special powers or mightiness by his God to perform various works and miracles, and to speak for the only true God. Therefore, in this sense, Jesus could also be referred to as divine, a mighty one, even as a human being, similar to the way the Moses, the judges of Israel, and the sons of God, as humans with God-given power or might, are also referred to as EL and ELOHIM.

Of course, after his exaltation (Acts 2:33; 5:31; Philippians 2:9), he is now a divine spirit being (1 Corinthians 15:45), higher than the angels (Hebrews 1:4,6), who are also called *elohim* — divine beings. — Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7.

Before coming to the earth, Jesus, as the Logos, was also a divine spirit being with a glory of a heavenly body (1 Corinthians 15:40) alongside his God and Father, but he was not so highly exalted as he now is. — John 1:1; 17:1,3,5.

Did Jesus have the divine nature while as a human? Not in the trinitarian sense, nor in the sense that most Bible Students use the term "divine nature". Many give that phrase the meaning of another term, "immortality", which is believed to only be given to Jesus and the 144,000. However, usage of forms of the words for deity/divinity in the Bible are not limited to either the definition trinitarians give to it or the definition often attributed to that term by many Bible Students. The scriptures indicate that Jesus was a partaker of the divine nature while a human because he was never corrupted as the world is. (2 Peter 1:4) This does not mean that Jesus was God Almighty in the flesh, as trinitarians and some others claim. Nor does it mean that Jesus possessed a "nature" of being immortal in the days of his flesh. It simply means that he was never morally corrupted. He was born into the world without corruption, thus unlike believers, he did not have to “escape” the corruption that is in the world through desire, but he did have to overcome any temptation, which, if he succumbed to, would cause him to become corrupted, and thus no longer incorrupt. 

We do believe that Jesus did indeed exist before he came down from his God in heaven (John 17:5), and in coming into the world of mankind, God specially prepared his body (Hebrews 10:5) so that in his humanity was life (John 1:4), a life not under any condemnation of death as common to all mankind dying in Adam. (1 Corinthians 15:22; Romans 5:15-19) He was not made a sinner, as all mankind has been through Adam (Romans 5:19), nor was he ever made crooked (corrupt) as God has with mankind through Adam. (Ecclesiastes 1:15) Jesus was never corrupted, even though he suffered as though under the bondage of corruption (Romans 8:23), in the likeness of sinful flesh (Philippians 2:7; Romans 8:3) — although his flesh was not sinful. He died, the just for the unjust. (1 Peter 3:18) Thus, only Jesus, if he remained obedient, could offer to the Most High a sacrifice for sin. (Romans 8:3; Ephesians 5:2; Hebrews 9:14; 0:10,12,14,18) Jesus did prove himself incorruptible by his perfect obedience, and thus he brought life and incorruption to light through this good news. (2 Timothy 1:10) This is the basis for belief in Jesus for our salvation from sin and death, and thus the basis for true Christianity.

If, on the other hand, he was the Most High in the flesh, as many claim, then no ransom has been provided, and God, instead of being seen as justified (Romans 3:26), would be condemned, and sin in the flesh, rather than being condemned (Romans 8:3), would be justified. In other words, his life would have proven that only God could obey God’s laws for man, that thus, God Himself was unjust in giving man a law or command that the human could not obey, and then condemning all mankind for not obeying the law.

There is definitely no scripture that presents Jesus as being the Supreme Being and a human being at the same time. Indeed, no scripture presents Jesus as being God Almighty, the Supreme Being at all. 

Related studies:
Hebraic Usage of the Titles for "God"

Comments

Popular posts from this blog

Zechariah 3:2 - Does Jehovah Ask Jehovah to Rebuke Satan?

Zechariah 3:1-2 - And he showed me Joshua the high priest standing before the angel of Jehovah, and Satan standing at his right hand to be his adversary.[2] And Jehovah said unto Satan, Jehovah rebuke thee, O Satan; yea, Jehovah that hath chosen Jerusalem rebuke thee: is not this a brand plucked out of the fire? -- American Standard Version .  Deuteronomy 6:4 - Hear, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah. -- American Standard Version. Zechariah 3:2 is sometimes quoted as proof that Jesus is called "Jehovah" and therefore it is claimed that Jesus is a person of the trinitarian concept of three persons in God. Of course, there is nothing all here that presents any concept that the one Jehovah is more than one person, or that He is three persons, etc. Such concepts have to imagined, assumed, added to, and read into what is stated. As it reads in the translation above, it would appear that there are two different Jehovahs, one Jehovah who speaks of another Jehovah, ...

Psalm 110:5 - Did David Claim the Messiah is Jehovah?

The Lord is at your right hand. He will crush kings in the day of his wrath. -- Psalm 110:5, World English . Some refer to Psalm 110:5 as proof that Jesus is Jehovah, or a person of Jehovah. The claim appears to be that since David's Lord is spoke of as being at the right hand of Jehovah in Psalm 110:1, that Jehovah is depicted as being at the right hand of Jehovah in Psalm 110:5 must be referring to the Messiah as the second person Jehovah, sitting at the right hand of the first person of Jehovah. Of course, one has to add a lot of assumptions to the what is said in Psalm 110:1,5 in order to "see" any idea of the alleged trinity at all. The Masoretic text does not have the Holy Name in this verse; it has what is often transliterated as "adonay/adonai." http://qbible.com/hebrew-old-testament/psalms/110.html#5 The original Hebrew, however, does not actually have ADONAY anywhere. In the ancient Hebrew, there is no distinction between adonay and adony. They a...

Hebrews 1:10-12- Does Jehovah Speak to Jehovah?