John 9:35 - Jesus heard that they had thrown him out, and finding him, he said, "Do you believe in the Son of God?"
John 9:36 - He answered, "Who is he, Lord, that I may believe in him?"
John 9:37 - Jesus said to him, "You have both seen him, and it is he who speaks with you."
John 9:38 - He said, "Lord, I believe!" and he worshiped him.
By Ronald R. Day, Sr. (this study needs to be edited)
The above verses are often presented with the claim that the blind man called Jesus "God". We have found no explanation for this claim regarding these verses, but since it is obvious that the blind man did not speak of Jesus as being "God," that something this man said is being interpreted to mean that he called Jesus "God."
What title did the blind man call Jesus by? Not "God," but "Lord." Evidently, then, what is being imagined and assumed is that is that "Lord" means "God." Let's plug that in to see what how it would read:
John 9:35 - Jesus heard that they had thrown him out, and finding him, he said, "Do you believe in the Son of God?"
John 9:36 - He answered, "Who is he, [God}, that I may believe in him?"
John 9:37 - Jesus said to him, "You have both seen him, and it is he who speaks with you."
John 9:38 - He said, "{God}, I believe!" and he worshiped him.
This idea would actually present a contradiction, in that, as recorded in verse 36, the blind man would have addressed Jesus as "God" before he knew who Jesus was. Such would actually make no sense. Why would be calling this man whom he did not know "God"?
One might claim that "Lord" in the New Testament replaces the Holy Name of God, which name is often presented in English as "Jehovah." While it is true that in many instances in the New Testament, we do find that the Holy Name has been replaced with a form of the Greek word often transliterated as KURIOS, meaning "Lord", this does not mean that every place that we find the word KURIOS, it is an instance where the Holy Name has been replaced. Definitely, this blind man did call Jesus by the name "Jehovah" as recorded in verse John 9:36, for the same reasons as already given regarding giving the word "Lord" the meaning of "God."
The Greek word "KURIOS" means: master, lord, sir. Indeed, many transltations render it as "sir" in John 9:36 and a few do so John 9:38. The failure to render it "sir" in both verses may be due to the biased idea that in John 9:38, that the blind man was in some way referring to the Jesus as God Almgighty, but that in verse 36 he was not.
John 9:36
New International Version
“Who is he, sir?” the man asked. “Tell me so that I may believe in him.”
New Living Translation
The man answered, “Who is he, sir? I want to believe in him.”
English Standard Version
He answered, “And who is he, sir, that I may believe in him?”
Berean Study Bible
“Who is He, Sir?” he replied. “Tell me so that I may believe in Him.”
New American Standard Bible
He answered by saying, “And who is He, Sir, that I may believe in Him?”
Christian Standard Bible
“Who is he, Sir, that I may believe in him? ” he asked.
Berean Literal Bible
He answered and said, "And who is He, Lord, that I may believe in Him?"
John 9:38
Weymouth New Testament
"I believe, Sir," he said. And he threw himself at His feet.
Young's Literal Translation
and he said, 'I believe, sir,' and bowed before him.
The fact is that the word "God" appears only once in John 9:35-38, and it that instance it refers to only one person, and Jesus referred to himself as being the "Son" of that one person. Paul identifies that one person as the God and Father of Jesus (Ephesians 1:6) and as the "one God" of whom are all. -- 1 Corinthians 8:6.
There is definitely nothing in John 9:36-38 that identifies Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as being more than one person, nor is there anything in these veses that identify Jesus as being the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
The blind man does not at all say that Jesus is God.
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