Tuesday, September 26, 2023

John 1:18 - The Bosom of God (Working On)

(This study is not yet completed)

A few trinitarians claim that John 1:18 tells us that Jesus is "from the bosom of God," or "out of the bosom of God." Before we begin, we wish to point out that John 1:18 does not say that Jesus is from or out of the bosom of God, but rather

No one has seen God at any time. The one and only Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has declared him. -- World English.

The Greek word rendered "in" above is Strong's Greek #1519, which does not carry the meaning of "from". While it can carry several shades of meaning, in John 1:18, it appears to be used in the sense of being in union with.
https://biblehub.com/greek/1519.htm
https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/greek/1519.html

One claims:

As you all well know, the Prologue to the Gospel of John announces that, the Logos, the Word which was in beginning with the Father has come forth, proceeding from the bosom of God the Father and as a matter of fact the Word is God. You already know that God the Word is also God the Son. Furthermore you already know that God the Word, the Son became flesh, which means he became a real human being, body and all and you know that Jesus is the Son of God Incarnate. The word used for “flesh” here in the Prologue is the word “sarx” and this means that God literally assumed true flesh and thus God truly affirms his love and commitment to flesh, to “sarx.” The whole created order is very good, the material world is very good, human flesh, human nature is very good and the Incarnation is an act of God that demonstrates just how good flesh is in God’s eyes.

The above is not very clear as related to what is meant by stating that Jesus "has come forth, proceeding from the bosom of God the Father." The "bosom" is not actually explained, but it does appear to be making the claim that when Jesus became flesh, he proceeded from the bosom of God. 

Of course, if one views John 1:1 as saying that the Word was God (Supreme Being), then according to what is actually written, without creating a lot of extra-Biblical assumptions to add to and read into what is stated, it would mean that there are two Supreme Beings, one Supreme Being who is with another Supreme Being. One does have to create several conjectures beyond what is stated and then add those conjectures to, and read those conjectures into John 1:1-3 in order to imagine and assume that it is saying that one person of the "one God" was with another person of the "one God." While the Hebrew and Greek words for "God/god" can be used in other ways than designated the Supreme Being or false gods, there is, however, in fact, only "one God" from whom are all, and that "one God" is not Jesus, but rather the God and Father of Jesus. -- 1 Corinthians 8:6; see also our study The Hebraic Usage of the Titles for "God"; also see our Studies Related to John 1:1

There is definitely nothing in John 1 about the Most High God becoming incarnate. This also has to be imagined and assumed beyond what is written, added to what is written, and read into what is written. The Bible nowhere relates that God Almighty assumed human flesh, and then offered Himself as man to Himself to pay the price of sin for mankind. Indeed, trinitarianism usually denies that Jesus offered his body of flesh with its blood to God at all, since they claimed that the man Jesus still exists, and still has that flesh. 

John 1:18, if read in harmony with the rest of the scriptures and with Biblical Hebraic usage in mind, should be rather easy to understand. Nevertheless, the trinitarian likes to imagine this, and imagine that, and claim that what is being imagined is revealed by the Holy Spirit, so as to make Jesus be saying something that he did not say, nor that any scripture anywhere says, that is, that "God" who cannot be seen refers to their alleged first person of "God", but Jesus, being the alleged third person of God is God who can be seen. Then, since they claim that what they have imagined is revealed by God's Holy Spirit, many of them proclaim their imaginations to be "orthodox" and thus they further claim that any who disagree with their imaginations is not Christian.

Of course, if Jesus was "God in the flesh" as they claim, then rather than condemn in sin the flesh (Romans 8:3), Jesus actually justified sin the flesh, for Jesus would have proved that only God can obey God, and human flesh alone cannot obey God. Indeed, this is what many trinitarians claim, that only God is sinless, and no human being can be without sin.

Another point is that if God Almighty was made flesh, are became flesh, that would actually mean that He was no longer God Almighty, but a man of flesh, having a bodily glory that is a little lower than the angels. Trinitarians have to make up a story about Jesus having two "natures" while he was in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), he was actually the Supreme  Being and a human being at the same time. Not only that, they claim that he is still to this day both Supreme Being and a human being, although they usually do not put express in terms of Supreme Being and human being, but rather as "divine nature" and "human nature".

Scripturally, however, Adam was without sin, until he sinned. Thus, originally, man of flesh, without sin, was very good in God's eyes. (Genesis 1:31) As long as Adam did not disobey, he did not fall short of the glory of God in his flesh. (Romans 3:23) In other words, the first man did not become a flesh being due to his sin, but he was already a flesh being before he sinned. Thus it was that Solomon was right when he said, "God made man upright." -- Ecclesiastes 7:29 

Nevertheless, Adam did sin through disobedience and thus was no longer "very good," for he then fell short of the glory of God. Due to Adam's disobedience, however, God made man "crooked" (unjust), and under a bondage of corruption, given over all kinds of sinful desires. -- Ecclesiastes 7:13; Romans 1:24-32; 8:19-21.

Due to his great wisdom and love, God not only condemned Adam but also all of Adam's descendants to death. This condemnation would have been permanent, but God's wisdom and love made it temporary due to the atoning sacrifice of the man, Christ Jesus. All were condemned in one disobedient man so only one obedient man would be needed to offset the condemnation. -- Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 1 Timothy 2:5,6; 1 John 2:2; Hebrews 2:9.

For studies related to the atonement through Jesus:
The Son coming from the bosom of the Father inherits the very same 100% divine nature of God his Father, just as Eve, made from Adam’s rib, inherited his exact same humanity. She was cloned from Adam, one in nature, only “a little short of being identical.” His use of “co-substantial” was novel. It effectively describes the identical nature that will be possessed (having “the same attributes”) of the true Son who comes forth from his true Father.

Here it is directly claimed that Jesus' coming from the bosom of the Father is believed to be from "100% divine nature." While the term "divine nature" can mean many different things, as used here it is evidently meant the nature of being the Supreme Being, the "one God" from whom are all. (1 Corinthians 8:6) However, as yet, we have not found what Hebrew or Greek Biblical words would correspond with this phrase with the meaning often ascribed to it. Eve was certainly not the same human being as Adam, and if such is applied to the trinity, it would mean that Jesus and his Father are two Supreme Being who share the quality of being supreme in their being. Such an idea is nowhere found in the Bible, nor it the idea that if God Almighty, that son has to also be God Almighty. Such would actually make two God Almighies from whom are all. Scripturally, however, there is no reason to create all the trinitarian surmisings and add those to and read those into the Bible. The Bible can be seen to fully at harmony with itself without adding all the trinitarian philosophies to the Bible.

 ****** more to be added later, God willing.




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