"Looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus." -- Titus 2:13, New American Standard
First
of all, there is nothing in the scripture about three persons in one
God, nor is there any scripture that identifies Jesus as being the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob; such ideas have to imagined using the spirit of human imagination, formed
into dogma, then the assumed dogma has to be added to, and read into the
scripture.
Titus 2:13
prosdechomenoi teen makarian elpida kai epiphaneian
AWAITING THE HAPPY HOPE AND MANIFESTATION
4327 3588 3107 1680 2532 2015
tees doxees tou megalou theou kai swteeros heemwn
OF THE GLORY OF THE GREAT GOD AND OF SAVIOR OF US
3588 1391 3588 3173 2316 2532 4990 1473_8
christou ieesou
OF CHRIST JESUS,
5547 2424 -- Westcott & Hort Transliterated Interlinear
Titus 2:13
prosdechomenoi teen makarian elpida kai epiphaneian
AWAITING THE HAPPY HOPE AND MANIFESTATION
4327 3588 3107 1680 2532 2015
tees doxees tou megalou theou kai swteeros heemwn
OF THE GLORY OF THE GREAT GOD AND OF SAVIOR OF US
3588 1391 3588 3173 2316 2532 4990 1473_8
christou ieesou
OF CHRIST JESUS,
5547 2424 -- Westcott & Hort Transliterated Interlinear
This scripture can possibly be translated different ways, depending upon the
translator's understanding of what is being said, or bias. Albert Barnes, although he contends that Jesus is being called the great God in Titus 2:13, does state: "It is uncertain whether these words should be read together thus, 'the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ, the great God and our Savior,' or separately, as of the Father and the Son, 'the glory of the great God, and of our Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ.'" Since, Jesus is definitely NOT the "one God" of whom are all (1 Corinthians 8:6), the correct procedure should be to view Titus 2:13 from that perspective. The Greek form for "God" above is transliterated as "THEOU", a form of "THEOS."
Nevertheless, according to Hebraic usage, the words from which forms of the Greek word for Theos are translated from the Hebrew also are used in a more general sense of Might, Strength. The Christian certainly receives his strength through Jesus. Of course, Jesus is the One of Power sent by the only true God, Jehovah, who gives Jesus his power, and Jesus is the savior sent by the only true God, Jehovah. Jesus is theos -- deity, a powerful one -- and is therefore true theos in a secondary sense, but not in the sense of being the only true Supreme Being, the Source of all might. In the Bible, only the God and Father of Jesus is spoken of as having the attribute of being "one God" of whom are all. (1 Corinthians 8:6) Even as the saints are called *theoi*, so it would be proper to call Jesus *theos*, as the one given power and authority by Jehovah. -- John 10:34,35; 17:1,3 -- See also Psalm 82.
Nevertheless, according to Hebraic usage, the words from which forms of the Greek word for Theos are translated from the Hebrew also are used in a more general sense of Might, Strength. The Christian certainly receives his strength through Jesus. Of course, Jesus is the One of Power sent by the only true God, Jehovah, who gives Jesus his power, and Jesus is the savior sent by the only true God, Jehovah. Jesus is theos -- deity, a powerful one -- and is therefore true theos in a secondary sense, but not in the sense of being the only true Supreme Being, the Source of all might. In the Bible, only the God and Father of Jesus is spoken of as having the attribute of being "one God" of whom are all. (1 Corinthians 8:6) Even as the saints are called *theoi*, so it would be proper to call Jesus *theos*, as the one given power and authority by Jehovah. -- John 10:34,35; 17:1,3 -- See also Psalm 82.
Additionally, "the Lord Jesus Christ" could be referring to the word "glory". Jesus will indeed, in effect, come as "the glory" of his God and Father (Ephesians 1:3), as he is the "sun of righteousness." -- Malachi 4:2, and Jesus comes in the glory of his God and Father. -- Matthew 16:27; Mark 8:38; Luke 9:27.
Nevertheless, we highly doubt that it was Paul's intent to speak of Jesus as the "great God."
We present below several translations of Titus 2:13 that render this verse in various ways:
"while
we wait for the blessed hope and the manifestation of the glory of our
great God and Savior, Jesus Christ". -- New Revised Standard Version
"Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God, and our Savior Jesus Christ;" -- The Webster Bible
"Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;" -- King James Version
looking
for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory (Footnote: 1) of the
great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; -- Footnote: (1) Or of our great
God and Saviour ) -- American Standard Version
Looking for the blessed hope and coming of the glory of the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ, -- Douay-Rheims
expecting
the blessed hope; namely, the appearing of the glory of the great God,
and of our Saviour Jesus Christ; -- Living Oracles
looking
for the blessed hope, and the manifestation of the glory of the great
God, and our Life-giver, Jesus the Messiah; -- Murdock
Prepared to welcome the happy hope and forthshining of the glory of the great God and our Saviour Christ Jesus, -- Rotherham
Regarding Titus 2:13 Paul S. L. Johnson states
Tit. 2:13 is also alleged as a proof of the trinity by some, who to find in their thought, render the words in question as follows: 'the appearing of the glory of our Great God and Savior Jesus Christ.' This rendering is not preferred by a majority of learned trinitarians, though it is a possible rendering. Rendered as in the A.V., A.R.V. text, and a majority of modern translations, not our Lord Jesus but the Father is here called God. The fact that, properly translated, Paul never calls Jesus God, but always contrasts Him as Lord with the Father as God, is decisive on which is the right translation. Again, the connection (v. 11) naturally suggests that the bright shining is of the Father and of the Son. St. Paul's use of language, calling the Father God over 500 times and never once calling Jesus God, must rule in this case as to which is the right translation. Force, too, is added to our view by the words [A.R.V.] *the glory of the Great* God." -- Ephiphany Studies in the Scriptures, Volume 1, God, pages 525,526. -- (One should note that this was written back in the 1930s, before many of the modern translators had sought to render this verse to read in favor of the trinitarian view.)
We should also note that Titus 3:6 definitely shows that it is the Father who shed the holy spirit "through
Jesus Christ our Savior." And we also can look at Titus 1:4: "to Titus,
my true child according to a common faith: Grace, mercy, and peace from
God, the Father, and the Lord, Jesus Christ, our Savior." (World
English Bible translation) Here Paul clearly distinguishes between God
the Father and the Lord Jesus. "God" in Titus 1:4 does not mean three
persons, it means one person, and Jesus is not included as "God". This
gives further evidence that Titus 2:13 does not reflect a triune God, or
that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
The
revealing (epiphaneia) spoken of in Titus 2:13 probably refers to the
time when the glory of Jehovah is revealed to all flesh, not to Jesus'
appearance (Phaneroo) at his first advent, as spoken of in 1 Timothy
3:16. -- Isaiah 40:5; 11:9; Psalm 72:19.
The
millennial kingdom of Christ will not only be the time of revealing of
the glory of God and Christ, but also of the seed of Abraham, the chosen
sons of God of this age. -- Romans 8:19; Galatians 3:26,29; 1 John 3:2.
Additionally,
Titus 2:14 adds "who gave himself for us to redeem us from all iniquity
and to purify for himself a people of his own who are zealous for good
deeds." This scripture shows that the man
Jesus -- not God -- "gave" himself. Who did the man, Jesus Christ, 'give
himself' to? To God himself! (1 Timothy 2:5,6; Hebrews 9:24; 10:10)
Thus a little reasoning indicates that Jesus is not the same as the
unipersonal God to whom he gave himself.
See also:
Barry Hardy's comments at:
https://groups.google.com/groups?selm=19980706.191409.3222.0.barryhardy%40juno.com
Barry Hardy's comments at:
https://groups.google.com/groups?selm=19980706.191409.3222.0.barryhardy%40juno.com
But
someone argues: The rule of Greek grammar that applies here is that if
there are two nouns separated by the word "kai" (and), then if each noun
has an article with it, they refer to different things. But if only one
of them has an article, they refer to the same thing. In these cases,
we have two nouns ("God" and "Saviour"), separated by the word "kai",
with only one of them having an article. According to this "rule" of
Greek grammar, these two words refer to the same person.
What is often called the rules
of grammar are not inherently rules of a language, but are made so by men who create such rules based on study of general usage. Such "rules" usually always have exceptions, which is
also true of this "rule", as seen in the Septuagint of Proverbs 24:21.
Granville Sharp is attributed to formulating the above rule which he
presented in a book in 1798, long after Paul and Peter had written their
letters. It would be an assumption to think that Paul had such a rule
in mind when he wrote the above to Titus.
Nevertheless,
according to Sharp's rule: "When the copulative kai connects two nouns
of the same case, [viz. nouns (either substantive or adjective, or
participles) of personal description, respecting office, dignity,
affinity, or connexion, and attributes, properties, or qualities, good
or ill], if the article o, or any of its cases, precedes the first of
the said nouns or participles, and is not repeated before the second
noun or participle, the latter always relates to the same person that is
expressed or described by the first noun or participle: i.e. it denotes
a farther description of the first-named person." (Sharp, Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article,
3.) Sharp's sole purpose in his study was to promote the idea that
Jesus is Jehovah, so he did not include "things" in his rule, thus he
narrows his study to substantives (that is., nouns, substantival
adjectives, substantival participles) of personal description, not those
which referred to things, and only in the singular, not the plural. He
states that "there is no exception or instance of the like mode of
expression, that I know of, which necessarily requires a construction
different from what is here laid down, EXCEPT the nouns be proper names,
or in the plural number; in which case there are many exceptions ." In
other words, he found a way to exclude or provide exceptions to his rule
so as to make it appear that the rule would support the idea that
several passages are saying that Jesus is Jehovah God Almighty.
Conversely,
Sharp claimed that if two nouns of the same case are connected by a
"kai" (and) and the article (the) is used with both nouns, they refer to
different persons or things. If only the first noun has the article,
the second noun refers to the same person or thing referred to in the
first. -- Curtis Vaughn, and Virtus Gideon, A Greek Grammar of the New Testament"
(Nashville: Broadman Press, 1979), p. 83.}" But Sharp came up with
exceptions to this rule so that it would not apply to John 20:28.
Since
writing the above, we have been given some quotes of various scholars
concerning Titus 2:13, that we believe would be beneficial here:
The repetition of the art[icle] was not strictly necessary to ensure that the items be considered separately." -- A Grammar of the New Testament Greek, (Volume # was not supplied), by James Hope Moulton and Nigel Turner.
Unfortunately, at this period of Greek we cannot be sure that such a rule [Sharp's] is really decisive. -- Grammatical Insights into the New Testament, 1965, by Nigel Turner
It will probably never be possible, either in reference to profane literature or to the NT, to bring down to rigid rules which have no exception,... -- A Grammar of the New Testament Greek, by Alexander Buttmann
The grammatical argument ... is too slender to bear much weight, especially when we take into consideration not only the general neglect of the article in these epistles but the omission of it before "Savior" in 1 Timothy 1:1; 4:10. -- The Expositor's Greek Testament, by N. J. D. White
Let us look at an interlinear of Titus 2:13:
prosdechomenoi teen makarian elpida kai epiphaneian
AWAITING THE HAPPY HOPE AND MANIFESTATION
4327 3588 3107 1680 2532 2015
tees doxees tou megalou theou kai swteeros heemwn
OF THE GLORY OF THE GREAT GOD AND OF SAVIOR OF US
3588 1391 3588 3173 2316 2532 4990 1473_8
christou ieesou
OF CHRIST JESUS,
5547 2424
Westcott & Hort Greek / English Interlinear
NEW TESTAMENT coded with Strong's numbers
(as obtained from the Bible Student's Library DVD)
It
should be obvious from the above that the Greek structure here is
highly complex. First we have an article before two nouns -- two things
-- connected by kai for which the Christian is awaiting -- teen makarian
elpida kai epiphaneian -- the happy hope and manifestation. It is
apparent that in this verse that there are two things being waited
for -- "hope" and "manifestation", although one article is present, both
of which are related to "glory" that is to be manifested at that time
-- the glory of the great God and our Savior, Jesus Christ. (Compare
Romans 8:19,24,25) The manifestation is followed by a phrase describing
what the manifestation is: "of the glory of the great God and of Savior
of us, Jesus Christ." We again have an article used of the possessive;
the article before glory is of the great God and Savior of us. Thus the
"glory" is applied to two nouns, "God" and "Savior". It is speaking of
the glory of God and it is speaking of the glory of our Savior. As one
reads this, we don't think anyone would see in this that the reference
to the great God and the savior are speaking of one person, except that
their minds had been preconditioned to think of the expression in such
terms. We certainly don't think Paul was trying to structure his
sentence in such a way to leave the impression that Jesus is God
Almighty. Regardless of whether one would think that THEOS in Titus 2:13
is applied to Jesus or not, one would still have to call upon the
spirit of human imagination to think that it means that Jesus is the
Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. And, if one wishes to
think of trinity regarding this verse, he still has to use the spirit of
human imagination so to think that THEOS means the second alleged
person of the alleged triune God, which God is never once mentioned in
the Bible.
There is even more to this, for let us read the verses before:
Titus 2:11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,
Titus 2:12 Teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world; -- King James Version.
Now
we know that "grace" or "favor" did not make some physical appearing,
but rather the knowledge through Christ concerning the grace of God
appeared to all the men being spoken of, that is, Christians, both
Gentile and Jew, teaching them how to live in this evil world while they
awaited the happy hope and manifestation of the glory. Thus Paul is
summing up the work of the first advent and the second advent, as to
what is revealed at both events. The parallel between the advents is
"grace" and "glory". The grace is of God through Christ. (Titus 1:3) The
"glory" is of the great God and our Savior, the latter who is then
identified as Jesus Christ. Thus the whole idea is the glory of our
great God and the glory of our Savior, which glory we are awaiting the
manifestation of.
As
seen from Westcott & Hort's Interlinear, the Greek has the
possessive *heemwn*, which appears after *swteeros*, which, according to
the usual construction, would also demand an article before that which
is possessed, that is, *swteeros*. There is no definite article before
swteeros, so we go looking for a definite article earlier, which we find
before *megalou theou*, "great God". Then this article is applied to
both "great God" and "Savior." Since there is no separate article
applied to Savior, some wish to conclude that one person is referred to
as both God and Savior. Still, there we have no reason to think that
this was Paul's intention, and there is certainly nothing definite in
this conclusion. Sharp himself had to make exceptions to his rules in
order to seemingly narrow them down for his purposes.
In
view of the context, we do not believe that Paul here was constructing
this sentence this way to show that Jesus is God Almighty, regardless of
how one applies or makes exceptions for Sharp's rule in this verse. One
still has to use the spirit of human imagination to think that it means
that Jesus is Jehovah, and further use of the spirit of human
imagination to think that it means one person of a triune Jehovah. It
does appear more likely that he just wrote what seemed to him to be a
way of saying that we are awaiting the appearance of both the glory of
the great God and of our Lord Jesus. Nevertheless, even if Jesus is
being called 'Great God", we should connect the phrase "Great God" here
with the phrase with the more general Hebraic usage of such, that is, of
Jesus as the Great Mighty One, rather than to call upon the spirit of
human imagination so as to think that Paul was saying that Jesus is the
Most High. This application would still not make Jesus into God
Almighty, but as a Great One of Power, as made so by the Almighty
Jehovah.
Then
there is something else to consider concerning Titus 2:13 and Sharp's
rules. As noted above, he provided exceptions to his rules if the nouns
were proper nouns. Some argue that "God" and "Savior" in Titus 2:13 are
semantic equivalents to such proper names, as titular names, and
therefore Sharp's exception to his rule should apply to this verse.
Some claim that only Jehovah can be savior, and thus since Jesus is referred to as savior in Titus 2:13, that means that Jesus is Jehovah. Several scriptures show that besides (or apart from) Jehovah there is no savior. (Isaiah 43:11; 45:11; Hosea 13:4) None of these scriptures, however, say that Jehovah cannot sent someone who is not himself as a savior, for the Bible records many whom Jehovah sent as saviors to Israel as recorded in the Old Testament. These saviors whom Jehovah sent are besides (apart from) Jehovah since Jehovah sent them. -- Nehemiah 9:27.
Overall,
actual proof is lacking in Titus 2:13 that Jesus is Jehovah. The
arguments presented for such are questionable, to say the least. One has
to first assume that Jesus is God Almighty, then read this into the
scripture, and then say that this is proof, which is, in effect,
circular reasoning. Without all the circular reasoning that has been
imagined toward the verse, it is not that difficult to understand in
harmony with the entire Bible.
See also our studies:
Only Jehovah Saves
Only Jehovah Saves
==========
Does The Above Deny the Deity of Jesus?
For some of our studies related to:
The Deity/Divinity of Jesus
See also our studies on:
Written by Others -- We do not necessarily agree with all presented:
I heard that the most ancient manuscript copies meant it as two persons but as the translations occur, some trinity minded persons changed it as a single person.
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