Luke 2:11 – Jesus – “Christ The Lord”

Did the angel declare Jesus to be Jehovah in Luke 2:11?

Luke 2:11- For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord.
Unless otherwise stated, all Bible quotations are from the World English Bible version.

Luke 2:11 is often referred to as proof that Jesus is Jehovah, since, as through misunderstanding, or distortion, of certain scriptures such as Deuteronomy 6:4; Zechariah 14:9; Matthew 6:24; Luke 16:13 and 1 Corinthians 8:6, they falsely conclude that the word  “Lord” applied to Jesus must mean that Jesus is Jehovah. We have addressed this kind of argument in other studies, and will not address them again here.

See our studies:

1 Corinthians 8:6 – One God, One Lord; Deuteronomy 6:4

Ephesians 4:5 – One Lord

Luke 2:11 is often also cited as proof that Jesus is a savior, with the false assumption that if Jesus is our savior, then Jesus must be Jehovah, since, according to their reasoning, as they use scriptures such as Isaiah 45:12 and Hosea 13:14, they evidently conclude that Jehovah cannot possibly send a savior who is not Himself, although the scriptures speak of many saviors whom Jehovah did send who are not Himself. Again, this has been discussed in other studies, so we will not go into this in this study.

See our study:

Isaiah 43:11 – Besides Jehovah There is No Savior

One, in presenting what he believes to be a refutation of the New World Translation of the Jehovah’s Witnesses, presents a detailed discussion of how the NWT was not consistent in using the Hebrew translations of the New Testament for restoring God’s name to the NT. He argues that according the Appendix of the NWT, 1984 edition, “The use of the definite article ha before the title `A-dhohn’ limits the application of this title exclusively to Jehovah God.’ We have a pdf of the 1984 edition, and we did a digital search,  but could not find this statement in its Appendix. We did find the statement on the jw.org website. The online quote appears to be in reference to the Masoretic Hebrew text of the Old Testament.

We are not with the Jehovah’s Witnesses, and are not necessarily wishing to defend their "New World" translation. Evidently, however, the quote is being applied to various Hebrew translations of the New Testament. I see nothing in the statement, however, that is presented as a rule for restoring the Holy Name in the New Testament using Hebrew translations of the New Testament. Our purpose here is not to defend the New World Translation, but something that attracted our attention was the conclusion that the author reaches for what the New World Translation should have read in Luke 2:11 if they had followed this alleged rule: “Because there was born to YOU today a Savior, who is Christ Jehovah, in David’s city.” Since the author presented this as support of the trinity, this line of argument, although presented in a round-about manner, would end up claiming that the Greek CHRISTOS KURIOS should mean “Christ Jehovah”, thereby making it appear that Jesus is Jehovah. Therefore some have thought that in Luke 2:11 Jesus is somehow being called “Jehovah/Yahweh”. 

The claim is made:

Translations of the Greek Scriptures have been made into Hebrew. The Watchtower Society is well aware of these translations. It uses them to determine where to place the Hebrew name for God, ... in the Greek Scriptures of the New World Translation. When the Hebrew for God's name YHWH appears in these translations, the New World Translation uses the word "Jehovah". The Society has used the word "Jehovah" 237 times and slavishly followed these Hebrew translations....

There are at least 72 places where the word ha-Adhohn is found in the Hebrew translations within the Greek Scriptures where, instead of saying "Jehovah" the *New World Translation* translates the word merely as "the Lord." -- *What the Watchtower Society Doesn't Want You to Know*, by Wilbur Lingle.

We have studied very closely what the translators of the New World Translation have stated regarding their attempts to restore the Holy Name in the New Testament, and one should realize that Mr. Lingle's statement does not actually reflect the methods used for the translators of the New World Translation.  I have not found any place where they claim to follow the Hebrew translations of the New Testament. Indeed, most of those translations were made by trinitarians for the very purpose of promoting the trinity to Jews. They cannot be used as a guide for where God's name appears, and certainly cannot be used as a guide regarding their usage of "ha Adhohn". It seems to take a statement made about the Masoretic Hebrew Text and claim it as being the rule of the NWT for determining where to place "Jehovah" in the New Testament, based on translations of the New Testament into Hebrew. While I am aware that the NW translators did make use of such Hebrew translations as supportive of many places where it is apparent that the Holy Name was changed in the New Testament, this does not mean that they were using such translations as a guide for determining where the name should be restored, and the quote given does not present any rule by which they were following for determining where the Holy Name should be restored.

While it is possible that KURIOS in Luke 2:11 is replacing God’s Holy Name, Jehovah — such would not based on how some Hebrew translators have rendered it into Hebrew, but it could be reasoned to have been replaced in this instance because of the Greek expression itself; nevertheless, rather than calling Jesus “Jehovah”, it would designate Jesus as the Christ [Anointed One] of Jehovah, as designated in Psalm 2:6; 45:7; and Isaiah 61:1. Jehovah gave Jesus as the son who is to sit upon the throne of David, and thus he is the Anointed of Jehovah. — Isaiah 9:6,7; Luke 1:32,33.

Someone has stated, in effect, that Acts 2:36 does not mean that there was a time when Jesus became “Lord”, since, according to what is being claimed, Jesus has always been Lord, and that there was never a time when he was not Lord. It is claimed that he was already “Lord” before his human birth. Luke 2:11 is one of the scriptures given to support this assumption. This one has also claimed that there cannot be two Lords/Masters, and therefore when Jesus is called “Lord”, this means that he and his Father are one God.

1 Corinthians 8:6 – One God, One Lord; Deuteronomy 6:4

In the study linked to above, we have shown that in the scriptures, the Greek word for “Lord” is used of many different ones and with many different shades of meaning, even when it is used of Jesus.

Of course, even if Jesus had already been made “Lord” before becoming human, this does not mean that there never was a time when he was not Lord. Jesus was indeed in a sense “anointed” from the time of the Garden of Eden, destined to become the seed of the woman. (Genesis 3:15) He was later anointed, preordained, to be the seed of Abraham, and the seed of David. The fulfillment of the ordination has took place in phases. Jesus was born into this world as the Anointed King who was to sit on the throne of David forever (Luke 1:32,33); thus he could be called “Christ [Anointed] the Lord”, having been anointed as “Lord” in the sense of having been anointed as the promised King from before the time of his conception in the womb of Mary.

The scriptures do indicate that Jesus, before he became Jesus, had already been lord, ruler, prince, of the host of God’s angels. — Joshua 5:14.

Jesus was certainly made lord and christ [anointed one] by means this anointing from Jehovah, and the original anointing certainly took place at some time. God, of course, foreknew his purposes before he began the creation of the world of mankind, thus the original anointing could be said to have been long before the world of mankind was made. Jesus indicates that he was sanctified for this purpose before being born into this world. (John 10:36) Any other times that he is appointed would be the carrying out of the original ordination.

* Philippians 2:5-11 — Jesus' Exaltation to a Name Above All Names (Working on)

Philippians 2:5-11 is often cited as being proof that Jesus is God (the Supreme Being), although, in reality, there is nothing in these verses that present Jesus as being Jehovah, who is elsewhere presented as being God of Jesus. -- Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3.

Philippians 2:5
touto phroneite en humin ho kai en christw
THIS BE YOU MINDING IN YOU WHICH ALSO IN CHRIST
3778_2 5426 1722 4771_6 3739 2532 1722 5547
ieesou
JESUS,
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Philippians 2:6
hos en morphee theou huparchwn ouch harpagmon
WHO IN FORM OF GOD EXISTING NOT SNATCHING
3739 1722 3444 2316 5224 5225 3756 0725
heegeesato to einai isa thew
HE CONSIDERED THE TO BE EQUAL (THINGS) TO GOD,
2233 3588 1511 2470 2316
Philippians 2:7
alla heauton ekenwsen morpheen doulou labwn en
BUT HIMSELF HE EMPTIED FORM OF SLAVE HAVING TAKEN, IN
0235 1438 2758 3444 1401 2983 1722
homoiwmati anthrwpwn genomenos
LIKENESS OF MEN HAVING BECOME;
3667 0444 1096
Philippians 2:8
kai scheemati heuretheis hws anthrwpos etapeinwsen
AND TO FASHION HAVING BEEN FOUND AS MAN HE MADE LOWLY
2532 4976 2147 5613 0444 5013
heauton genomenos hupeekoos mechri thanatou
HIMSELF HAVING BECOME OBEDIENT UNTIL DEATH,
1438 1096 5255 3360 2288
thanatou de staurou
OF DEATH BUT OF STAKE;
2288 1161 4716
Philippians 2:9
dio kai ho theos auton huperupswsen kai
THROUGH WHICH ALSO THE GOD HIM PUT HIGH UP OVER, AND
1352 2532 3588 2316 0846_7 5251 2532
echarisato autw to onoma to huper pan onoma
HE GRACIOUSLY GAVE TO HIM THE NAME THE OVER EVERY NAME,
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Philippians 2:10
hina en tw onomati ieesou pan gonu kampsee
IN ORDER THAT IN THE NAME OF JESUS EVERY KNEE SHOULD BEND
2443 1722 3588 3686 2424 3956 1119 2578
epouraniwn kai epigeiwn kai
OF THOSE IN HEAVEN AND OF THOSE ON EARTH AND
2032 2532 1919 2532
katachthoniwn
OF THOSE UNDERGROUND,
2709
Philippians 2:11
kai pasa glwssa exomologeeseetai hoti kurios
AND EVERY TONGUE SHOULD CONFESS OUT THAT LORD
2532 3956 1100 1843 3754 2962
ieesous christos eis doxan theou patros
JESUS CHRIST INTO GLORY OF GOD FATHER.
2424 5547 1519 1391 2316 3962
Westcott & Hort Interlinear, as obtained from the Bible Students Library DVD.

The straightforward and most simple reasoning from the above is that Jesus was in a form [external appearance] of God, but that he was not God.

In Philippians 2:6, we do read that Jesus was existing in the form (external appearance) of God (assuming that Paul actually meant the word transliterated as THEOS to mean "God", Supreme Being, and not "a god" -- a mighty being, as the angels -- Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7]. Before he became flesh (John 1:14), Jesus had a celestial glory that was in the likeness of his God. — John 17:1,3,5; 1 Corinthians 15:40.

Unlike the one spoken of in Isaiah 14:14, however, Jesus did not seek to be equal to God; rather, he “did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped.” — Philippians 2:6, New American Standard.

The word “God” — throughout Paul’s letter to the Philippians — refers to only one person, as can be seen from Philippians 2:9,11, and even in the latter part of Philippians 2:6.

However, some believe that in Philippians 2:6, the first instance of “God” may not actually refer to “God”, as in the sense of Mighty One who the Supreme Being, but rather to mightiness in general, using the Hebraic meaning for the word for “God”. Thus, this would mean that Jesus was in a form of mightiness before he became flesh.

However, the use of the Greek word transliterated as morphe (meaning “external appearance”), indicates that the first instance of “God” actually refers to the God and Father of Jesus.

Jesus was existing in the external appearance, in the likeness of, his God, but he was not his God, nor did he seek to be equal to his God.

Instead of seeking to be equal to his God, he became in the likeness of men of sinful flesh, externally appearing as a bondservant of corruption, although he was not really such. -- Romans 8:3,20-22.

The word “morphe” is being used in Philippians 2:7 in parallel with two other words, all of which carry similar meanings.

There is nothing in Philippians 2:5-11 that means that Jesus was God Most High anymore than it means that Jesus was actually a bond-servant of sin in the likeness of men. —  Genesis 14:22; Psalm 7:17; 83:18; 92:1; Luke 1:32; John 13:16; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17,32-35; 4:34; 5:19,30,36,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; 20:17; Acts 2:22,34-36; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 8:6; 11:31; Colossians 1:3,15; 2:9-12; Hebrews 1:1-3; Revelation 1:1.

Philippians 2:6-11 is discussing how Jesus left the form (Morphe — external appearance) of God, that is, the glory he had with his God and Father (Ephesians 1:3) before coming into the world (John 17:5), and took on the form (Morphe — external appearance) of a bondservant. — Philippians 2:7.

Jesus was already a servant of God before coming to the earth, so Philippians 2:7 cannot be referring to his becoming a servant of God, as some have claimed. — John 3:16,17; 5:30,36; 6:38,44; 8:29,38,42; 10:36; 17:3; Galatians 4:4; Hebrews 10:5; 1 John 4:9,10.

Thus, this relates to the purpose for which Jesus came to earth, that is, to give his human soul, his human body, his human blood, his human flesh, once for all time as a ransom for many — for all. — Matthew 20:28; Mark 10:45; Luke 22:19; John 6:51; 1 Corinthians 11:27; 1 Timothy 1:15; 2:5,6; Hebrews 2:9; 10:10; 1 Peter 3:18; 1 John 4:9,10,14.

The human race came to be in bondage to corruption, sin and death due to Adam’s sin. — Genesis 3:17-19; Ecclesiastes 1:2,13-18; 7:13; Romans 5:15-19; 8:15,20-22; Galatians 4:3; Corinthians 15:21,22.

Was Jesus in bondage to sin and corruption as the rest of the human race? Obviously not. Jesus had no sin, but he did come in the likeness — the appearance — of sinful flesh to be sin on our behalf. — John 8:46; 1 Peter 2:2; Romans 8:3; 2 Corinthians 5:21; Hebrews 4:15.

Although he was born of a woman, he was begotten as a human by means of God’s holy spirit. — Matthew 1:20; Luke 1:35; Galatians 4:4.

It was God, by means of his Holy Spirit. who prepared the body of Jesus; thus, he was born sinless, without any bondage of corruption as is common to mankind under condemnation in Adam. — Romans 5:12-19; 8:21; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; Hebrews 10:5.

Nevertheless, Jesus, as a human, did have a “form” of that bondage, the external appearance, so to speak, of that bondage, since he suffered and paid the price for sin. — 2 Corinthians 5:21; Galatians 3:13; Hebrews 10:10; 1 Peter 2:24; 3:18; 4:1.

God sent his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh in order to condemn sin in the flesh. — Romans 8:3.

Jesus suffered the consequences of sin in order to pay the price of sin — death — for the human race, although he himself was not sinful.

Therefore, just as Jesus had the external appearance of being a sinner, so likewise, Jesus in his prehuman existence, had the external appearance of God, being even then the image of his God.

Regardless, there is nothing in these verses that say anything about Jesus’ being a “person of God”. The idea has to be added to and read into what Paul said.

Nor is there anything that says that Jesus has two “natures” at once, that of being the Most High and also that of being a human, a little lower than the angels.

On the other hand, Paul shows that Jesus did not consider equality with God to be something for him to grasp, and Jesus is exalted by the unipersonal God. — Philippians 2:9.

But doesn't Paul say that Jesus has the name that is above all names? Doesn't this mean that Jesus is Jehovah, the Most High? No. The expression in Philippians 2:9 actually states: "Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name." God gave this "name" to Jesus? If this "name" was given to Jesus after his God exalted him, would not this mean that Jesus did not have this name before his God exalted him?

Philippians 2:9 should be understood within it own context as well as the rest of the Bible, especially Ephesians 1:3,17-23:

Ephesians 1:3 - Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ: 

Ephesians 1:17 - that the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you a spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him; 

Ephesians 1:18 - having the eyes of your heart enlightened, that ye may know what is the hope of his calling, what the riches of the glory of his inheritance in the saints, 

Ephesians 1:19 - and what the exceeding greatness of his power to us-ward who believe, according to that working of the strength of his might 

Ephesians 1:20 - which he wrought in Christ, when he raised him from the dead, and made him to sit at his right hand in the heavenly places, 

Ephesians 1:21 - far above all rule, and authority, and power, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come: 

Ephesians 1:22 - and he put all things in subjection under his feet, and gave him to be head over all things to the church, 

Ephesians 1:23 - which is his body, the fulness [full amount] of him that filleth all in all. 

Obviously, the word "name" in Ephesians 1:21 and Philippians 2:9 is being used, not in the sense of an appellation, but rather in the sense of authority, rank. If the word "name" refers to "Jehovah" as Ellicott and many others claim, that would mean that Jesus was not "Jehovah" until after his God, Jehovah (Micah 5:4) exalted Jesus to Jehovah's right hand (Psalm 110:1; Matthew 26:64; Mark 14:62; 16:19; Luke 22:69; Acts 2:32-35; 5:31; Romans 8:34; Colossians 3:1; Hebrews 1:3; 8:1; 1 Peter 3:21) and gave him the name "Jehovah", which would be contrary to what man's "trinity" dogma claims.

In Ephesians 1:22, rather than being presented as being God Almighty, God is presented as only one person. God is the one person who puts all in subjection under the feet of Jesus (Psalm 110:1), and it is the one person who is the God and Father of Jesus (Ephesians 1:3,17) who gives to Jesus the headship over the church. 

Ephesians 1:23

heetis estin to swma autou to pleerwma tou ta

WHICH IS THE BODY OF HIM, THE FULLNESS OF THE (ONE) THE

3748 1510_2 3588 4983 0846_3 3588 4138 3588 3588

panta en pasin pleeroumenou

ALL (THINGS) IN ALL (THINGS) OF (ONE) FILLING.

3956 1722 3956 4137

(Westcott & Hort Transliterated Greek-English Interlinear)

Without the added words, the literal rendering of the above would be: "which is the body of him, the fullness of the the all in all of filling."

(discussion below needs to be edited)

Many quote Ephesians 1:23 as an alleged proof that Jesus is omnipresent, that is, that Jesus is present everywhere all the time. While we doubt that this is what Paul meant by his words, we will say that God has obviously given Jesus in his spiritual body the bodily power to be whatever is needed to complete the work God has given him to do. He would certainly need the ability to be present in many places at the same time, and we have no quarrel with such a conclusion. God has exalted Jesus to the highest position of glory in the entire universe, excluding being the Most High Himself. Thus, there would be nothing in such ability that God has given to Jesus that would mean that we would need to assume that Jesus is God Almighty. Jesus' God has never given to his Son the power to be the "one\ God" from whom are all. -- 1 Corinthians 8:6.

In Ephesians 1:23, Paul styles the Church "the full development of him who filleth all in all." What does the Apostle mean? While we cannot be totally certain, we do believe that there is a reasonable explanation. Jesus himself gives us an illustration: "Except a corn of wheat fall into the ground and die, it abideth alone, but if it die, it bringeth forth much fruit." (need scripture) The "much fruit" owes all its prospects to that one corn of wheat. Possibilities of bread inherent in the one corn of wheat. That one corn of wheat is not of itself a harvest. The "much fruit", is the full development of that corn of wheat, and indispensable if it would realize its possibilities. So also with Christ. Our all is in him, as he declared, "Without me (or severed from me) you can do nothing." The hand is of no use severed from the body; it will simply corrupt. Jesus illustrated this well in his picture of the vine; "Abide in me and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself except it abide in the vine, no (more can ye except ye abide in me. If a man abide not in me he is cast forth as a branch and is withered." The life is in the vine, and only in the vital union with the vine can the branch bear fruit. And yet in this same picture we have a seed thought for the Apostle's other declaration that the Church is the full development of the Christ. It is the branches that bear the fruit. True, the fruit is not their own, but the fruit of the vine, for the life in the branches is the life of the vine, yet in order that the vine may express its life fully in fruit bearing, the branches have their part to play. Now, there is no room to glory in this thought: The branch is only a channel for the expressing of the one life, not a life of its own; but the life of the vine. And the member of the Body of Christ is only a channel for the expressing of the one life, not a life of his own that he is living in the power of the spirit "I live, yet not I but Christ liveth in me" -- and so of the Christ, it is not because of any inherent value in any member. It is simply the extended operation of the Christ life that makes the Church, which is his Body, "the full development of him that filleth all in all."

What does the Apostle mean: "Him that filleth all in all? Who is this "all in all" that Christ fills? Oh, how wonderfully the Apostle's thought widens out here! As the planets all revolve around the sun, and the sun in its turn, with its train of planets, revolves round a still greater center, so also in the administration of the mystery. As the Church, those "stars in glory" find in Christ the Son of righteousness, their center of attraction, so Christ and his heavenly train with one accord acknowledge the superior attraction of Most High of the universe --  JEHOVAH himself; for as the Head of the Church is Christ, so the Head of the Christ is God. -- Scriptures needed.

As with Christ in relation to his members, in him all the fulness dwells because he is our life and

we are nothing of ourselves; so with God in his relation to the Christ as a whole. Jesus confessed;

"Of mine own self I can do nothing." "The words I speak unto you I speak not of myself but the

Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works." It is the Great Jehovah who is dwelling in the

Christ; and yet, according to the administering of the Mystery, God chooses the medium of the

Christ for the full revelation of his glorious divine life. The full and varied expression of his

divine life and 'character is manifest as never before in the Christ, his divine family. And yet, that

divine life is, not of the Christ but of God, and that divine likeness is not the work of the Christ,

but of that God that ''wells in the Christ" -- "We are his workmanship," -- and because that one

spirit uniting all the members of Christ is the holy spirit of the Father -- "God is all in all." After

all, it is not even the vine to which ultimately redounds the glory of the fruit, but the.

husbandman. "Herein is my Father glorified that ye bear much fruit." As the Apostle declares:

"Unto him be glory in the Church by Jesus Christ, throughout all ages, world without end.

Amen." - Eph. 3:22. -- Three paragraphs preceeding are based on material written by an unknown author as presented in Herald of Christ's Kingdom, April, 1950.

Regardless, Paul shows that Jesus is not God who exalted him, and that Jesus' exaltation results in “the glory of God, the Father.” (Philippians 2:11), the God and Father of Jesus, the only true God. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.

See also:
Philippians 2:5-11 – Humility of Mind

Jesus is Not Yahweh (Jehovah)

ADDENDUM:

Regarding the “name” in Philippians 2:9, it has been stated that “for a Pharisaic Jew there was only one name that could possibly be described in that way, and it was the name of God.” One comments: “That Philippians passage was a typical way an ANE Jew would say, “Jesus is Yahweh“. They just didn’t talk like we do.”

The unipersonal “God” of Philippians 2:9 did not give to God the name of God to be above every name that God has given, for such would mean that God would have exalted God from being a little lower than the angels to being a higher than the angels. (Hebrews 1:4; 2:9; 1 Peter 3:22) It would further mean that God did not have this name until God exalted God.

Nor did Jehovah give to Jehovah the designation word name of Jehovah to be above every name that Jehovah has given; such an idea would mean that Jehovah exalted Jehovah from being lower than the angels to a position greater than the angels, and that Jehovah did not have the name Jehovah until Jehovah exalted Jehovah. – Philippians 2:9; Hebrews 1:4; 2:9; 1 Peter 3:22.

Nor did Jesus receive either the appellation “Jesus” or “Jehovah”/"Yahweh" at the time when the unipersonal “God” exalted Jesus. The Son of the Most High (Luke 1:32,35) already had the appellation “Jesus” before he was exalted. (Matthew 1:23; Luke 1:31) Jesus is nowhere spoken of receiving the designation "Jehovah" as being his name.

It should be apparent that when the Most High — the unipersonal “God” — exalted His Son (Luke 1:32,35; Philippians 2:9; Ephesians 1:3,17-23), that the unipersonal “God” gave to Jesus the name (office, position of glory) that is above every name, with the evident exception of that of being Jehovah, the only the Most High. — 1 Corinthians 15:27.

How Scriptures Can be Misused Regarding Jesus and His God

The scriptures often use words and titles with different meanings when applied in different ways. Many, with a desire to prove that Jesus is Jehovah, will often take these words and try to make them appear to mean something other than intended, that is, that Jesus is God. Let us look at one of these titles:

Isaiah 37:16: O Jehovah of hosts, ELOHIM of Israel, who dwells between the cherubs, you are the ELOHIM, you alone, of all the kingdom of the earth. You have made heaven and earth. — See also 2 Kings 19:15

Exodus 7:1 And Jehovah said to Moses, `See, I have made you ELOHIM to Pharaoh, and Aaron your brother is your prophet

Does this mean that Moses is actually Jehovah, since Jehovah said that he made Moses ELOHIM to Pharaoh? Of course not! Yet such reasoning is often used of Jesus when he is a few times referred to by the Hebrew and Greek words that are often translated as “God”, such EL, ELOHIM and THEOS. In our study on Hebraic Usages*, we have demonstrated that the Bible often uses these words in their more basic meaning of power, strength, might, rather than in the exclusive manner that it is being used in Isaiah 37:16. Understanding this helps to realize that ELOHIM applied to Moses in Exodus 7:1 takes on a superior meaning of might. Thus, we should understand that Jehovah made Moses “mighty” to Pharaoh, not that Jehovah made Moses Almighty God. And Jehovah gave Aaron to be Moses’ spokesperson. Likewise, with Jesus. Jesus will, in the Millennial Age, be called by the name “Pele-joez-el-gibbor-Abi-ad-sar-shalom”. (Isaiah 9:6) Part of this name does contain the designation EL, and often rendered in conjunction with the word “gibbor”, by the term “Mighty God”. However, if this phrase is thought to apply the Messiah, the usage of EL here should not be viewed as regarding the exclusiveness of Jehovah’s Godship, but rather of Jesus’ might and power that he will exercise in the age to come. And yet Isaiah 9:7 shows that it is Jehovah that will perform the carrying out of his promise concerning the Messiah; it is Jehovah, in other words, who gives to Jesus this designation, similar to the manner that Jehovah gave the designation ELOHIM to Pharaoh.

You men of Israel, hear these words. Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved by God to you by mighty works and wonders and signs which God did by him in the midst of you, even as you yourselves know.  -- Acts 2:22, World English.

Trinitarians and Oneness believers often like cross-reference various scriptures so as to make it appear that Jesus is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. One scripture may be speaking of Jehovah as doing something, but another scripture refers to Jesus as doing the same thing, so it is claimed that such proves thar Jesus is God. They would, in effect, claim that the works God did by means of Jesus proves that Jesus is God.

The fact is that often in the scriptures we read of various servants of God who performed great acts on behalf of God. Nevertheless, at the same time the scriptures may refer to these acts as being performed by Jehovah (Jehovah) himself. For example:

Exodus 12:51 – It happened the same day, that Jehovah brought the children of Israel out of the land of Egypt by their hosts.

Jehovah alone did lead him [Israel/Jacob – verse 9], There was no foreign god with him. — Deuteronomy 32:12.

Exodus 15:22: Moses led Israel onward from the Red Sea, and they went out into the wilderness of Shur; and they went three days in the wilderness, and found no water.

Does this mean that since both Moses and Jehovah both delivered the Israelites out of Egypt, that this must mean that Moses is Jehovah? No one seriously claims that Moses is Jehovah, yet according to the reasoning of many who wish to use similar arguments to prove that Jesus is Jehovah, it would seem that these scriptures should definitely prove that Moses is Jehovah, if they were consistent in their logic. Of course, in reality, Jehovah often takes the credit for what his servants do in his name, and the same is true of his servant, our Lord Jesus. (Isaiah 53:11; Acts 3:13) Just because one scripture says Jehovah did this or that, and another scripture says that Moses, Gideon, Jesus, or another of God’s servants did the same, does not mean that any of these are Jehovah.

So how is it that it can be said that both Moses and Jehovah delivered Israel? Comparing spiritual revealing with spiritual revealing, we learn:

Psalm 77:20: You [Jehovah] led your people like a flock, By the hand of Moses and Aaron.

Hosea 12:13 – By a prophet Jehovah brought Israel up out of Egypt, And by a prophet he was preserved.

In this manner it could be said that both Jehovah and Moses brought Israel out of Egypt; it is likewise with the greater Moses, Jesus. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19.

How well this illustrates also how Jehovah, speaks and performs works by means of his Son, Jesus (John 1:17; 3:34; 5:36; 10:25,32; 14:10; Ephesians 3:9, KJV; Titus 3:6), and delivers the world from sin and death through Jesus, the one like Moses who is also sent by Jehovah. Thus, both Jesus and the God of Jesus can be called savior, since Jesus, like Moses, is the one sent by Jehovah, and performs his works in Jehovah’s name.

The scriptures abound with cases where Jehovah uses various servants but is given the credit for their actions, since he was the directing force. — Exodus 3:10,12; 12:17; 18:10; Numbers 16:28; Judges 2:6,18; 3:9,10; 6:34; 11:29; 13:24,25; 14:6,19; 15:14,18; 16:20,28-30, 2 Kings 4:27; Isaiah 43:11, 45:1-6; etc.

1 Kings 1:48 – Also thus said the king [David], Blessed be Jehovah, the God of Israel, who has given one to sit on my throne this day, my eyes even seeing it.

1 Kings 2:24 – Now therefore as Jehovah lives, who has established me [Solomon], and set me on the throne of David my father, and who has made me a house, as he promised, surely Adonijah shall be put to death this day

1 Chronicles 29:23 – Then Solomon sat on the throne of Jehovah as king instead of David his father, and prospered; and all Israel obeyed him.

Solomon sits on the throne of David — yet he sits on the throne of Jehovah. No one considers that this proves that David is Jehovah, yet many use the same kind of reasoning to try to prove that Jesus is the only true God who sent Jesus. -- Isaiah 61:1,2; John 17:1,3.

A similar usage is often demonstrated in the Hebrew and Greek words that are translated “worship”. Yet if one actually considers how these words are used, and claim that every time that these words are legitimately used of a person, that it proves that the person who receives such homage is Jehovah, one would have many humanson earth who would be God. Let us briefly examine a few scriptures.

Matthew 4:10 “You must Worship Jehovah your God and you must serve him only.”
1 Chronicles 29:20: And David said to all the assembly, Now bless Jehovah your God. And all the assembly blessed Jehovah, the God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshiped Jehovah, and the king.”

Thus, the King of Israel [whether David or Solomon is meant here is not clear] would appear to be worshiped along with Jehovah. According to our neighbors who wish to believe that similar scriptures such as these prove that Jesus is Jehovah, this would make the King of Israel also Jehovah.

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Please see our study on “The Worship Due Jesus”

Of course, context in all situations, even in the scriptures that are used to supposedly prove that Jesus is Jehovah, shows that there are circumstances where titles, descriptions, etc. are used in a relative sense.

We have no reason to believe, then, that when Jesus is used to carry out the will of Jehovah, and the work he does is elsewhere described as being done by Jehovah, that this is proof that Jesus is Jehovah, anymore than such is proof that Moses is Jehovah.

For our links to our discussion related to various scriptures alleged to prove that Jesus is God Almighty, see our resource page: "Is Jesus God?"

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Hebrews 7:3 - Melchizedek and Jesus' Priesthood

Who Is Jesus?

There are many ideas about who Jesus was and is; sadly, most ideas presented fall far short of who the real Jesus is as presented in the Scriptures. Almost every popular doctrinal stance embellishes on the revealed Word to make Jesus be someone he never claimed to be. The apostle Paul spoke of some in his day who were, in effect, preaching another Jesus, that is, they were preaching Jesus, but not the truth about Jesus. Nor can we in this day when Satan and his demons are working miracles so as to deceive, if possible, the elect (Matthew 24:24; Revelation 13:14; 16:14; 19:20), expect that, simply because a miracle occurs, that we have found the true Jesus in the message of the worker of miracles who might be doing miracles in Jesus' name. (Matthew 7:22) Indeed, many heathen who do not believe in Jesus at all claim miracles performed in the name(s) of their gods or idols.

It is recorded that Jesus once asked his disciples: "Who do men say that I am?" He got a reply, that some thought him to be John the Baptist risen from the dead; that others considered him to be Elijah risen from the dead, and others thought of him as being perhaps one of the other Prophets. Then came the point of the question: "But who do you say that I am?" Peter answered and said, "You are the Christ, the Son of the Living God." Jesus admitted the correctness of this, saying, "You are blessed, Simon, son of Jonah, for flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but My Father who is in Heaven." -- Matthew 16:13-17; Mark 8:27-30.

Afterward, Jesus began to explain to his disciples the experiences that lay before him -- how the Kingdom would be formally proffered to the Jews, and how through their representatives, the Elders, the chief priests, they would reject Him; how he would be killed, and after three days rise again. This, of course, is not what the Jewish populace, in general, had expected of Messiah. So what would be the reactions of the disciples concerning this description of Jesus' own expectations concerning himself? -- Mark 8:31; Matthew 16:21.

He made the statement about His death very emphatic, and the disciples clearly understood it. Perhaps they were disappointed, considered it a disgrace upon the Messiah to take such a view of the future, and a disgrace also upon the apostles, because if Jesus had such expectations it would modify and regulate his course, and soon disaster would come to him, and the dashing of all their hopes which he had inculcated -- hopes of sitting with him in his throne, etc.

Doubtless, all of the apostles were disappointed, but only Peter had the courage to express himself, saying, "Far be it from you, Lord! This will never be done to you." In effect, Peter was saying: You will, we all know, as the Messiah, attain the throne of Israel and thus eventually the throne of the world, and bring blessing to the whole human race; and as you have promised, we will be with you in your throne. -- Matthew 16:22; Mark 8:32.

In this course, Peter was opposing the Divine will and plan, of which the death of Jesus was the very center or hub, from which would radiate all the fulfillments of all the various promises -- to the Church first, to Israel next, and finally to all nations, peoples, kindreds and tongues. Jesus perceived that these influences were striving to hinder the consummation of his sacrifice, even as Satan tried to do in the beginning of his consecration. To make the matter very emphatic he said to Peter, "Get behind me, Satan! For you have in mind not the things of God, but the things of men." Then He began to make clear to his followers what had not been "food in due season" to give them before, in such plain terms, namely, that whoever desired to be counted in with him in any part of his work must realize that it would cost him all that he possessed of this world's affections; he must deny himself, take up his cross and follow him.

The great question of nineteen centuries ago is the great question of today! Who is Jesus? If, as some claim, he was merely a good man, a most able teacher, then he was not the promised Messiah, for the promises concerning the Messiah showed that, although he was the embodiment of all the qualities of what man would consider to be "good man", he was more, much more. To be the Christ, He must have been "the man Christ Jesus," who gave Himself a ransom price for all, to be testified in due time. (1 Timothy 2:5,6.) And this signifies that he must have been, not of ordinary birth, but extraordinary, born from above, because if born in the ordinary course of nature he would be like others of Adam's sons, subject to the sentence of death, and hence unable to save either himself or others. But Jesus was the Christ (which means Anointed One), the one sent by God, who left the glory he had with his God, the only true God (John 17:1,3,5), and was made flesh, with the glory of a sinless man, that he might "taste death for every man." (Hebrews 2:9) Thus, we see him as the great redeemer (deliverer, repurchaser) of the world, whose death was necessary as a ransom, or corresponding price, to secure the release of mankind from the death sentence and to make possible the resurrection of Adam and his race. -- Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22.

Where can we go to find out the truth about who Jesus was and is? We believe that God has revealed his truths by means of his holy spirit through the apostles. We believe that God, by means of his holy spirit, especially led the apostles into all the truths concerning Christ and what he said. (John 14:26; 16:4-13; Galatians 1:12; Ephesians 3:5; 2 Timothy 2:2) We also believe that the truths revealed to the apostles and made available to us are recorded in the Bible itself. (Ephesians 3:3-12; Colossians 1:25,26; 1 John 4:6) Of course, without the holy spirit, these things that are recorded will still be a mystery to us. -- Mark 4:11; 1 Corinthians 2:7-10.

Nevertheless, the scriptures also reveal that there was to be an apostasy, a "falling away" from the truth of God's Word, brought about by strong delusions. (Matthew 13:24-30; Acts 20:29,30; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-12; 1 Timothy 4:1-3; 2 Timothy 4:3,4) The Bible even states that this falling away had already begun in the first century, before the death of the apostles. Some were already preaching "another Jesus" and receiving another spirit. -- 2 Thessalonians 2:7; 1 John 2:18,19; 2 Corinthians 11:4.

Even so, the apostles in effect acted to restrain the apostasy, but when they died, the apostasy began to spread rapidly. This eventually led to the development of the foretold "Man of Sin", or more correctly "Lawless Man", or perhaps "Illegal Man". A great religious system developed, which claimed to have the authority to add to God's Word since their "revelations" were alleged to be of God's Spirit. 

One of the claims often presented is that Jesus had to be God Almighty in order to die for the sin of the world. It is claimed that if Jesus is not God, His sacrifice of himself to God  (himself?) would not have been sufficient to pay the penalty for the sins of the world. Of course, the reality is that not one scripture in the entire Bible tells that the price God requires to pay for the sin through Adam is for Himself to be offered in sacrifice to Himself. All this is made up outside what God reveals through His Holy Spirit as found in the Bible. Indeed, the only requirement that Paul presents to be the offsetting price to satisfy God's justice is the sacrifice of a man. (Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 1 Timothy 2:5,6) Of course, that sacrifice had to be of a sinless man, as was Adam before Adam sinned. 

In effect, the Biblical atonement of reconciliation through the sacrifice of the man, Christ Jesus (1 Timothy 2:5,6) is being denied by the trinitarian heresy (sect), for they claim that Jesus still is a man of flesh.

 Therefore, the sacrifice of Jesus' body of flesh for sin (Hebrews 10:10,12) was replaced with the idea that Jesus still has that body of flesh in heaven.

As Isaiah warned, Jesus was a stone of stumbling. (Isaiah 8:14; Romans 9:23) He is a stone of stumbling, not just to the house of natural Israel, but also the house of those who profess to believe in Jesus. (Romans 9:6,31; 11:7; 1 Corinthians 10:18; Galatians 6:16) Isaiah, however, instructs us: "To the law and to the testimony! If they do not speak according to this word, it is because there is no light in them." (Isaiah 8:20, New King James Version) We believe that the "law", of course, is what we call the Old Testament; thus, the "testimony" of this prophecy, we believe, must refer to the testimony of the apostles, as given in the New Testament.

Isaiah, therefore, pointed to the way that Christians should test the spirits. (1 John 4:1) Only by means of the scriptures can one ascertain what God has actually revealed by means of His spirit. It is to these and through these scriptures that the holy spirit today gives true direction, and anything not in agreement with these scriptures is not of the light of the day. -- John 11:9; 1 Thessalonians 5:5.

Again, we should note that the teaching spread that Jesus was both God Almighty and a human being while in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), and not only that, but also that Jesus is still a man of flesh in heaven, which is actually contrary to 1 Corinthians 15:39-41 as well as Psalm 8:5; Luke 22:19; John 6:5; Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 1 Timothy 2:5,6; Hebrews 2:7,9; 5:7; 10:10,12; 1 Peter 2:24; 3:18, and more. These doctrines do, in effect, replace the Biblical doctrine of atonement through the sacrifice of the fleshly body of the man Christ Jesus. The perception of Jesus become distorted; he was no longer depicted as being a man sent by the Most High, but he was exalted to being the Most High himself. The truth God has revealed through the apostles that Jesus had to correspond to what Adam was before Adam sinned in order to pay the price for what Adam had done was disregarded.

Additionally, the truth that the man Christ Jesus, unlike Adam, remained obedient to the Most High, thereby condemning sin in the flesh was also distorted. (Romans 8:3) The claim that Jesus had to be God Almighty would actually justify sin the flesh rather than condemn sin the flesh. It would, in effect, prove that for Adam to obey God Almighty, Adam would need to be God Almighty. Thus the addition of the idea that Jesus is God Almighty has become one of the greatest hindrances to understanding who Jesus really is, as well as understanding the scriptural principles related to the atonement, the reconciliation, of mankind to God through Jesus. Thus the real, Biblical Jesus has become a stumbling stone, not only to the house according to the flesh which was corrupted from true doctrine (Israel after the flesh -- Luke 13:25-28; Romans 9:30-33), but also the house which claims Jesus, which has also become corrupted from true doctrine through spiritual fornication. -- Matthew 27:21-23; Revelation 2:13-15,20-24

We learn from the Bible, however, that only one person is revealed as being the Supreme Being, the "one God" of whom are all. Jesus is distinguished from being that one God, because Jesus is the "one Lord" through whom are all. (1 Corinthians 8:6) Jesus is distinguished from being the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who spoke to and through the prophets of old. (Hebrews 1:1,2) The Supreme Being does not have another Supreme Being who is over him. However, Jesus does not have one who is "his ELOHIM". (Micah 5:4: Ephesians 1:3) While one can find a few scriptures in which some form of the Hebrew and Greek words that are often rendered as "God" are applied to Jesus, the idea that such applications mean that Jesus is Jehovah, and/or that Jehovah is more than one person, etc., have to be imagined and assumed beyond what is stated, and such has to be added to, and read into, what is stated. What do find in the Bible is that Jesus worshiped and prayed to his God.  We do find in the Bible that Jesus' God sent Jesus. And we find that Jesus was fully and willfully obedient to his God. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.

See: Links to some of our studies related to Jesus as deity

The overwhelming evidence of scripture is that Jesus was sent by his God, Jehovah, and that Jesus speaks for, does the work for, and represents his God. On the other hand, no scripture presents Jesus as being the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, although many like to read that thought into many scriptures.  -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 22:32; 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; 12:26; Luke 13:35; 20:37; John 3:2,17,32-35; 4:34; 5:19,30,36,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; 20:17; Acts 2:22,34-36; 3:13,22; 5:30; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 8:6; 11:31; Colossians 1:3,15; 2:9-12; Hebrews 1:1-3; Revelation 1:1.

God, by means of his holy spirit, reveals through the scriptures that Jesus receives his inheritance and dominion (power) from Jehovah. His power and authority is given to him by his God, his Supreme Being. His God and Father, the only true God, is the One who gives him this dominion, all authority and power (with the evident exception of the only true God himself -- 1 Corinthians 15:27), yet the exercise of this power and authority by Jesus is all to the praise of Jehovah, the God and Father of the Lord Jesus. The Bible writers never claimed that Jesus is the ultimate "source" of his own power. -- Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Daniel 7:13,14; Micah 5:4; Matthew 12:28; 28:28; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; Acts 2:22; 10:38; Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 15:27; 2 Corinthians 13:4; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:17-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22.

For more along this line, see our study: Jesus is not Jehovah

Taking all the evidence together, we believe that the default conclusion is that God is only one person, and Jesus is not his God Jehovah.

Ronald R. Day, Sr.

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