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1 John 3:16 - Did God Almighty Lay Down His Life For Us?


1 John 3:16 - By this we know love, because he laid down his life for us. We ought to lay down our lives for the brothers. -- World English Bible version.

Many, reading the King James Version of the above scripture, have claimed this verse says that God himself laid down his life for us. No, it was not God who laid down his life for us. The KJV  translators added the words "of God" to the verse. Most translations do not add the words "of God" to the verse:
http://biblehub.com/text/1_john/3-16.htm

Albert Barnes stated regarding this:
The words “of God” are not in the original, and should not have been introduced into the translation, though they are found in the Latin Vulgate, and in the Genevan versions, and in one manuscript. They would naturally convey the idea that “God” laid down his life for us; or that God himself, in his divine nature, suffered. But this idea is not expressed in this passage as it is in the original, and of course no argument can be derived from it either to prove that Christ is God, or that the divine nature is capable of suffering. The original is much more expressive and emphatic than it is with this addition: “By this we know love;” that is, we know what true love is; we see a most affecting and striking illustration of its nature. “Love itself” - its real nature, its power, its sacrifices, its influences - was seen in its highest form, when the Son of God gave himself to die on a cross. For an illustration of the sentiment, see the notes at John 3:16; John 15:13. -- Barnes, Albert. "Commentary on 1 John 3". "Barnes' Notes on the Whole Bible". https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/bnb/1-john-3.html. 1870.
Some claim that the only way to pay for the sin of all mankind would be for God Himself to die for our sins. No scripture presents the idea that in order for God's justice to be appeased through propitiation, the death of God Himself would required. The scriptures reveal that all that is needed to appease God's justice is the offsetting price (anti-lutron) of a sinless man who would give his fleshly body with its blood in sacrifice to God on man's behalf. It was the man, Christ Jesus, who gave himself in sacrifice to God for our sins. -- Matthew 26:26-28; John 6:51; 8:23; Luke 22:17-19; Romans 3:25; 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 11:24; 15:21,22; Ephesians 5:2; 1 Timothy 2:5,6; Hebrews 2:9; 10:10; 1 Peter 2:24; 3:18; 1 John 1:7; 2:2; 4:9,10.

Some note that Scrivener's Textus Receptus Text have the Greek equivalent of "of God." Scrivener's text was created in the latter 1800s. Evidently, being a trinitarian, he deemed that "of God" should be added.

Nevertheless, even as 1 John 3:16 reads in Scrivener's Textus Receptus of 1894, it should not be understood as meaning that God gave Himself as an offering to Himself for sins, otherwise, since the condemnation would have been eternal except that that it be offset, this would mean that God is now eternally dead.

The reality is, however, that it was not God, but the man, Christ Jesus, who had, while in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), the glory that is a little lower than the angels (Hebrews 2:9), being equivalent to Adam before Adam sinned, who did not sin as did Adam, and gave himself to God in sacrifice for Adam and all who are dying in Adam (1 Corinthians 15:21,22; Ephesians 5:2; 1 Timothy 2:5,6; Hebrews 9:14,28; 10:10,12), and Jesus is now, as a man having the glory that is a little lower than angels, eternally dead. The wages of sin that came upon Adam would have been eternal had not another taken upon himself the eternal penalty of sin, thus releasing Adam and all of Adam's descendants from that penalty. -- Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 1 Timothy 2:5,6.

1 John 4:9-10 -  In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him. [10]  Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.

"God" above refers to only one person who is not Jesus, and that one person sent His Son -- Jesus. The default reasoning is therefore that the one sent is not the one who did the sending, that is, Jesus is not "God" who sent him.

Even so, God's love is seen in that He sent His son to die for our sins.  -- John 3:16,17; 1 John 4:9.10.

God's justice was emphasized during the time before Christ. His justice demanded the death penalty upon all of Adam's descendants due to Adam's sin. God's love combined with His wisdom, however, saw to it that all were condemned in the one man, so that only one sinless man would be needed as a propitiation (appeasing) of God's justice. This is what Paul wrote about in Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 1 Timothy 2:5,6.


Some links to some of our related studies, see: The Ransom and Trinity

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