1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
1 Timothy 2:6 who gave himself as a ransom for all; the testimony in its own times. – World English
Deuteronomy 6:4 - Hear, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah. -- American Standard Version.
1 Corinthians 8:6 - yet to us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we to him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we through him.
-- World English.
Galatians 3:20 - Now a mediator is not between one, but God is one.
-- World English.
Ephesians 4:6 - one God and Father of all, who is over all, and through all, and in us all.
-- World English.
Trinitarians often give the above verses as proof that there is only one true God, but they then claim that this "one God" is three persons. They evidently overlook that 1 Corinthians 8:6, Ephesians 4:6, and 1 Timothy 2:5 directly present this "one God", not as being three persons, but rather as only one person, and that one person is the God and Father of our Lord Jesus. (Ephesians 1:3) 1 Corinthians 8:6 actually excludes Jesus from being the "one God", for Jesus is presented as being the "one Lord" through whom are all. The Father is the "one God" who is the source; the Son is the "one Lord" who is the instrument. The "one Lord" through whom are all is not the "one God" of whom are all, and the "one God" of whom are all is not the "one Lord" through whom are all.
In order to make it appear that this one God is three persons, they usually follow up with something like: "The Father is God (John 6:27; Romans 1:7; 1 Peter 1:2). The Son is God (John 1:1, 14; Romans 9:5; Colossians 2:9; Hebrews 1:8; 1 John 5:20). The Holy Spirit is God (Acts 5:3-4; 1 Corinthians 3:16)." Since, according to them, the word GOD is applied to all three, this must mean that all three of these "persons" are the "one God", and thus they assume this to prove their triune God theory. Of course, this disregards the Hebraic usage of the words for GOD and assumes the false dichotomy that GOD must mean either the one true God or else a false god. Additionally, one has to create a lot of assumptions regarding each verse which have to added to, and read into each verse, in order to make the verses appear to harmonize with their triune God doctrine.
1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
1 Timothy 2:6 who gave himself as a ransom for all; the testimony in its own times.
The scripture at 1 Timothy 2:5 is indeed a very good verse to show that there is only one true God [Supreme Being-- source of all] ; however, if this verse proves there is only one true God (Supreme Being), who is that only one true God proven to be in this verse? Trinitarians evidently fail to notice, or wish their readers not to notice, that Jesus is not included there as the only true God in John 17:5, nor is he included as being the "one God" of whom are all in 1 Corinthians 8:6, but only the God and Father of Jesus (Ephesians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3) is spoken of in the as the “one God” of whom are all. The same applied to "one God" in 1 Timothy 2:5. The "one God" is not the "mediator," nor is the "mediator" the "one God." Thus, this verse actually proves the only true God to be one person, not three persons, since the “one God” spoken of is only one person, not three persons. In fact, Jesus is excluded in this verse from the being the “one God”, since Jesus is described as the mediator between the “one God” and man.
Trinitarians also often cite 1 Timothy 2:5 as proof that Jesus is still a man, although the scripture does not say that, but it does say that the man Christ Jesus gave himself a ransom for all. The trinitarian uses the imagined “dual nature” or alleged “hypostatic union” dogma to imagine and see in the verse what is not there. Having discussed this elsewhere, we recommend that one see:
ONE LORD
Some also like to cite several scriptures where the Heavenly Father is referred to as "Lord", such as Matthew 1125; Matthew 21:42;
Other related studies:
Did Jesus Have to be Both God and Man in Order to be the Mediator?
Some also like to cite several scriptures where the Heavenly Father is referred to as "Lord", such as Matthew 1125; Matthew 21:42;
Other related studies:
Did Jesus Have to be Both God and Man in Order to be the Mediator?
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