Do Mark 2:7 and Luke 5:21 Prove Only God Can Forgive Sins?

Mark 2:5 - Jesus, seeing their faith, said to the paralytic, "Son, your sins are forgiven you."

Mark 2:6 - But there were some of the scribes sitting there, and reasoning in their hearts,  

Mark 2:7 - "Why does this man speak blasphemies like that? Who can forgive sins but God alone?" 

Mark 2:8 - Immediately Jesus, perceiving in his spirit that they so reasoned within themselves, said to them, "Why do you reason these things in your hearts? 

Mark 2:9 - Which is easier, to tell the paralytic, 'Your sins are forgiven;' or to say, 'Arise, and take up your bed, and walk?' 

Mark 2:10 - But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins" -- he said to the paralytic -- 

Mark 2:11 - "I tell you, arise, take up your mat, and go to your house." 

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Luke 5:20 - Seeing their faith, he said to him, "Man, your sins are forgiven you." 

Luke 5:21 - The scribes and the Pharisees began to reason, saying, "Who is this that speaks blasphemies? Who can forgive sins, but God alone?" 

Mark 2:7 and Luke 5:21 are often cited to argue that no one can have authority to forgive sins except God. The reasoning goes: if Jesus forgives sins, then Jesus must be the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob — that is, God Almighty. The phrase commonly quoted is, “Who can forgive sins but God alone?”

Understanding who said it and why

However, the context matters. In both Mark 2:7 and Luke 5:21, the statement is made by Jewish religious leaders — scribes and Pharisees. The Gospels elsewhere describe these leaders as acting from envy and seeking a legal basis to accuse Jesus of blasphemy. Matthew 27:18 notes their envy, while Luke 20:19 and Luke 22:2 show they were looking for a way to arrest and kill Him. Their claim, then, is part of a hostile accusation, not a neutral doctrinal statement.

What Jesus actually claimed in response

In Mark 2:10, Jesus does not respond by claiming to be God. Instead, He identifies Himself as *“the Son of Man”* — a messianic title from Daniel 7:13-14 — and states that *“the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins.”* The text emphasizes **authority given**, not inherent deity.

Who gave Jesus this authority?

One should note this:

He entered into a boat, and crossed over, and came into his own city. Behold, they brought to him a man who was paralyzed, lying on a bed. Jesus, seeing their faith, said to the paralytic, “Son, cheer up! Your sins are forgiven you.” Behold, some of the scribes said to themselves, “This man blasphemes.” Jesus, knowing their thoughts, said, “Why do you think evil in your hearts? For which is easier, to say, ‘Your sins are forgiven;’ or to say, ‘Get up, and walk?’ But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins…” (then he said to the paralytic), “Get up, and take up your mat, and go up to your house.” He arose and departed to his house. 8But when the multitudes saw it, they marveled and glorified God, who had given such authority to men. — Matthew 9:1-8, World English

Matthew 9:8: After Jesus, the Son of the Man, David, heals the paralytic, the crowds “glorified God, who had given such authority to men.” The text presents Jesus as a man among men to whom God granted authority. 

Acts 2:22: Peter addresses the Jews, describing Jesus as “a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by [Greek instrumental “en”, "by means of," -- Strong’s #1722] him in the midst of you.” Here, “God” and “him” are distinct. Peter later identifies this God as *“the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ”* in 1 Peter 1:3. Peter does not identify Jesus as being "God", nor does he present the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob as being more than one person. He actually shows that Jesus is not the God of Israel.

1 Corinthians 8:6: Paul writes, “There is one God, the Father, from whom are all… and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all.” The “one God” is identified specifically as the Father. Paul does not identify this one God as being more than one person. Nor does he identify Jesus as being this "one God". Instead, he identifies Jesus as being the "one Lord" through whom are all. If Jesus is the "one Lord" through whom are all, he cannot be the one God from whom are all.

The scriptures make it clear that Jesus received his authority and power from his Father and God. Jesus is nowhere in the Bible presented as being the source of his own power. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Ezekiel 34:23,24; 37:24; Daniel 7:13,14; Micah 5:4; Matthew 12:28; 28:18; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; Acts 2:22,36; 3:13-26; 10:38; Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 15:27; 2 Corinthians 13:4; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22. 

Key takeaway

The argument from Mark 2:7 and Luke 5:21 rests on a statement made by Jesus’ opponents during a confrontation. The broader biblical context shows Jesus claiming delegated authority as the promised Son of Man and Son of David, with that authority given to Him by His God and Father. 

We certainly find nothing in these verses that presents Jesus as being the God of the Old Testament (oneness doctrine), or that presents God as being more than one person (trinity doctrine).

Written By Others:

Healed to Wholeness

Two Miracles for a Paralytic