Mark 2:5-11 – Only God Can Forgive Sins?

Mark 2:5 - Jesus, seeing their faith, said to the paralytic, "Son, your sins are forgiven you."

Mark 2:6 - But there were some of the scribes sitting there, and reasoning in their hearts,  

Mark 2:7 - "Why does this man speak blasphemies like that? Who can forgive sins but God alone?" 

Mark 2:8 - Immediately Jesus, perceiving in his spirit that they so reasoned within themselves, said to them, "Why do you reason these things in your hearts? 

Mark 2:9 - Which is easier, to tell the paralytic, 'Your sins are forgiven;' or to say, 'Arise, and take up your bed, and walk?' 

Mark 2:10 - But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins" -- he said to the paralytic -- 

Mark 2:11 - "I tell you, arise, take up your mat, and go to your house." 

. 

Luke 5:20 - Seeing their faith, he said to him, "Man, your sins are forgiven you." 

Luke 5:21 - The scribes and the Pharisees began to reason, saying, "Who is this that speaks blasphemies? Who can forgive sins, but God alone?" 

Mark 2:7 and Luke 5:21 are often presented as proof that God cannot give anyone authority to forgive sins, and therefore, according to that reasoning, in order for Jesus to forgive sins, Jesus has to be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Thus it is being asserted that Jesus has to be God Almighty, since according to they way this often quoted, 'only God can forgive sins.'

However, if we note the context, the ones who are saying this are the Jewish leaders; these are the same Jewish leaders described as lying and deceiving, offspring of vipers, etc. (Mark 2:7), and they are saying this because of envy, as an excuse to accuse Jesus with blasphemy, in an effort to find some reason according to the Law to justify — before the eyes of the people — killing him. — Matthew 27:8; 21:37,38; Luke 20:19; 22:2.

In Mark 2:10, we find that instead of claiming to be God, Jesus claimed to be the promised Son of the Man, David, who had authority on earth to forgive sins.  And who gave Jesus this authority? Other scriptures show that he received his authority from his God.

But note this:

1 He entered into a boat, and crossed over, and came into his own city. 2 Behold, they brought to him a man who was paralyzed, lying on a bed. Jesus, seeing their faith, said to the paralytic, “Son, cheer up! Your sins are forgiven you.” 3 Behold, some of the scribes said to themselves, “This man blasphemes.” 4 Jesus, knowing their thoughts, said, “Why do you think evil in your hearts? 5 For which is easier, to say, ‘Your sins are forgiven;’ or to say, ‘Get up, and walk?’ 6 But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins…” (then he said to the paralytic), “Get up, and take up your mat, and go up to your house.” 7 He arose and departed to his house. 8But when the multitudes saw it, they marveled and glorified God, who had given such authority to men. — Matthew 9:1-8, World English

Matthew 9:8 reveals that Jesus, as a man among men, received this authority from his God and Father.

Peter, in speaking to the Jews, described Jesus as “a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by [Greek instrumental “en”, "by means of," -- Strong’s #1722] him in the midst of you.” (Acts 2:22) The “God” that Peter refers is evidently not Jesus whom “God” approved, so Peter must be referring to the God and Father of Jesus (1 Peter 1:3), and in doing this he is presenting “God” as one person, that is the Father. This agrees with Paul's statement that there is "one God" of whom are all, and Paul identifies that "one God" as being the Father of Jesus. -- 1 Corinthians 8:6.

At the same time, the God that Peter is referring to as one person is “The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob” (Acts 3:13), the God who spoke to Moses. (Exodus 3:15; Hebrews 1:1) It was this same God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who spoke of raising up a prophet like Moses, which prophet was to speak the words of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and come in the name of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. — Deuteronomy 18:15-22; Acts 3:13-26.

Throughout the scriptures, we find it stated that Jesus' power and authority is given to him from his God and Father. Jesus is not Jehovah who gives him this dominion, all authority and power (with the evident exception of the position of being the Most High himself -- 1 Corinthians 15:27). It is Jesus' God who is the source of Jesus' power (Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3), since Jesus is not the "one God" of whom are all. (1 Corinthians 8:6) Nevertheless, Jesus' uses the power and authority that his God has given him to the praise of his God, Jehovah, his God and Father. The Bible writers never claimed that Jesus is the ultimate "source" of his own power. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Ezekiel 34:23,24; 37:24; Daniel 7:13,14; Micah 5:4; Matthew 12:28; 28:18; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; Acts 2:22,36; 3:13-26; 10:38; Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 15:27; 2 Corinthians 13:4; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22.

There is nothing in the fact that the only true God who sent Jesus (John 17:3) gave to Jesus authority on earth (Matthew 9:8) to forgive sins that means that Jesus is the only true God who sent him. There is definitely nothing in any of these verses that give us reason to create many assumptions and add those assumptions to, and read those assumptions into these scriptures so as to claim that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is three persons, and that Jesus is a person of Jehovah, etc. The idea that Jehovah is more than one person is no where to be found in the Bible.

Written By Others:

Healed to Wholeness

Two Miracles for a Paralytic

Genesis 17:1 - Did the Prehuman Jesus Appear to Abraham?

Genesis 17:1 - And when Abram was ninety nine years old, Jehovah appeared to Abram and said to him, I am the Almighty God! Walk before me and be perfect; -- Green's Literal.

Many claim that Jesus is the God of the Old Testament who appeared to Abraham, and thus that in Genesis 17:1, it was Jesus as the second person of the alleged Trinity who appeared to Abraham.

In Genesis 17:1, it is obviously the one person who is "God" in Hebrews 1:1 who is appeared to his prophet Abraham. 

In Genesis 17:2, Jehovah promises to make a covenant with Abraham. Verse 7 shows that this covenant is made not only with Abraham, but also the "seed" of Abraham. The final application of this is to "Christ", the only descendant of Abraham who actually fully kept the Law Covenant. Jesus proved himself to be that true "seed" of Abraham, as the apostle Paul writes:

Galatians 3:16 Now the promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. He doesn't say, "To seeds," as of many, but as of one, "To your seed," which is Christ. 

Galatians 3:17 Now I say this. A covenant confirmed beforehand by God in Christ, the law, which came four hundred and thirty years after, does not annul, so as to make the promise of no effect. -- World English.

Paul is obviously speaking of the covenant that Jehovah spoke of in Genesis 17. Paul does not identify Jesus as being Jehovah who makes this covenant, but rather as Christ with whom the covenant is made.

If Jesus is Jehovah of Genesis 17:1, this would mean that Jesus made a covenant with himself. Actually, Galatians 3:16,17 proves that Jehovah in Genesis 17:1 is not Jesus, but rather it is the God and Father of Jesus. Jesus also spoke of this covenant with Abraham as a covenant for a kindgom:

Luke 22:29 - And, I, covenant unto you - as my Father hath covenanted unto me - a kingdom. -- Rotherham's Emphasized Bible.

Oddly, most translations do not reveal that Jesus was speaking here of a covenant that his Father made with him. That this is the covenant made with Abraham is confirmed in Galatians 3, and Jesus extended this covenant with his followers, so that "If you are Christ's, then you are Abraham's seed and heirs according to promise." -- Galatians 3:29.

It should be apparent that by the above comparison of spiritual revealing with spiritual revealing (2 Corinthians 2:13) that it was the God and Father of Jesus who appeared to Abraham, who made the covenant with Abraham and with Abraham's seed, which is Christ (and all who belong to Christ).

Acts 9:5; 26:14-18 – Who Are You, Lord? - c

Acts 9:5 - He said, "Who are you, Lord?" The Lord said, "I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting.

Acts 26:14 We all fell to the ground, and I heard a voice saying to me in Aramaic, ‘Saul, Saul, why do you persecute me? It is hard for you to kick against the goads.’

Acts 26:15 “Then I asked, ‘Who are you, Lord?’ ” ‘I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting,’ the Lord replied.

Acts 26:16 ‘Now get up and stand on your feet. I have appeared to you to appoint you as a servant and as a witness of what you have seen of me and what I will show you.

Acts 26:17 I will rescue you from your own people and from the Gentiles. I am sending you to them

Acts 26:18 to open their eyes and turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, so that they may receive forgiveness of sins and a place among those who are sanctified by faith in me.'”– World English

Acts 26:14-18 is sometimes cited as proof that Jesus is Jehovah, most often to support the trinity or oneness doctrines..

We know that some refer to Saul’s usage of the word “Lord” in Acts 26:15, and the statement “the Lord replied”, and claim by this that Saul was addressing the one whom he speaking to as being the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Such usually claim that the Greek word often transliterated as KURIOS in the NT represents Jehovah. It is true that in many instances in the extant Greek manuscripts, we find that the Holy Name has been replaced with forms of the Greek word KURIOS; this, however, does not mean that KURIOS in the NT is always speaking of Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. 

One author states regarding Acts 9:5:

In the Old Testament, the Hebrew word translated "LORD" is the unpronounceable Yhvh, a name which specifically refers to the God of the Bible (to make it pronounceable, Yhvh is referred to as Yahweh, Yahovah or even Jehovah after the addition of vowels). Since there is no equivalent in Greek, kyrios, the Greek word which means "master" or "lord" is used in the New Testament to refer to the God of the Bible. In Acts 9:5, however, Saul is using kyrios in its general sense.

Of course, YHVH in English is not pronounceable, but the name was pronounced in ancient Hebrew. Some seem to think that only the Holy Name of God was written without vowels in ancient Hebrew. The truth is that ancient Hebrew had no written vowels for any word at all; such was not exclusive God's Holy Name. This does not mean that ancient Hebrew had no vowel sounds; the vowel sounds were used when words were spoken although they were not shown in the written words. For more concerning the Holy Name, one may see our site on God's Holy Name.

The assumption is presented as being a fact that there was no equivalent in the Greek, evidently referring to the Koine Greek of the first century. It this be true, then it would also be true of most, if not all, of the Old Testament Hebrew names. Yet, we do find Greek forms of many other Hebrew names that are presented in the New Testament, including forms of Elijah, Moses, Joshua (Jesus), Isaiah, Jeremiah, etc. There is no reason to imagine and assume that forms of the Greek word KURIOS was used to replace the Holy Name because there was no Greek form of the Holy Name.

After presenting some discussion of how the Holy Name is presented as "Kyrios" (another way of transliterating KURIOS) in the New Testament, the author concludes that Kyrios in Acts 9:5 is not being used in that scripture for "Jehovah", but rather in its "general sense" of "master" or "lord." We do commend the author for this conclusion, although we believe that Saul was, in effect, saying, "Sir, who are you?"

One states:

The name Lord summed up all that the Godhead implied. It was a word that could be applied only to Deity. Israel's conception was: "The Lord our God is one Lord." Israel held that God would never give to another, the name of Lord.

Christ accepted that title, and the early saints asserted it. Christ came in the Name of the Lord, He also came bearing the Name, Lord. This was the core of the confession of faith that marked the early Church. They were baptized in the Name of the Lord Jesus, because they confessed that Jesus was Lord, the same as the Father was Lord, and the Spirit was Lord. Neighbour, Robert E. "Wells of Living Water Commentary on Acts 9:5". "Living Water". .

Evidently, the author confuses the Holy Name -- often rendered in English as Jehovah -- as being "Lord". This may be because of the way most translations have changed the Holy name to "Lord" or "the Lord" in most places. Additionally, in the extant New Testament manuscripts we find the the Holy Name has often been changed to forms of the word often transliterated as KURIOS, meaning, Lord, Master, Sir. Due to this confusion, even many Bible scholars inaccurately present the Holy Name as meaning, Lord. For more regarding how the Holy Name has been replaced in the extant manuscripts, we recommend our site:

The Holy Name of God

Nevertheless, it is this confusion of the Holy Name with forms of Kurios that forms the basis of the idea that Saul, when he used “Lord,” meant Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

There is no indication in Acts 9:5; 26:15 that Saul thought he was speaking to the God of Abraham. Indeed, if he already knew who it was who was speaking to him, there would have been no need for Paul to have asked the question, “Who are you?” In other words, if he did not know who it was who was addressing him, why would he calling that one the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob by use of the term "Lord?"

Adam Clarke lets us know that Saul's question was:

Who art thou, Sir? He had no knowledge who it was that addressed him, and would only use the term Κυριε, as any Roman or Greek would, merely as a term of civil respect. -- Clarke, Adam. "Commentary on Acts 9:5". "The Adam Clarke Commentary". 

The same applies to the fact that Saul bowed to his knees before this “master” who was speaking to him. Some have claimed that Saul bowed before Jesus in recognition of Jesus' being the God of Israel. The truth is that Saul certainly would not have given homage due only to the Almighty to someone whom he did not know. Such obeisance was common among the Hebrew people and was often given to kings and others; such homage, of itself, does not mean giving homage that is only due to the Most High. 

Albert Barnes tells us:

The word “Lord” here, as is frequently the case in the New Testament, means no more than “sir,” John 4:19. It is evident that Saul did not as yet know that this was the Lord Jesus. He heard a voice as of a man; he heard himself addressed, but by whom the words were spoken was to him unknown. In his amazement and confusion, he naturally asked who it was that was thus addressing him. -- Barnes, Albert. "Commentary on Acts 9:5". "Barnes' Notes on the New Testament".  1870.

John Gill states:

For he knew not whether it was God, or an angel, or who it was that spake to him; he knew not Christ by his form or voice, as Stephen did, when he saw him standing at the right hand of God; he was in a state of ignorance, and knew neither the person, nor voice of Christ, and yet his heart was so far softened and wrought upon, that he was desirous of knowing who he was. -- Gill, John. "Commentary on Acts 9:5". "The New John Gill Exposition of the Entire Bible". 1999.

The conclusion is that there is nothing in these scriptures that offer any proof that Jesus is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Jesus is definitely not the "one God of whom are all," (1 Corinthians 8:6) nor is he the one person who spoke through the prophet Moses. -- Hebrews 1:1,2; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Exodus 3:14,15; Acts 3:13-26.

Psalm 138:2 - Did God Exalt Jesus Above His Name?

Psalm 138:1 I will give you thanks with my whole heart. Before the gods, I will sing praises to you.

Psalm 138:2 I will bow down toward your holy temple, And give thanks to your Name for your lovingkindness and for your truth; For you have exalted your Name and your Word above all.

Psalm 138:3 In the day that I called, you answered me. You encouraged me with strength in my soul.

Psalm 138:4 All the kings of the earth will give you thanks, Yahweh, For they have heard the words of your mouth. Psalm 138:5 Yes, they will sing of the ways of Yahweh; For great is Yahweh's glory.

Psalm 138:6 For though Yahweh is high, yet he looks after the lowly; But the proud, he knows from afar.

Psalm 138:7 Though I walk in the midst of trouble, you will revive me. You will stretch forth your hand against the wrath of my enemies. Your right hand will save me.

Psalm 138:8 Yahweh will fulfill that which concerns me; Your lovingkindness, Yahweh, endures forever. Don't forsake the works of your own hands. -- World English.

Many use Psalm 138:2, as it appears in the King James Version, and some other translations, as proof that Jesus is Jehovah, and/or that Jesus' name is greater than that of Jehovah's name. The KJV states: " I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name."

According to the reasoning many give, it appears that they assume that "thy word" of Psalm 138:2 is Jesus, as spoken of in Revelation 19:13. Some trinitarians, of course, read into this that it is speaking of two persons of their alleged triune God. Some oneness believers in some vague manner read into this that Jesus and Jehovah are the same person.

According to one trinitarian site: "Psalm 138:2 States that God and the Word are the same & equal."

http://www.layevangelism.com/qreference/chapter7.htm

One states that it is possible "that the name JESUS is magnified above all of the revealed names of God including 'Jehovah' and 'I AM WHO I AM'."

https://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20101201144535AAcmDku

One has claimed that it is saying that the only thing higher than the name of "the Lord" (evidently meaning "Jehovah") is Jesus Christ His Word. Of course, in reality, Psalm 138:2 is about Jehovah. If one insists on the KJV rendering, however, it is simply stating that God places His Word over His Name, that is, that His Name provides the surety that what he says will come true.

The usage of the Hebrew word often transliterated as "'imrah" (Strong's #565, utterance, speech, word) here is not speaking of the "name" given to the Lord Jesus, as spoken of in Revelation 19:13; it is simply referring to the utterance or saying of Jehovah.

http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/hebrew/nas/imrah.html

Thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name - All the Versions read this sentence thus: "For thou hast magnified above all the name of thy holiness," or, "thy holy name." Thou hast proved that thou hast all power in heaven and in earth, and that thou art true in all thy words. And by giving the word of prophecy, and fulfilling those words, thou hast magnified thy holy name above all things - thou hast proved thyself to be ineffably great. The original is the following: אמרתך שמך כל על הגדלת כי ki higdalta al col shimcha, imrathecha, which I think might be thus translated: "For thou hast magnified thy name and thy word over all," or, "on every occasion." Kennicott reads, "He preferred faithfulness to his promise to the attribute of his power." I believe my own translation to be nearest the truth. There may be some corruption in this clause. -- Clarke, Adam. "Commentary on Psalms 138". "The Adam Clarke Commentary". https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/acc/psalms-138.html. 1832.

For thou hast magnified thy word - Thou hast made it great. Compare Isaiah 42:21. The reference here is to the promises of God, and especially to the promise which God had made to David that the Messiah would descend from him. Compare Psalm 19:1-14. There are very many points in relation to God, of the highest interest to mankind, on which the disclosures of science shed no light; there are many things which it is desirable for man to know, which calmer be learned in the schools of philosophy; there are consolations which man needs in a world of trouble which cannot be found in nature; there is especially a knowledge of the method by which sin may be pardoned, and the soul saved, which can never be disclosed by the blow-pipe, the telescope, or the microscope. These things, if learned at all must be learned from revelation, and these are of more importance to man as a traveler to another world than all the learning which can be acquired in the schools of philosophy - valuable as that learning is. -- Barnes, Albert. "Commentary on Psalms 138". "Barnes' Notes on the Whole Bible". https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/bnb/psalms-138.html. 1870. 2. For the most excellent reasons. "I will praise Thy Name for Thy loving-kindness and for Thy truth; for Thou hast magnified Thy word above all Thy Name." The poet resolves to praise the Lord because of the kindness and faithfulness which He had manifested according to His Word. The final clause in the second verse has occasioned considerable difficulty to some expositors. The interpretation of Barnes, Hengstenberg, Henry, Perowne, and others seems to us undoubtedly correct,—that the revelation of Himself which God has given to man in His Word surpasses in clearness and preciousness all the other manifestations which He has made of Himself: Thus Perowne: "Thy word, or ‘promise.' (Comp. Psa ; Psa 60:6; Psa 62:11.) No particular promise is meant. The same word occurs frequently in Psalms 119. Above all Thy Name. The expression seems to mean that to the soul waiting upon God, and trusting in His word, the promise becomes so precious, so strong a ground of hope, that it surpasses all other manifestations of God's goodness and truth; or in the promise may here also be included the fulfilment of the promise." In His Word God has given many exceeding great and precious promises, and they are all worthy of acceptation; for God in His fulfilment is better even than in His promises. Here then is an excellent reason for praising God, because He has manifested so much of Himself, and especially of His loving-kindness and faithfulness to us in His Word. -- Exell, Joseph S. "Commentary on Psalms 138". Preacher's Complete Homiletical Commentary. https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/phc/psalms-138.html. Funk & Wagnalls Company, 1892. For thou hast magnified thy word about all thy name - thou hast bestowed the promise of perpetuity to my house and my kingdom, which rises in grandeur and goodness above all thy past manifestations of thyself in behalf of thy people (2 Samuel 7:10; 2 Samuel 7:12-13; 2 Samuel 7:15-16; 2 Samuel 7:21-22; 2 Samuel 7:24-26; 2 Samuel 7:29 : Ps. 138:29 especially, "For thy Word's sake ... hast thou done all those great things;" Ps. 138:26 , "And let thy name be magnified forever" - an undesigned coincidence of language between the history and the psalm). In Messiah alone the greatness of the promise finds, and shall hereafter more fully find, its realization for Israel and the whole world. -- Jamieson, Robert, D.D.; Fausset, A. R.; Brown, David. "Commentary on Psalms 138". "Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible - Unabridged". https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/jfu/psalms-138.html. 1871-8. Psalms 138:2. Thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name. The readings vary here in modern Versions. God’s word cannot be magnified above his name. Kimchi reads, “Thou hast magnified thy name in every word of thine.” An anonymous critic reads, “Thou hast magnified thy name above all things by thy word.” -- Sutcliffe, Joseph. "Commentary on Psalms 138:4". Sutcliffe's Commentary on the Old and New Testaments. https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/jsc/psalms-138.html. 1835. For thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name] Or, Thou hast magnified thy name in all thy words. Or, Thou hast magnified above all things thy name by thy word; that is, Thou hast got thee a very great name, by fulfilling thy promises, and by setting on thy word with power. -- Trapp, John. "Commentary on Psalms 138". John Trapp Complete Commentary. https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/jtc/psalms-138.html. 1865-1868. For Thou hast magnified Thy Word above all Thy name, literally, "for Thou hast made great above all Thy name Thy Word," that is, the promise of God, 2Sa_7:12-16, exceeded all other revelations of Himself in its greatness and in its application to the salvation of men. -- Kretzmann, Paul E. Ph. D., D. D. "Commentary on Psalms 138:4". "Kretzmann's Popular Commentary". https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/kpc/psalms-138.html. 1921-23. For thou hast magnified thy word, &c. — Thou hast glorified thy faithfulness, in fulfilling thy promises unto me, more than any other of thy glorious perfections by which thou art known. Not that one of God’s attributes is really, and in itself, more great or glorious than another; or can be made so, but because one may be more celebrated and admired by men than another; as here, God’s gracious promise of the kingdom made to David, and the wonderful accomplishment thereof, in spite of all those difficulties which stood in the way, and which seemed to men to be insuperable, was, at this time, more observed and admired than any other of his attributes or actions. -- Benson, Joseph. "Commentary on Psalms 138:4". Joseph Benson's Commentary. https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/rbc/psalms-138.html. 1857.

The Septuagint does not mention “word” at all, but says, “You have exalted Your Name above all.” This is in harmony with many other scriptures.  Due to this, some believe that, as Clarke states, “there may be some corruption in this clause.”

Regardless, the idea that this verse is referring to exalting Jesus higher than God’s name has to be imagined and assumed, and read into, what is stated.

John 1:12-14 - Was Jesus Born "of the Logos?"

Some who do not believe that Jesus existed before his birth on earth have claimed that Jesus is not the Logos, but rather that Jesus was born of the Logos. In some vague manner, the usage of "born" in John 1:12 is evidently thought to support the idea that the Logos gave birth to Jesus. Does John 1:13,14 mean that the man Jesus was born “of the Logos” of verse 1?

John 1:12 But as many as received him [The Logos of verse 1], to them he [the Logos of verse 1] gave the right to become God’s children [Psalm 82:7; John 10:34,35], to those who believe in his name [the name of the Logos of verse 1]:

John 1:13 who [those who believe in the Logos of verse 1] were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. [by means of God’s Holy Spirit]

John 1:14 The Word [the Logos of verse 1] became flesh, and [the Logos of verse 1] lived among us. We saw his glory [the terrestrial glory (1 Corinthians 15:39-41) of the Logos of verse 1 in the flesh], such glory as of the only Son of the Father [who is thus identified as the Logos of verse 1], full of grace and truth.

John 1:14 says nothing about giving birth the Son of God. In fact, it directly states that Logos (of verse 1) became or was made flesh. If this were speaking of the Logos as giving birth then it would actually mean that the Logos gives birth the Logos. Of course, nothing in these verses say anything to the effect the Logos being referred to in John 1:12-14 was born of the Logos of verse 1. Verse 13 is not speaking of the Logos as giving birth, but of how the Logos became flesh, and was seen in the flesh. As a human being, however, the Logos was indeed not born of man, but of God, for his body was specially prepared by God. (John 8:23; Hebrews 10:5) Likewise, those who become new creatures and heirs of God do not become such because of being born of a certain human bloodline, but the new creature is born of God, not of this world that is condemned in Adam. Jesus’ fleshly body was prepared, formed, by God through God’s holy spirit. (Hebrews 10:5, Matthew 1:20) If this were not true, and Jesus had the taint of the blood of sinful flesh, then he would have been born a sinner as all the rest of the world, and there has been nothing to give as a ransom for mankind. — John 3:17; 6:51; Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; Galatians 1:4; 2:20; Ephesians 5:2,25; 1 Timothy 2:5,6; Hebrews 10:10; Titus 2:14; 1 John 2:2; 4:9,10.

John 1:14 tells us that the Logos of verse one became, or was made, flesh. It definitely says nothing to the effect the Logos was made flesh by the Logos of verse 1, nor does it say that Logos gave birth to Jesus. Jesus, in effect, declared himself to be the Logos who had been with the only true God (John 1:1) before the world of mankind had been made through him. — John 1:10; 17:1,3,5.

Acts 13:33 - Jesus' Begettal From Death

Psalm 2:7 - Does This Speak of an Eternal Today?

2 Corinthians 3:17 – Jehovah, The Spirit

2 Corinthians 3:16 – But whenever one turns to [Jehovah], the veil is taken away.

2 Corinthians 3:17 – Now [Jehovah] is the spirit and where the spirit of [Jehovah] is, there is liberty.

2 Corinthians 3:18 But we all, with unveiled face beholding as in a mirror the glory of [Jehovah], are transformed into the same image from glory to glory, even as from [Jehovah], the spirit. — Our own rendering with the Holy Name supplied..

Many believe that “the Lord” [as in most translations] in this verse refers to Jesus. While this is possible, from the context it appears more likely that in the Greek KURIOS [Lord] has been used to replace the holy name. God’s holy name in English is often rendered as “Jehovah” or “Yahweh.” Likewise, the usage of Kurios without the definite article in the Greek [“Lord” rather than “the Lord;” the definite article “the” is supplied by translators] seems to indicate that Kurios is being used as a personal name, and thus that Kurios has been used here to replace the Holy Name, making the Holy Name appear to be Kurios rather than Jehovah/Jehovah.

Many trinitarians agree that Kurios in these verses speaks of Jehovah of the Old Testament. However, to get this scripture to conform to their idea of a triune God, they may claim that “the spirit” here refers to the holy spirit and thus in some way that Jehovah is said to be the holy spirit. Since it is their claim that Jehovah is three persons, then their imagination steps in so as to further assume, add to, and read into, what is said here that “Lord” here does not mean three persons, but rather that it is being used unipersonally of only one their alleged three persons of their triune Jehovah, that is, the alleged third person that they claim is the holy spirit. But does not fit continuously, since 2 Corinthians 3:17 does not just say that “Lord is the spirit,” it then speaks of the spirit of “Lord”. Thus, they would have further imagine, assume, and add to the scripture, that in the phrase “spirit of Lord,” that “Lord” [Kurios] in this instance does not refer to all three persons of their triune God, nor would it refer to the unipersonally to their assumed third person of the assumed trinity, but usually think of “Lord” to whom the spirit belongs as being unipersonally the first person of the alleged triune God. So they would end of applying the first instance of Kurios in 2 Corinthians 3:17 to their alleged third person of the assume trinity, but the second instance would be applied to their alleged first person of the assumed trinity. This is not what the scripture actually says, but this is what a trinitarian might imagine, assume, add to and read into the verse.

From the oneness perspective, the oneness believer does indeed claim that Jehovah is is the holy spirit, since they believe that Jehovah, the son of the Most High, and the holy spirit of Jehovah, are all one person who are all Jehovah. They would thus claim that the holy spirit that belongs to Jehovah is Jehovah to whom the holy spirit belongs. In effect, this would make the phrase “spirit of Jehovah” nonsensical, since Jehovah is being claimed to be the holy spirit.

In context, however, we find that it more likely that Lord in 2 Corinthians 3:15-18 refers unipersonally to the God and Father of Jesus, as is true all through the New Testament where forms of Kurios are used to replace the holy name (in effect, this replacement changes the holy name to Kurios, something which is not authorized anywhere in the Bible).

What we need to do is first, identify who is being spoken of as Kurios, and, and since the word “spirit” can mean other things than just the holy spirit, we need to identify what is meant by “spirit” in the phrase, “Jehovah [“the Lord” in most translations] is the spirit.” But before we do that, we wish to note that in all the verses preceding 2 Corinthians 3:16, the word “God” (rendered from forms of the Greek “Theos”) does not refer to three persons, but is used unipersonally of the God and Father of Jesus. In the World English (and many other translations) of 1 Corinthians 1:3, “God” is spoken of as one person, that is, “the God and Father of our Lord Jesus.” “God” is continously spoken of as one person throughout all of the verses leading up to the verse in question. This should be kept in mind as we next examine the word “spirit” (Greek transliteration, pneuma).

1 Corinthians 1:18 — But as God is faithful, our word toward you was not “Yes and no.”

1 Corinthians 1:19 — For the Son of God, Jesus Christ, who was preached among you by us, by me, Silvanus, and Timothy, was not “Yes and no,” but in him is “Yes.”

Here “God” is identified unipersonally, and Jesus is identified as “Son” of that unipersonal God.

1 Corinthians 1:20 For however many are the promises of God [Jehovah], in him is the “Yes.” Therefore also through him is the “Amen,” to the glory of God through us.

1 Corinthians 1:21 Now he who establishes us with you in Christ, and anointed us, is God [Jehovah];

1 Corinthians 1:22 who also sealed us, and gave us the down payment of the Spirit in our hearts.

The Greek word for God in the Greek is anarthrous both in verses 20 and 21; it is possible that forms of theos were used to replace the Holy Name in these verses. For our purposes, however, we wish to note that “God” in both verses is being unipersonally and is distinguished from “Christ,” which is right and proper, since it is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, who anointed Jesus, making him “Christ,” and who also anoints the believer, making them also in union as a body with Jesus as “the Christ,” head and body. (Romans 12:5; 1 Corinthians 12:12,27) Thus, the believer is not just outside of the Christ, the Anointed, but they all make up the Anointed of Jehovah as the body of the Anointed One, and they receive their anointing from the same unipersonal God as did Jesus. Prophetically, the Messiah says, “Jehovah has anointed me.” (Isaiah 61:1) In Acts 10:38 we read that “God anointed him with the Holy Spirit and with power.” And we read that “God has made him both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you crucified.” (Acts 2:36) This agrees with 1 Corinthians 8:6, where Paul wrote that the "one God" of whom are all is the Father, the God and Father of Jesus. (Ephesians 1:3) This unipersonal “God” is the same unipersonal “God” who anoints all of the believers “into the Christ.”

The word spirit is referred to in 2 Corinthians 1:22, where it refers to the unipersonal God and Father of Jesus (“God” in 2 Corinthians 1:23 is distinguished from Christ) as the One who has given the spirit (as form of the Greek, pneuma) as a token, a down payment, in the hearts of the believer. Since the spirit is given as a token down payment, this shows that what the believer receives of the spirit of the unipersonal God being spoken of in this age is not the full payment, that it is a representation of the full payment that is to follow at a later date; that later date is indicated in Hebrews 6:5 as the “age to come”. Since this gets into another discussion not especially related to our topic, we will leave that for another time, Jehovah willing.

1 Corinthians 2:12 Now when I came to Troas for the gospel of Christ, and when a door was opened to me in the Lord. — World English.

Here we find the expression “the Lord” (anarthrous in the Greek) is again used. Its being used without the definite article in Greek again may indicate that the Greek word “Kurios” is being used as a personal name, rather than speaking of Jesus as the Lord or Master of the church, and therefore that Kurios in this verse is being used to replace the Holy Name. The Greek word “en” before Kurios indicates instrumentality, that Jehovah was instrumental in the opening of the figurative “door” that Paul wrote of.

2 Corinthians 2:14 But thanks be to God, who always leads us in triumph in Christ, and reveals through us the sweet aroma of his knowledge in every place.

2 Corinthians 2:15 For we are a sweet aroma of Christ to God, in those who are saved, and in those who perish;

2 Corinthians 2:16 to the one a stench from death to death; to the other a sweet aroma from life to life. Who is sufficient for these things?

2 Corinthians 2:17 For we are not as so many, peddling the word of God. But as of sincerity, but as of God, in the sight of God, we speak in Christ.

Again, notice the usage of the word “God” in the verses above. It is continously being used of one person, that is, the unipersonal God and Father of Jesus, as distinguished from “Christ.”

2 Corinthians 3:3 being revealed that you are a letter of Christ, ministered by us, written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God; not in tablets of stone, but in tablets that are hearts of flesh. — World English

Here we have a reference to the “the Spirit of the living God,” which parallels “spirit of the Lord” or “spirit of Jehovah” in 2 Corinthians 3:17. “God” is used in 2 Corinthians 3:3 to continue to identify, not a “triune God,” but rather one person, the God and Father of Jesus. The expression “living God” parallels scriptures such as Deuteronomy 5:6; Joshua 3:10; Psalm 42:2; 84:2; Isaiah 37:4,17; Jeremiah 10:10; Hosea 1:10. In the New Testament, the expression “living God” is unipersonally of the God of Jesus in Matthew 16:16 and John 6:69. However, as the “spirit” is used in 2 Corinthians 3:3 as belonging to the unipersonal living God, likewise, the same in 2 Corinthians 3:17, where the spirit is identified as the spirit of the Lord, that is, the spirit of Jehovah.

2 Corinthians 3:4 Such confidence we have through Christ toward God;

2 Corinthians 3:5 not that we are sufficient of ourselves, to account anything as from ourselves; but our sufficiency is from God;

2 Corinthians 3:6 who also made us sufficient as servants of a new covenant; not of the letter, but of the Spirit. For the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life.

Verse 6 in the World English begins with “who,” referring back to “God” in the verse before. This “God,” as we have shown, is not three persons, but refers unipersonally to the God and Father of Jesus, and thus “God” in these verse does not include Jesus.

The reference is to the new covenant, versus “the letter”, referring to the law covenant through Moses. It is the blood of the new covenant, the sacrificial blood of Jesus, that gives freedom, and the application of that blood is activated for a reckoned justification of believer in this age and to sanctification (consecration) by means of God’s holy spirit. — Matthew 26:28; Mark 14:24; Luke 22:20; Romans 15:26; 2 Corinthians 6:11; Hebrews 6:5; 10:29; 12:24.

The law, although it was made for the sinner (1 Timothy 1:9), and could have provided life for the sinner had the sinner fully obeyed that law (Romans 10:5; Galatians 3:12), was shown to be weak due to the sinful flesh, the corrupt, crooked condition, that mankind came to be in as result of the disobedience of Adam, so that no one was freed from the condemnation in Adam, nor were they freed from the curse of the law, by means of works of the law. Freedom could only come in the spirit of the new covenant though application of the blood of Christ. — Ecclesiastes 1:15; 7:13; Romans 3:20-28; 5:12-19; 8:23; Galatians 2:16; 3:10,13,21.

The New Covenant is thus highly related to God’s holy spirit, but since this topic could end up sidetracking what we are addressing here, we will leave that for another discussion at another time; suffice it to say that it is God’s spirit as related to the new covenant that is given to the believer as a token down payment, an earnest, of the age to come, constituting the believer as a new creation free from the condemnation both by means of Adam, as well as freedom from the curse of the Law for the Jew under the Law. — 2 Corinthians 1:22; 5:5,17; Hebrews 6:5; Revelation 21:1-5.

This is the spirit of freedom being spoken of in the verse were are discussing.

2 Corinthians 3:7 — But if the service of death, written engraved on stones, came with glory, so that the children of Israel could not look steadfastly on the face of Moses for the glory of his face; which was passing away:

2 Corinthians 3:8 — won’t service of the Spirit be with much more glory?

The Old Law Covenant, was engraved upon stones, was a righteous, perfect law, and the law itself did not fall short of the glory of Jehovah, but those under that law, due to their inability to straighten themselves, justify themselves, by observing that Law, continued to fall short of the glory of that Law, for none are “justified [made straight, not crooked] by the works of the law.” — Romans 3:23; 7:12; Galatians 2:15.

2 Corinthiians 3:11 — For if that which passes away was with glory, much more that which remains is in glory.

The Law Covenant continues to be active for the Jew under that Law Covenant. Jesus said, “until heaven and earth pass away, not even one smallest letter or one tiny pen stroke shall in any way pass away from the law, until all are accomplished.” (Matthew 5:18, many translations add the word "things" after "all.") Thus, the Law Covenant is still binding upon the unregenerated Jew, and will continue to be binding until the present heaven and earth passes away, and the age to come arrives, the new heavens and new earth, which will not be under the Law Covenant, but under the New Covenant. — 2 Peter 3:13; Hebrews 6:5; Revelation 21:1-5.

However, for the individual Jew who believes in Jesus, that Jew becomes dead to the Law Covenant (Romans 7:4-6) so that the old is reckoned before God as having passed away, and there is a new creation, freed, not only from the condemnation in Adam, but for the Jew, also from the Law, so that for the Jewish believer in Christ, the Law has passed away. — Romans 8:2; 2 Corinthians 5:17; Colossians 2:14.

2 Corinthians 3:12 – Having therefore such a hope, we use great boldness of speech,

2 Corinthians 3:13 – and not as Moses, who put a veil on his face, that the children of Israel wouldn’t look steadfastly on the end of that which was passing away.

2 Corinthians 3:14 But their minds were hardened, for until this very day at the reading of the old covenant the same veil remains, because in Christ it passes away.

2 Corinthians 3:15 But to this day, when Moses is read, a veil lies on their heart.

Paul here likens the Law Covenant through Moses to the veil that Moses put on his face (Exodus 34:33-35) that would hide the glory of Jehovah that shone in his face due his seeing his seeing an outward form of the glory of Jehovah while in the mountain obtaining the ten commandments. So with those who would try to justify themselves by works of the Law have a veil on their heart which fails to permit them to obtain that which they seek by that law. “In Christ,” by means of Christ’s sacrifice, that old covenant passes away, but only to the Jew who becomes dead to the Law through faith in Jesus’ blood; for the rest of the Jews, to this day, the veil of that old covenant remains, and the curse of the covenant remains upon them.

2 Corinthians 3:16 – But whenever one turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.

It is because of this verse that many believe “Lord” refers to Jesus, because in verse 14, we are told “in Christ it passes away.” The expression in verse 14, however, uses the instrumental “en” in the Greek, which can mean “by means of.” Christ is the instrument used by Jehovah, and no one can turn to Jehovah except through Christ and his blood. We find that the disciples preached "repentance toward God and faith toward our Lord Jesus. (Acts 20:21) Thus it is Jehovah (the God and Father of Jesus), that one turns to, and one can only turn to Jehovah through faith towards Jesus. — John 14:6.

2 Corinthians 3:17 – Now the Lord is the Spirit and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty.

The beginning phrase is often transliterated as “ho de kurios to pneuma estin.” This verse is vaguely constructed and even most trinitarian scholars disagree on its meaning. If the trinitarian argues, however, that Kurios means Christ, and that the word Spirit refers to the holy spirit, this would end saying that the alleged second person of the assumed triune God is the alleged third person of the triune God. Thus those who would claim that Kurios means Jesus may state that “spirit” here does not mean the “holy spirit,” but simply substance, that is that Jesus is a spirit being. If so, the identity of the holy spirit as the alleged third person of the assumed trinity is lost to this verse.

However, many trinitarians will say that Kurios does indeed refer to Jehovah of Exodus 34:33-35. Evidently, this would assume the Jehovah in theses verses is not Jesus. Regardless, as we have shown in the context, the God of the Old Testament has been consistently used of one person, the God and Father of Jesus, in the verses leading up to the present verse. This is the one person who is "God" in Hebrews 1:1 who spoke through the prophets, including Abraham and Jacob. In the phrase “spirit of the Lord”, corresponding to the earlier “spirit of the living God,” does indeed identify “Lord” with the one person who is the “living God” in verse 3, which, if one tries to see "trinity" in these verses, would end up making the first phrase saying that the alleged first person of the assumed triune God is the alleged third person of the triune God, or else a lot more assumptions have to be added to split the usage of “Lord” as applied to two different persons of the assumed triune God.

However, we admit that the Greek application, as we now have it, is vague, but we also believe that to try to apply the trinitarian dogma to the verse so as to have it relate to the holy spirit as an alleged third person of the trinity would call for a lot to imagine, assumed, add to, and read into what is said, and still it would end up be in contradiction to the trinity dogma.

Of course, Jehovah is the spirit in the sense that Jehovah’s holy spirit is a part of Him. The holy spirit is figuratively spoken of as His finger, His voice and His mouth. Thus, one cannot separate Jehovah’s spirit from Jehovah Himself, so that, in this sense, Jehovah is His spirit, but like saying God is love, as it would not be proper to turn this around and say “Love is God,” so it would not be proper to say “The holy spirit is Jehovah.”

2 Corinthians 1:21,22 – Christ, God And The Spirit

2 Corinthians 1:21 Now he who establishes us with you in Christ, and anointed us, is God;
2 Corinthians 1:22 who also sealed us, and gave us the down payment of the Spirit in our hearts.

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The above is cited by John Ankerberg and John Weldon (The Facts on Jehovah’s Witnesses*, 1988 edition, page 14) as being one of the scriptures that would be impossible to understand if one rejects the trinity. Actually, we find nothing at all in the verse that is made impossible to understand by rejecting the trinity. The reality is that the verse is totally self-explanatory, simple to understand and it only becomes difficult to undertand if one imagines and assumes the trinity doctrine, and endeavors to insert that concept into the verses. Indeed, inserting and adding “triune God” dogma into the verses makes them appear to be self-contradictory. 

It is evident that the word “God” in 2 Corinthians 1:21 does not refer to three persons; it refers to one person, the God and Father of Jesus. This is simple to understand and should be the end of the matter, as far who is "God" in 1 Corinthians 1. It is in harmony with 2 Corinthians 1:3, which reads in the World English: “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of mercies and God of all comfort.” (See also Ephesians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3) It is in harmony with 1 Corinthians 8:6, where only the Father is identified as being the "one God" of whom are all. Furthermore, in 1 Corinthians 1:9, we find the expression “Son of God”. Does the word “God” there mean three persons, or one person? It should be evident that “God” is being presented, not as three persons, but rather as one person.

Even the trinitarian has to admit that the word “God” is being used of one person in 2 Corinthians 1:3,9,21. The trinitarian, however, calls upon the spirit of human imagination so to assume and add to the scripture that “God” in these verses is referring to only one of the alleged three persons of their alleged triune God, that God the Father. They then further have to call upon the spirit of human imagination so as to assume, add to, and read into the verses that “Christ” also means the only true God, and then further call upon the spirit of human imagination so as to further assume that “Christ” means a person of the alleged “triune God”.

We also find the word “Christ”. Do we find any reason to imagine and assume that Christ is a person of God? None whatsoever. Nor do we find that not accepting Christ as being a person of an alleged “triune God” make the verse not understandable.

“Christ” means anointed one; who anointed Jesus as Christ? The scriptures reveal to us that it was Yahweh. Prophetically, the anointed one is quoted as saying: “Yahweh has anointed me.” (Isaiah 61:1, World English) In Isaiah 61:1, it is evident that Yahweh is one person, and that one anointed by Yahweh is not Yahweh who anointed him. We further read that Peter told the Jews: “God has made him both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you crucified.” (Acts 2:36, World English) Again, “God” in Acts 2:36, is speaking not of three persons, but one person, and it is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who anointed Jesus, and made him both Lord and Christ (anointed one).

We find in 1 Corinthians 1:22, that the word “spirit” is used. Is “spirit” identified as a person of “God”? Absolutely not! The scripture is completely understandable without calling upon human imagination so as to assume that “spirit” is here referring to a person of God. Nothing in either verse makes the verses impossible to understand without adding the triune dogma to the verses.

Likewise, with the word “spirit” in 2 Corinthians 1:22: the trinitarian has to call upon his human imagination so as assume that “spirit” refers to a person of the only true God. Actually, we can understand the verse completely without having to use our human imagination to read such trinitatrian assumptions into the scripture. Paul shows that the receiving of God’s holy spirit in this age is, in effect, only a down payment. In 2 Corinthians 5:5, he states: “Now he who made us for this very thing is God, who also gave to us the down payment of the Spirit.” And in Ephesians 1:13,14, he wrote: “You were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise, which is a down payment of our inheritance.” One can understand all of this without calling upon human imagination so as to add to the scripture that “the Holy Spirit of God” (Ephesians 4:30) is a person of “God” to whom the Holy Spirit belongs.

Ronald R. Day, Sr., Restoration Light Bible Study Services (RLBible; ResLight).

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*See our examination of Ankerberg and Weldon's book:

Responses to Ankerberg and Weldon's Alleged "Facts"

Please note that we are not associated with the Jehovah’s Witnesses, nor is it our purpose to defend that organization.

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1 Timothy 6:15,16 – The Only Ruler Who Possesses Immortality

1 Timothy 6:13 I charge you in the sight of God, who gives life to all things, and of Christ Jesus, who before Pontius Pilate testified the good confession,1 Timothy 6:14 – that you keep the commandment, without spot, without reproach, until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ;1 Timothy 6:15 – which in its own times he will show, who is the blessed and only Ruler, the King of kings, and Lord of lords1 Timothy 6:16 – who alone has immortality, dwelling in unapproachable light; whom no man has seen, nor can see: to whom be honor and eternal power. Amen. — World English Bible translation.

Many offer the above verses as proof that Jesus is Jehovah, but not all do this in the same way. One claims that Jesus is here called the only ruler (only Potentate, KJV). Zechariah 14:9 is then offered: “Jehovah will be King over all the earth. In that day Jehovah will be one, and his name one.” From this it is claimed that 1 Timothy 6:16 reveals that Jesus is Jehovah.

Some claim that the titles King of kings and Lord of lords only apply to Jehovah, and thus since these titles are applied to Jesus here, that this is proof that Jesus is Jehovah. We have discussed these titles elsewhere, and will not discuss them here. One may consult our study: Lord of Lords and King of King of Kings.

Further, it is claimed that since it says that Jesus is the only one with immortality, that this means that Jesus is Jehovah.

However, many do not apply the expressions under question to Jesus in the above verses. Some translations express it differently, so that the expressions are being applied to the Father of Jesus, and not to Jesus. The New Living Translations (NLT) renders the verses this way:

1 Timothy 6:13 And I command you before God, who gives life to all, and before Christ Jesus, who gave a good testimony before Pontius Pilate,1 Timothy 6:14 that you obey his commands with all purity. Then no one can find fault with you from now until our Lord Jesus Christ returns.1 Timothy 6:15 For at the right time Christ will be revealed from heaven by the blessed and only almighty God, the King of kings and Lord of lords.1 Timothy 6:16 He alone can never die, and he lives in light so brilliant that no human can approach him. No one has ever seen him, nor ever will. To him be honor and power forever. Amen.

Some believe that this rendering fits the context better, in that it is the God of Jesus that is being referred to in verse 13, who gives life to all, and it is the God of Jesus that Timothy is told to obey. While Paul could have applied 1 Timothy 6:16 to the Father Jesus, nevertheless, the rendering of “can never die” (1 Timothy 6:16), can be misleading, as it appears to alter what was actually being said. It is true that only the God of Jesus ‘possesses/has’ immortality in his own innate being. No one else ‘possesses/has’ immortality innately. Yet Paul writes that we should seek to put on incorruption/incorruptibility, and that once we do we will also put on immortality. (1 Corinthians 15:54) Thus, there will be many who will become immortality, but such immortality was not their's to begin with; it is not their's innately. Only the Supreme Being has immortality innately.

Regardless, we also should note that Jesus is certainly delineated from “God” in these verses. In other words, the one who gives life to all, is distinguished from Christ Jesus. Jesus, before his resurrection, however, was not immortal (not dieable), or else he could not have died. Since Jesus did die, we conclude -- in harmony with the scriptures -- that he had not yet been given immortality before he died. It is only since his being raised back to life by the power of the only true God that he now lives forever and will never die again. (Romans 6:9; Revelation 1:18) Death no longer has any dominion over him, since he has overcome (in obedience to the only true God — Philippians 2:8), and thus is now not subject to any death. (Revelation 2:8,11; 3:21) Jesus cannot die again, thus, by his putting on incorruption, he has put on immortality. (1 Corinthians 15:53,54) However, unlike the innate immortality possessed by his God, Jesus’ life, is given to him by his God, who gives life to all. Thus, Jesus even now “lives through the power of God.” (1 Corinthians 13:4) Micah foretells of him: 

Micah 5:4 - And He shall stand and feed in the strength of Jehovah, in the majesty of the name of Jehovah His God. And they shall sit, for now He is great to the ends of the earth.

Jesus’ immortality is not his innately, it is given to him by his God, who gives life to all. Thus, in the full sense of the word as being an innate attribute, only the God of Jesus has immortality.

Nevertheless, assuming that the phrases are actually meant to apply to the Son of God, rather than to the God of Jesus, should we conclude that this means that Jesus is the Most High Jehovah? Jesus is indeed the only ruler, the only Potentate, whom the only Most High has placed over the others who are also made kings, rulers, lords. (Psalm 45:7; Ephesians 1:17-21; Hebrews 1:9; Revelation 5:10; 19:16; 20:6) Jesus’ placement as such, however, is from Jesus’ God, the only Most High. This being so, as Paul says, “it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him.” — 1 Corinthians 15:27.

Of course, the last day, the day of the resurrection and judgment, had not yet come when Paul wrote his words to Timothy, and thus, of the rulers/lords being spoken of, only Jesus possessed immortality at that time. Only Jesus had been raised from the dead and given immortal life by his God.

One objects with the dualistic claim (hypostatic union doctrine) that Jesus is God and also that Jesus is man at the same time. Thus, applying this doctrine, the claim is made that it was God Jesus who died, but rather that it was the man Jesus who died, and that it was the man Jesus who was raised back to life. Many even claim that Jesus raised himself from the dead, which would mean that it would have to be assumed and read into the scriptures that the God Jesus raised the man Jesus from the dead. Thus, it is claimed that Paul was referring to the God Jesus as immortal, not the man Jesus.

But does the Bible ever actually present such ideas as expressed in the alleged dual natures doctrine? No. In reality, the whole hypostatic union dogma has to be imagined in men’s thoughts “beyond the things which are written,” (1 Corinthians 4:6) and those thoughts are then assumed to be true, and then those assumptions of men have to be added to, and read into, what the scriptures say, in order to make the scriptures appear to agree with the added-on dogma that Jesus is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. As we have stated before, since the Bible is fully harmony with itself without adding all of the trinitarian or oneness philosophies to the Bible, we have no reason to add such to what has been revealed though the spirit in the holy scriptures.

On the other hand, the hypostatic union dogma claims that the man Christ Jesus is now alive, and will be alive forever. Although the details of the claims vary, the basic claim is that Jesus is now both God and man, and that Jesus will forever be a man. This, of course, would fully nullify the ransom sacrifice of Jesus, since it would either have Jesus taking back his sacrifice, or that he never really offered that sacrifice in the first place. Since we have dealt with this before, we will not dwell on this in this study. One might see our studies related to: Is Jesus Now Flesh? 

What we certainly do not find in these verses is any concept of God as three persons, or that there is more than one person in the only true God. Like other scriptures, the concept has to be assumed, added to, and read into the above verses. Likewise with any concept that presents Jesus as the only true God.

Ronald R. Day, Sr.; Restoration Light Bible Study Services (ResLight, RLBible)

Originally published on: July 7, 2009; updated and republished on April 11, 2014; October 19, 2018; November 22, 2018.

Comments (June 1, 2016):

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You mentioned that Jesus did not receive immortality until after His death and ressurrection.How then would you explain John5:26“For as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son also to have life in himself.”Jesus here is clearly indicating that immortality had already been given to Him.
John10:18Seems to imply this,
“No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have authority to lay it down and authority to take it up again. This command I received from my Father.”(NIV)The command that Jesus received from the Father seems to be a guarantee that while God Himself did ressurrect Jesus,our Saviour was also able to ressurrect Himself,as He had the authority from the Father,a direct commandment.
Would appreciate your thoughts on those verses.

Response:

We are preparing a study related to John 5:26, and it should be on this site soon. We personally believe the life in Jesus is referring to the sinless life that God gave to Jesus as a human being. Jesus, unlike Adam, never fell short of the glory of God. However, in the study we will be presenting several different views of what Jesus possibly meant. Koine Greek verbs, however, are more aspectual than time related.  If Jesus was speaking of receiving immortality, the time should be considered as future, not present.

Jesus did not receive authority to resurrect himself from the dead. Rotherham more correctly renders John 10:18: "No one forced it from me, but I lay it down of myself, -- Authority have I to lay it down, and authority have I again to receive it: This commandment received I from my Father." 

This is discussed in our studies:

Did Jesus Raise Himself From the Dead?
Jesus' Appearances in the Locked Room

John 5:22,23 – Honor The Son As The Father

For neither does the Father judge any man, but he has given all judgment to the Son, [23] that all may honor the Son, even as they honor the Father. He who doesn’t honor the Son doesn’t honor the Father who sent him. — John 5:22-23, World English.

John 5:23 is often cited as proof that Jesus is Jehovah, or a person of Jehovah. In reality, there is nothing in John 5:23 that means that Jesus was claiming to be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. There is nothing in John 5:23 that says that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is more than one person. There is nothing in John 5:23 that says that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is three persons. All such thoughts have to be added to, and read into, what Jesus said. Indeed, Jesus claimed the one who had sent him, which he spoke of in John 5:23, as the “only true God”, and by claiming the “only true God” had sent him, Jesus was, in effect, denying that he was that “only true God”. — John 17:1,3.In the Bible, only the God and Father of Jesus is identified as being Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. (Exodus 3:14,15) The scriptures show that Jesus was sent by Jehovah, speaks for Jehovah, represents Jehovah, and it was this same God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who raised and glorified His Son. Jesus never claimed to be, nor do the scriptures present Jesus as, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, whom Jesus represents and speaks for. — Deuteronomy 18:15-22; Matthew 22:32; 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; 12:26; Luke 13:35; 20:37; John 3:2,17,32-35; 4:34; 5:19,30,36,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; 20:17; Acts 2:22,34-36; 3:13-26; 5:30; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 8:6; 11:31; Colossians 1:3,15; 2:9-12; Hebrews 1:1-3; Revelation 1:1.

Jesus’ power and authority is given to him from the only true God [Supreme Being]. Jesus stand in the strength of his God, Jehovah (Micah 5:4) Jesus is not Jehovah who gives him this dominion, all authority and power (with the evident exception of the position of being the Most High himself (1 Corinthians 15:27), yet the exercise of this power and authority by Jesus is all to the glory of Jehovah, the one person who is the God and Father of the Lord Jesus. The Bible writers never claimed that Jesus is the ultimate “source” of his own power. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Ezekiel 34:23,24; 37:24; Daniel 7:13,14; Matthew 12:28; 28:18; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; Acts 2:22,36; 3:13-26; 10:38; Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 15:27; 2 Corinthians 13:4; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22.

Jehovah, the only true God, the God and Father of Jesus, never is “given” power at all; THE GOD AND FATHER OF JESUS IS POWER INNATE, the source of all. (1 Corinthians 8:6) The only true God, the God and Father of Jesus, does give to Jesus power, but not the power of being the source of all power, since it is obvious in that all that is given from the only true Supreme Being, that of being the only true Supreme Being is exempt from being given to anyone. (John 17:1,3; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; 1 Corinthians 15:27) All is still “of” the only true Supreme Being, “through” the one whom only true Supreme Being has made — appointed — as “Lord” over the church and the world; the one appointed only has power “through the strength of Jehovah”, “his God”. — Psalm 2:6; Isaiah 9:7; 11:2; 61:1-3; Ezekiel 34:23,24; 37:24; Jeremiah 23:5; Micah 5:4; Matthew 28:18; Luke 1:32,33; Acts 2:36; 5:31; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Philippians 2:9-11.

In harmony with this, the default reasoning concerning what Jesus stated in John 5:23 should be that Jesus was claiming to be the agent of Jehovah, the only true God, not that Jesus was claiming to BE the only true God. God gave to His son this authority, and thus we should indeed honor His son as we would honor the only true God Himself. The scriptures also tell us that receiving one of the saints is to receive Jesus and the Father. (Matthew 10:40; John 13:20) Jesus, by his words recorded in John 5:23, was speaking of what the only true God has given to him; this authority in context is the authority to judge. By means of this authority given to the Son, the Son is due honor just as the only true God is due honor. It should be apparent that this honor is something that becomes due to the Son *because* of his being given the authority to judge, not because it is an honor that has been due to the son from all eternity past. Therefore, a time frame is set after which the Son is to receive this honor. If this “honor” means to give Jesus the worship, or ascribe to Jesus the glory, due to the only true God, then it would imply that the Son would not have received this worship until he had also received the authority to judge, which, if the thought be that this proves that Jesus is Jehovah, it would further mean that Jesus did not become Jehovah until he received the authority to judge, which authority Jesus received from Jehovah, the only true God who sent him. In reality, it is in view of this high honor conferred upon the Son by the only true God that we are told (John 5:23), “that all may honor the Son, even as they honor the Father.” The explanation of this statement follows, and shows that the honor to the Son is as the Father’s appointed representative and agent in the great work, saying, “He who doesn’t honor the Son doesn’t honor the Father who sent him.”

Some have claimed that Jesus was claiming one should give to him honor that is “equal to” God. Such seem to assume that the Greek word often transliterated as *kathos* means “equal to”. It can mean so, but that meaning is not inherent in the word, as can be seen by its usage all throughout the NT, and if the same reasoning be used, this would make the saints also the Supreme Being, and/or equal in power to Jesus. (See: John 17:11,22; Ephesians 5:25,29; 1 John 4:17) In John 5:23 it expresses that we should honor the one sent forth with the same kind of honor that we would give to the Sender. It does not mean to give to the one sent forth by the only true God the honor of being the only true God.

Some similar scriptures:

Matthew 10:40 WEB

He who receives you receives me.

Did Jesus mean the disciple whom one may receive is himself also Jesus, or that the disciple represents Jesus?

Luke 9:48 WEB

and said to them, "Whoever receives this little child in my name receives me. Whoever receives me receives him who sent me. For whoever is least among you all, this one will be great."

Did Jesus mean that if the little child is himself, or that the little child simply represented himself?

John 13:20 WEB

Most assuredly I tell you, he who receives whoever I send, receives me; and he who receives me, receives him who sent me."

Does this mean that the one whom Jesus sends is Jesus himself, are that the one sent represents Jesus?

In John 12:45, Jesus stated that there was One who had sent him, and therefore the default reasoning is that he was not the one who had sent him. Any conjecture that Jesus is a person of the God of Abraham, and one person of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob sent another person of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into any scripture, since the Bible nowhere presents any such thought.

Who sent Jesus? We read:

Jesus is depicted prophetically as saying "Jehovah hath ... sent me." (Isaiah 61:1, American Standard Version) The only true God sent Jesus. (John 17:3). 

Nevertheless, since Jesus spoke for and did the works of the One who had sent him, to recognize Jesus is the same as recognizing the One who had sent Jesus. To honor the one whom Jehovah sent is the same as honoring Jehovah who sent him.  

See also our studies listed at:
The Worship of Jesus

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