Wednesday, December 29, 2021

Isaiah 43:13; John 10:28 - No One Can Deliver Out of My Hand

By Ronald R. Day, Sr.

Isaiah 43:13 - Yes, before the day was I am he; and there is no one who can deliver out of my hand. I will work, and who can hinder it?" -- American Standard Improved Version.

John 10:28 - and I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, and no one shall snatch them out of my hand. -- World English.

Some present these two verses together, evidently with the thought that since Jehovah is quoted as saying "there is no one who can deliver out of my hand" in Isaiah 43:13, and Jesus said "no one shall snatch them out of my hand" in John 10:28, this is alleged to prove to Jesus of John 10:28 is Jehovah of Isaiah 43:13.

Actually, it is not clear that Isaiah 43:13 is actually talking about the same thing that Jesus spoke of in John 10:28. In Isaiah 43:13, Jehovah may not have been speaking of the sheep that He was to give to the "one shepherd" (Ezekiel 34:23; 37:24; John 10:16) that he was to appoint over his sheep. (Ezekiel 34:2-24) .

Matthew Poole states concerning Isaiah 43:13:

There is none, none of those which are called gods, that can deliver out of my hand; that can save them whom I will destroy. Therefore they are impotent, and consequently no gods.

I will work, and who shall let it? nor can they hinder me in any other work which I resolve to do.

John Gill states, however, regarding Isaiah 43:13:

and there is none can deliver out of my hand: either such whom the Lord determines to punish, or such whom he resolves to save; none can snatch them out of his hands, there they are safe:

Regardless, Jesus stated:

John 10:28 - I give eternal life to them. They will never perish, and no one will snatch them out of my hand. 

John 10:29 - My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all. No one is able to snatch them out of my Father's hand. -- World English.

Jesus acknowledges that his sheep are given to him from someone else, his God and Father (Ephesians 1:3). Jesus stands in the strength of his God, Jehovah. (Micah 5:4) Thus it is because no one can snatch these sheep out of the Father's hand, that no one can snatch them out the hand of the one whom Jehovah appointed to be the "one shepherd" over His sheep. -- See Ezekiel 34:2–24.

Rather than claiming to be Jehovah, Jesus was actually claiming to be the one foretold whom his God, Jehovah (Micah 5:4) was set up as the "one shepherd" of Jehovah's sheep.

There is definitely nothing in these scriptures that presents Jehovah as being more than one person, or that Jesus is Jehovah, etc.

See also our study:
The One Shepherd





Monday, December 13, 2021

James 2:19 - Did James Say that the Demons Know That Jesus is God?

 The following has been presented to us:


James 2:19 states: "You believe that God is one. You do well. The demons also believe, and shudder." -- World English.

Obviously, there is nothing in James 2:19 that says that the demons know that Jesus is God. Thus, the trinitarian (or oneness believer) who uses this verse to claim that the demons know that Jesus is God has to create a lot of assumptions that have to be added to and read into what James said to make it appear to say that demons knew that Jesus is God.

Obviously, James by his words recorded in James 2:19 is referring to the same one person he speaks of as "God" in James 1:1,27. We have no scriptural reason to think that James was not referring to the same one person who is identified as the "one God" in 1 Corinthians 8:6; Ephesians 4:6; 1 Timothy 2:5. Indeed, it is the same one person who is the God of the Messiah in Micah 5:4 and who is the God and Father of Jesus as spoken of in Ephesians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3.

They may claim that since there is only one God, and since the Bible uses the word God of Jesus in a few verses, that this means that Jesus has to be that "one God." Of course, such simply ignores the Biblical usage of the words for "god". It would narrow the Hebrew and Greek words for GOD down to meaning only Supreme Being or false god, and thus claim that either Jesus is the "one God" or else he is a false god. We have addressed this in other studies and thus will not address this again here, except to say that since Jesus is not the "one God" of whom are all  (1 Corinthians 8:6), any application of the Hebrew and Greek words for GOD to Jesus should be understood in the sense of special might and power as given to him from his God and Father.

See our studies:
The Hebraic Usage of the Titles for "God"

As far as who the demons knew Jesus to be, the scriptures tell us that Satan knew Jesus, not to be God, but rather the Son of God. (Matthew 4:3,6; Luke 4:3,9) Indeed, if Satan thought Jesus was the Supreme Being, he surely knew that the Supreme Being could not be tempted into disobeying himself, and thus he would not have wasted time trying to tempt Jesus into disobedience to himself. The demons likewise knew Jesus to be, not God Almighty, but rather the Son of God, the Son of the Most High. -- Mark 3:11; 5:7; Luke 4:41; 8:28.

We certainly find nothing in James 2:19 (or anywhere else in the Bible) that presents Jesus as being the "one God," nor do we find any thought that presents the "one God" as being more than one person. Any such thoughts have to be added to and read into what James wrote.



Friday, November 19, 2021

1 Corinthians 12:4-6 - Various Kinds of Gifts, But One Spirit

1 Corinthians 12:4 - Now there are various kinds of gifts, but the same Spirit.
1 Corinthians 12:5 - There are various kinds of service, and the same Lord.
1 Corinthians 12:6 - There are various kinds of workings, but the same God, who works all things in all. -- World English Bible version
.

The above verses are sometimes referenced as claiming to present all three persons of the triune Godhead. Evidently, what is being imagined and assumed is that the word "spirit" in verse 4 is in reference to the third person of the triune Godhead, and the "Lord" in verse 5 is in reference to the second person of the alleged triune Godhead, and that "God" in verse 6 refers to the first person of the alleged triune Godhead. Of course, in reality, "God" in these verses refers to only one person. There is nothing in these verses that presents "God" as being more than one person, or as being three persons.

Paul is here explaining that although there are a diversity of gifts of the spirit, we should not think that each gift of the spirit is a separate spirit. They are all of the one spirit, from the one God and Father of Jesus, through the one person whom Jehovah has anointed and made to be the "Lord" through whom are all. -- Psalm 2:26; 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Ezekiel 34:23,24; John 10:29; 17:1,3; Acts 2:23,36; 4:27; 10:38; Hebrews 1:9; 1 Corinthians 8:6.

While the verses do demonstrate how God, His Holy Spirit, and His Son, all work together in agreement, we find nothing in the verse that says these three are all the "one God" of whom are all. (1 Corinthians 8:6) Only Jehovah, the God and Father of Jesus (Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3), is being identified here as "God."

If one drops the meaning of "three persons in one God," the word "trinity" could be used of all three as being one in agreement, purpose, but the idea of "three persons in one God" is not expressed in these verses, or anywhere else in the Bible.

Thursday, November 18, 2021

Godhead in the King James Version

By Ronald R. Day, Sr. -- Much needs to added to this study, but I have decided to present what I have already completed.

A term often used to describe the trinity is that of "Godhead." Trinitarians often refer to the "three persons of the Godhead." On one site we are told that "God is one and that there are three distinct persons within the Godhead." And then it is claimed: "It is important to know where Scripture presents the members of the Godhead as sharing in the divine nature equally, meaning that one is not somehow more divine than another and underscoring that all three members are fully and equally one-and-the-same God." Of course, in reality, we do not find anywhere in the Bible anything about there about the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as being three persons, or even more than one person. He is always presented as being only one person.

On another site, we find a quote 1 John 5:7 from the King James Version and states: "Obviously, this verse speaks of three Persons all being God, all three being one. Notice, the Godhead is not three Gods; but three Persons in one Godhead." Really? Actually and obviously, there is nothing at all in 1 John 5:7 about God consisting of three persons. The idea has to be added to, and read into, what is stated in 1 John 5:7 of the King James Version. The Greek Textus Receptus of this verse does not use the masculine form of the Greek word for one, often transliterated as "heis", as Paul used in the expression "one God" in 1 Corinthians 8:6; Ephesians 4:6; and 1 Timothy 2:5. The form found in the Greek Textus Receptus is "hen", which the neuter form of "one". However, the word for "God" in Koine Greek is masculine, and thus the Greek grammar would demand the masculine form of "one", if "one God" is what is meant by "one" in Textus Receptus of 1 John 5:7. For more related to 1 John 5:7 and John 10:30, see our studies: The Oneness of Jesus and His God; 1 John 5:7 - Does This Speak of Three as One God?; and 1 John 5:7 - The Usage of "Hen" and Trinity.

What does the word "Godhead" itself mean, and where did it come from? The English word "Godhead" is, of course, not actually found in the original languages of the Bible. Thus, the English meanings given to this word may or may not correspond with the Biblical usage of any Hebrew or Greek word.

According to Webster, "godhead", with a small "g", means, 'divine nature or essence." This meaning does not, of itself, designate three persons of whom are one Supreme Being. It could be used to designate one or more persons as having the divine nature or divine essence. Of itself, it would not designate the nature or essence of each as being equal.

The second meaning Webster gives is Godhead (capitalized), which is defined as "a: GOD sense 1; b: the nature of God especially as existing in three persons —used with the."  In English, "God" (capitalized) usually -- but not always -- signifies "Supreme Being." If the English word "GOD" is limited to this meaning, then this usage of Godhead would signify (in English) the Supreme Being. The second meaning, however, would give the meaning of "the Godhead" the actual trinitarian meaning of one God who is three persons. Definition "a" would fit the usage made by oneness believers, who speak of the "oneness of the Godhead," but definition "b" would not fit their usage. 

Thus, it would seem that its meaning in English is determined mostly by context, who is using the word, and how it is being applied.

Etymologically, Webster states of "godhead": "Middle English godhed, from god + -hed -hood; akin to Middle English -hod -hood." Thus, etymologically, it would mean, "godhood."

The word "Godhead" is found three times in the King James Version of the Bible: Acts 17:29; Romans 1:20; and Colossians 2:9. 

Acts 17:29

Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man's device. -- King James Version.

Being then the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Divine Nature is like gold, or silver, or stone, engraved by art and design of man. -- World English Bible version.

You may wish to see the online Greek Analysis of Acts 17:29.

When Paul spoke these words, was he speaking of three persons all of whom are God?

The Greek form from which Godhead in the King James Version is rendered is the word often transliterated as Theion (Strong's Greek #2304).  This is an adjective neuter form of the Greek word often transliterated as THEOS, meaning GOD. Strong's #2304  is given several different meanings by scholars (most of whom are trinitarian). Thayer notes that the Greeks used this word "to denote the divine nature, power, providence, in the general, without reference to any individual deity." However, Wayne Jackson states: "In Acts 17:29 the Greek term is theion, signifying 'divinity' or 'the Deity; (with the definite article) – a perfect way to express the concept of the true God as opposed to the conflicting gods of Greek paganism." We can agree that, in context, Paul was using this word to describe the true Divine being as opposed to the gods of the Greeks. However, such a thought is not inherent in the word Theion itself. Being an adjective form of THEOS (Strong's G2306), it would, as used in the New Testament, correspond to forms of the Hebrew words EL (Strong's H410, H430, etc), which have the basic meaning of might, power, strength. These Hebrew forms in the Bible are usually used of Jehovah as meaning the Supreme Might, but they are also used of other persons or in other ways than meaning the Supreme Mighty One. See out study The Hebraic Usage of the Titles for "God" Thus, as an adjective, its basic meaning would refer to might, power, strength. For the more traditional definitions of Strong's 2304, see Bible Hub's Greek 2304

In Acts 17:29, however, it is obviously referring to the quality of being the Supreme Mighty One (the Supreme Being). In context, who was Paul referring to? Was he referring to more than one person, or only one person as being God? 

Acts 17:30
The times of ignorance therefore God overlooked. But now he commands that all people everywhere should repent,

Acts 17:31
because he has appointed a day in which he will judge the world in righteousness by the man whom he has ordained; of which he has given assurance to all men, in that he has raised him from the dead.” -- World English Bible version.

Obviously, Paul was speaking of only one person as "God" who has the quality of being the Omnipotent Supreme Being, since in verses 30 and 31, "God" is presented as being one person and Jesus is presented as being "the man [person] he [God] ordained." Thus, the most logical conclusion is that Jesus is not included in THEION of Acts 17:29, but rather it is referring only to the God and Father of Jesus. -- Ephesians 1:3. -- See also our study: "The Man That God Ordained."

We should note forms of Strong's G2304 are also found in 2 Peter 1:3,4; in both instances the King James Version rendered Strong's G2304 as "divine." 

Romans 1:20

In Romans 1:20, we find the word "Godhead" is rendered from a form often transliterated as theiótēs (Strong's #2305), an abstract form of the word THEOS. This form of THEOS appears only this one time in the Bible. Applying the Hebraic usage to this term would make it mean "divinity/mightiness." There is no reason, however, to think that this is not referring to the exclusive mightiness/divinity of the same one person who is "God" in Romans 1:2,3,8,9, who is distinguished from being Jesus in these verses.

Bible Hub Greek Analysis of Romans 1:20

Bible Hub Information About Strong's Greek # 2305

Various Translations Compared

Colossians 2:9

In Colossians 2:9, we find the word "Godhead" is rendered from a form often transliterated as theótēs, another abstract form of THEOS. This form is only used this one time in the Bible, and carries the meaning of divinity, mightiness. In Colossians 2:9, it is obvious that it is being used of only one person, and that is the Son of the Most High. Paul is saying that in Jesus' present spiritual body exists the abundance/plenitude of mightiness/power that Jesus needs to be "head of all principality and power." -- Colossians 2:10.

See our Links to Studies Related to Colossians 2:9

See also our Links to Studies Related to Godhead


Tuesday, November 9, 2021

Acts 8:37 - Believe That Jesus Christ is the Son of God

Acts 8:37 - Then Philip said, "If you believe with all your heart, you may." And he answered and said, "I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God." -- New King James Version


This verse is sometimes given to support the trinity doctrine. As it appears in the King James Version and some other translations, however, we find that "God" is referring to only one person, and Jesus is spoken of as being the "Son" of that one person who is "God." We find nothing at all here (or anywhere else in the Bible) that presents the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as being more than one person. Thus, the trinitarian actually has to create some assumptions that have to be added to, and read into what is stated in order to "see" trinity in the verse. What the trinitarian does is imagine, assume, add to, and read into the scriptures that God (the Supreme Being) begets God (the Supreme Being), just as a human being begets a human being, and thus in some vague manner this is alleged to mean that Acts 8:37 presents Jesus as being the Supreme Being. Actually, when a human being begets a human being, one has two human beings, not one human Being. Thus, if such an idea is applied to God Almighty, it would mean that if God Almighty were to beget God Almighty, one would have two God Almighies. One Supreme Being who gave birth to another Supreme Being would mean that there are two Supreme Beings. The Bible, of course, never says that God Almighty is subject to the reproduction laws God placed upon his terrestrial living creation. 

Related to this, many trinitarians often present some very strong denunications of the Jehovah's Witnesses' New World Translation regarding this verse, because the whole verse is missing from the main text of the New World Translation. 


While we are not associated with the Jehovah's Witnesses, the claim is often made that New World Translation removes the verse because what is in the verse supports the trinity doctrine. One author states: "The reason this verse is so important is that it speaks to Jesus being God, something that the Jehovah’s Witnesses deny." https://closetojesus.org/2017/03/jehovahs-witnesses-what-about-acts-8-37/ This is odd, since there is clearly nothing at all in that verse (as it appears in the King James Version and many other translations) that presents Jesus as being God. As we pointed out, "God" is presented as only one person, and Jesus is presented as being the "Son" of that one person. While we cannot speak for the Jehovah's Witnesses, we do not see anything in the KJV rendering of the verse that would be in conflict with what they teach. As far as we know, they do, like us, believe that Jesus is the Son of God; this does not mean that Jesus is God of whom he is Son. 

Actually, Acts 8:37 is not missing from the New World Translation, for it does appear in a footnote, which states: "Some later Greek manuscripts and some ancient translations into other languages, with slight variations in wording, add: “Philip said to him: ‘If you believe with all your heart, it is permissible.’ In reply, he said: ‘I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.’” However, these words do not appear in the earliest and most reliable manuscripts and are most likely not part of the original text of Acts.​"

Some make it appear that it is only the New World Translation that does this, and endeavor to make it appear that it is missing from the New World Translation because it conflicts with JW doctrine. In fact, many modern translations do similar to the New World Translation in that the verse is missing from the main text, but is included in a footnote with an explanation that it is missing from the earliest manuscripts. Additionlly, many, if not most, that have the verse in the main text, also include a footnote showing that it is missing from earlier manuscripts. Again, we do not know of anything in the verse that would conflict with the JW doctrine. We know that it certainly does not conflict with our belief that Jesus is the Son of the Most High.

We quoted the verse above from the New King James Version. A footnote is given for this verse, which reads "NU-Text and M-Text omit this verse. It is found in Western texts, including the Latin tradition." Thus, although the NKJV includes in the main text, it also acknowledges that it is missing from earlier manuscripts.

Ellicott states regarding Acts 8:37:

It existed in the time of Irenæus, who quotes it (3:12), but is wanting in all the best MSS., including the Sinaitic, and many versions. The motive for the interpolation lies on the surface. The abruptness of the unanswered question, and the absence of the confession of faith which was required in the Church’s practice on the baptism of every convert, seemed likely to be stumbling-blocks, and the narrative was completed according to the received type of the prevailing order for baptism. Even with the insertion, the shortness of the confession points to a very early stage of liturgical development, as also does the reference to it in Irenæus.

Barnes states:

This verse is missing in a very large number of manuscripts (Mill), and has been rejected by many of the ablest critics. It is also omitted in the Syriac and Ethiopic versions. It is not easy to conceive why it has been omitted in almost all the Greek mss. unless it is spurious. If it was not in the original copy of the Acts, it was probably inserted by some early transcriber, and was deemed so important to the connection, to show that the eunuch was not admitted hastily to baptism, that it was afterward retained. It contains, however, an important truth, elsewhere abundantly taught in the Scriptures, that "faith" is necessary to a proper profession of religion.

The Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges states:

The whole of this verse is omitted in the oldest MSS. It probably found its way into the text of those MSS. where it does exist from the margin. Such a margin would be formulated by those who, when the Church had become more extended, and formal professions of faith were the rule before baptism, felt that there was a want of completeness in the narrative unless some such confession were supposed to have been made. Thus the margin became a kind of exposition, and in the end found acceptance in the text.

Vincent simply states:

The best texts omit this verse.

We will add that it is not for us to determine if this verse is actually spurious. It really does not matter one way or the other. 


Related Studies

God Begets God?


 


Saturday, November 6, 2021

Acts 10:34-36 - Did Peter Say Jesus is God?

 Acts 10:34 - Peter opened his mouth and said, "Truly I perceive that God doesn't show favoritism; 

Acts 10:35 - but in every nation he who fears him and works righteousness is acceptable to him. 

Acts 10:36 - The word which he sent to the children of Israel, preaching good news of peace by Jesus Christ -- he is Lord of all. -- World English

By Ronald R. Day, Sr. (This study needs to be edited)

These verses are sometimes cited as proof that Peter called Jesus "God." Actually, "God" appears only once in these verses, and it is obviously referring to only one person, that is, the God and Father of Jesus. -- Ephesians 1:30.


Evidently, however, something in these verses is being interpreted to mean that Peter called Jesus "God". Directly, Peter calls Jesus "Christ," which means that he believed Jesus to be one whom Jehovah God anointed, not that Jesus is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Rather than identifying Jesus as being the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, Peter thus identifies Jesus as being the one whom Jehovah, the God of Jesus (Micah 5:4), anointed and sent. -- Psalm 2:26; 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Ezekiel 34:23,24; John 10:29; 17:1,3; Acts 2:23,36; 4:27; 10:38; Hebrews 1:9.


Some, however, may be reading into the expression "He is Lord of all" as designating Jesus as being God Almighty. Along this line, they may cite Ephesians 4:6, where the God and Father is designated as being "over all." More than likely Peter was not actually even speaking of Jesus as being Lord of all, but rather was referring back to He who sent the word to the children of Israel. If this is the case, then Peter was referring to "God" who sent the word through Jesus as being Lord of all.


If Peter did intend to call Jesus the Lord of all, it certainly could not be used as Paul used "of all" in Ephesians 4:6, not unless one were to claim that Jesus is this God and Father. It would have to be viewed in the sense that the God and Father of Jesus has exalted Jesus, and thus made Jesus to be the Lord of all, with the evident exception of being Lord of He who exalted Jesus. Jesus would not "Lord" at all if his God, Jehovah, had not made him  both Lord and Christ (the one Lord through whom are all. -- Ezekiel 34:23,24; Isaiah 61:1,2; Acts 2:36; 1 Corinthians 8:6)


Jehovah has not just made Jesus Lord, but He has exalted Jesus to the highest position in the universe, far above all dominions, next to the only Most High. -- Acts 2:33,36; 5:31; Philippians 2:9; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; 1 Corinthians 15:27; Hebrews 1:4,6; 1 Peter 3:22.


Regardless, there is nothing in Acts 10:34-35 that states that Peter called Jesus "God." Any such thought has to be thought up beyond what is actually written, and with assumptions added and read into what is written. Since Jehovah is depicted as being the God of Jesus (Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3), and since Jesus is definitely not the "one God" through whom are all (1 Corinthians 8:6), the default reasoning is not to imagine, assume, add to, and read into the scriptures that Jesus is God Almighty, but rather that Jesus is not his God. 

John 9:35-38 - Did the Blind Man Say Jesus is God?

John 9:35 - Jesus heard that they had thrown him out, and finding him, he said, "Do you believe in the Son of God?" 

John 9:36 - He answered, "Who is he, Lord, that I may believe in him?" 

John 9:37 - Jesus said to him, "You have both seen him, and it is he who speaks with you." 

John 9:38 - He said, "Lord, I believe!" and he worshiped him. 

By Ronald R. Day, Sr. (this study needs to be edited)

The above verses are often presented with the claim that the blind man called Jesus "God".  We have found no explanation for this claim regarding these verses, but since it is obvious that the blind man did not speak of Jesus as being "God," that something this man said is being interpreted to mean that he called Jesus "God." 


What title did the blind man call Jesus by? Not "God," but "Lord." Evidently, then, what is being imagined and assumed is that is that "Lord" means "God." Let's plug that in to see what how it would read:


John 9:35 - Jesus heard that they had thrown him out, and finding him, he said, "Do you believe in the Son of God?" 

John 9:36 - He answered, "Who is he, [God}, that I may believe in him?" 

John 9:37 - Jesus said to him, "You have both seen him, and it is he who speaks with you." 

John 9:38 - He said, "{God}, I believe!" and he worshiped him. 


This idea would actually present a contradiction, in that, as recorded in verse 36, the blind man would have addressed Jesus as "God" before he knew who Jesus was. Such would actually make no sense. Why would be calling this man whom he did not know "God"?


One might claim that "Lord" in the New Testament replaces the Holy Name of God, which name is often presented in English as "Jehovah." While it is true that in many instances in the New Testament, we do find that the Holy Name has been replaced with a form of the Greek word often transliterated as KURIOS, meaning "Lord", this does not mean that every place that we find the word KURIOS, it is an instance where the Holy Name has been replaced. Definitely, this blind man did call Jesus by the name "Jehovah" as recorded in verse John 9:36, for the same reasons as already given regarding giving the word "Lord" the meaning of "God."


The Greek word "KURIOS" means: master, lord, sir. Indeed, many transltations render it as "sir" in John 9:36 and a few do so John 9:38. The failure to render it "sir" in both verses may be due to the biased idea that in John 9:38, that the blind man was in some way referring to the Jesus as God Almgighty, but that in verse 36 he was not.


John 9:36


New International Version

“Who is he, sir?” the man asked. “Tell me so that I may believe in him.”


New Living Translation

The man answered, “Who is he, sir? I want to believe in him.”


English Standard Version

He answered, “And who is he, sir, that I may believe in him?”


Berean Study Bible

“Who is He, Sir?” he replied. “Tell me so that I may believe in Him.”


New American Standard Bible

He answered by saying, “And who is He, Sir, that I may believe in Him?”


Christian Standard Bible

“Who is he, Sir, that I may believe in him? ” he asked.


Berean Literal Bible

He answered and said, "And who is He, Lord, that I may believe in Him?"


John 9:38


Weymouth New Testament

"I believe, Sir," he said. And he threw himself at His feet.


Young's Literal Translation

and he said, 'I believe, sir,' and bowed before him.


The fact is that the word "God" appears only once in John 9:35-38, and it that instance it refers to only one person, and Jesus referred to himself as being the "Son" of that one person. Paul identifies that one person as the God and Father of Jesus (Ephesians 1:6) and as the "one God" of whom are all. -- 1 Corinthians 8:6.


There is definitely nothing in John 9:36-38 that identifies Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as being more than one person, nor is there anything in these veses that identify Jesus as being the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.



The blind man does not at all say that Jesus is God.


Sunday, October 10, 2021

Job 33:4 - The Spirit of God Made Me

Job 33:4 - The Spirit [Hebrew, Ruach, transliterated) of God has made me, And the breath (Hebrew, Neshamah, transliterated) of the Almighty gives me life. 

By Ronald R. Day, Sr.

Job 33:4 is sometimes quoted as proof that the Holy Spirit is the third person of a triune God as Creator.  

While we don't think that this refers to God's Holy Spirit, if it does, we need to remember that God’s holy spirit is likened to God’s finger (as the power of God). (Matthew 12:28; Luke 11:20) As the instrument of the revealing of truth, the holy spirit is likened to God’s “mouth”. (Deuteronomy 8:3; 1 Kings 8:24; 2 Chronicles 6:4; 36:12,21; Ezra 1:1; Isaiah 1:20; 40:5; 45:23; 48:3; 58:14; 62:2; Jeremiah 9:12,20; Ezekiel 33:7; Micah 4:4; Matthew 4:4; Mark 12:36; Acts 1:17; 28:25; Hebrews 3:7; 9:8; 10:15,16; 2 Peter 1:21) Similarly, whatever is done by your finger or said by your mouth is done or said by you. That does not make you finger all of who or what you are are, nor does that make your mouth all of who or what you are. Likewise, with God's spirit, whatever God's spirit does is what God Himself has done, said, etc.

In Job 33:4, Elihu uses two different words to describe spirit: one is the word often transliterated as ruach (Strongs #7307) and the other is often transliterated as "neshamah" (Strong's #5397).

https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/hebrew/hwview.cgi?n=7307

https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/hebrew/hwview.cgi?n=5397

Albert Barnes states:

There is an evident allusion in this verse to the mode in which man was created, when God breathed into him the breath of life and he became a living being; Genesis 2:7. But it is not quite clear why Elihu adverts here to the fact that God had made him, or what is the bearing of this fact on what he proposed to say. The most probable supposition is, that he means to state that he is, like Job, a man; that both were formed in the same way - from the same breathing of the Almighty, and from the same clay Job 33:6; and that although he had undertaken to speak to Job in God's stead Job 33:6, yet Job had no occasion to fear that he would be overawed and confounded by the Divine Majesty.
Notes on the Bible by Albert Barnes [1834]
https://biblehub.com/commentaries/barnes/job/33.htm

We should note that the word "spirit" does not always necessarily means God's Holy Spirit. It is unclear as to whether the words "ruach" and "neshamah" in Job 33:4 are meant to refer to what often spoken of as God's Holy Spirit. It appears to be an allusion to Genesis 2:7, where we read that Jehovah blew into the nostrils of the man the breath of life, and the man became a living soul. It is referring to the power from God that gives us life, making such living souls.

The Hebrew word neshamah is used in the sense of force or power, especially as the force from God, can be seen from its usage in the following scriptures: 2 Samuel 22:14-16; Job 4:9; 37:10; Isaiah 30:33. This word (neshamah – Strong’s #5397) is often used in connection with and interchangeably with the Hebrew word ruach (spirit – Strong’s 7307): Genesis 6:3,17; 7:15;22; Job 27:3-5; 34:14,15; Isaiah 42:5. Nehamah is the word rendered as "breath" in Genesis 2:7, depicting the life force from God as giving life to the first man Adam. It is this life force from God that keeps all of us alive. The removal of this life force results in a dead soul; a soul that is no longer sentient. It is this life-force, represented in the Hebrew words neshamah and ruach, that returns to God who gave it, when the nephesh no longer lives, both for animals and humans. — Genesis 7:22; Deuteronomy 20:16; Joshua 10:40; 11:11,14; 1 Kings 15:29; 17:17; Job 34:14,15; Psalm 104:29; 146:3,4; Ecclesiastes 3:18-22; 12:7.

Elihu, by his words recorded in Job 33:4, is likewise using ruach and neshamah as synonyms. There is no indication that he is saying that the neshamah of God **is** the Almighty, but he is referring to the Neshamah as that belonging to the Almighty, who corresponds with Jehovah, the God of Jesus. -- Genesis 17:1; Micah 5:4.

Nevertheless, being that of God, the neshamah of God could be considered an extension of God, even as my finger or mouth are extensions of me.



Nothing in Job 33:4, however, describes "God" as being more than one person, or that His Holy Spirit is one of three persons, all of whom are supposed to be the Supreme Being.










Sunday, October 3, 2021

Who is the Creator?

We present below a list of scriptures that have been presented to us in support of the trinity doctrine regarding the Creator.

Who is the creator?
The Father (Gen 1:1; Is 44:24; Acts 17:24; Eph 3:9);
Jesus (Jn 1:3; Col 1:16; Heb 1:8, 10);
The Holy Spirit (Job 33:4).

We have no doubt that  the "one God" of whom are all (1 Corinthians 8:6) is also the only source of creation. John 1:3,10; Colossians 1:16 and Ephesians 3:9 show that Jesus is the instrument in creation. Hebrews 1:8,10 should likewise be viewed as Jesus being the instrument of the one person who is God in Hebrews 1:1,9.

God, of course, also makes use of his Holy Spirit -- his figurative finger -- in creation.

There is nothing in any of the scriptures, however, that presents Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15), as being more than one person, or that says that Jesus and God's Holy Spirit are both persons of Jehovah.

We hope to return here to discuss individually each scripture given in more detail. 

One can find links to some of our examinations of these scriptures as given below:

Links to studies related to Genesis 1:1

Links to studies related to Isaiah 44:24

Links to studies related to Ephesians 3:9

Links to studies related to Hebrews 1:8-10

Regarding Job 33:4, see our study:
The Spirit of God Made Me





Who Indwells Believers?

Some often present the following as proof that God is three persons:

Who Indwells Believers?
The Father (1 Cor 3:16a; 2 Cor 6:16; 1 Jn 3:24);
Jesus (Jn 6:56; Rom 8:10; Eph 3:17);
The Holy Spirit (Jn 14:16-17; Rom 8:9, 11; 1 Cor 3:16b).

Some add:

The Bible even describes this in terms of different combinations: Father and Son (Jn 14:23); Father and Holy Spirit (Eph 2:21-22; 1 Jn 3:24); Son and Holy Spirit (Gal 4:6).

The fact remains that in none of the scriptures presented do we find the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jaocb presented as three persons.  There is definitely nothing in the fact that the scriptures record the God and Father of Jesus (Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3) dwells or resides in the believer and that his Son dwells or resides in the believer and that Holy Spirit of God also dwells or resides in the believer that gives us any reason to imagine, assume, add to, and read into the scriptures that Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is more than one person, and/or that Jehovah is three persons, etc.

We hope to return here to examine each scripture individually as related to other scriptures not given above.


Thursday, September 30, 2021

John 14:44,45 - Whoever Believes in Me

John 12:44 - Jesus cried out and said, "Whoever believes in me, believes not in me, but in him who sent me.
John 12:45 - He who sees me sees him who sent me. 

Some quote the above as proof that Jesus claimed to be Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. (Exodus 3:14,15) So far, however, we have seen no explanation as to why this scripture should be thought that Jesus was saying that he is God. In some unknown manner, however, many seem to think that since Jesus stated that if one believes in him that such would mean that Jesus was saying that he is God who sent Jesus and that if one sees Jesus, that he was saying that he was God who had sent him

Actually, Jesus presents God as being only one person, and distinguishes himself from being God by saying that God had sent him. Prophetically, Jesus is quoted as saying that it was "the Lord Jehovah" who sent him, and he includes himself in referring to the Lord Jehovah as "our God." (Isaiah 61:1,2) Micah 5:2 identifies the one person who is Jesus' God as Jehovah. Since Jehovah is the God of Jesus, the default reasoning should be that Jesus is not Jehovah. 

Jesus gave the credit of faith in himself to his God and Father. (Ephesians 1:3) He did this because he came to declare his God and to represent his Father rather than himself. (John 1:18; 17:4,6)

In stating that by seeing him one could see God in him, however, Jesus was certainly not saying that by seeing his body of flesh with physical eyes that one was seeing the body of God who sent him. Those who simply looked upon Jesus' body of flesh with their physical eyes were not seeing the God and Father of Jesus. The Jewish leaders saw Jesus' body, but Jesus, speaking of his Father, said to those Jewish leaders: "Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape." (John 5:37) Thus, by simply seeing his body those Jews were not seeing God in Jesus.

Jesus was therefore evidently speaking of seeing figuratively, with the eyes of faith. He was to those who did recognize him and understood him to be the Son of the Most High. (John 1:10-12) Only these could see the glory of Jesus' God in Jesus.

Jesus never failed short of the glory of his God as other men. He kept his human crown of glory unblemished with sin. (Psalm 8:5; Romans 3:23; 1 Corinthians 15:40; Hebrews 2:9; 4:15) Thus by seeing Jesus one could certainly see the glory of the God and Father of Jesus in Jesus.

Some related studies:

Seeing the Father in Jesus
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/2017/03/john14-7.html

Hath Seen the Father
https://reslight.boards.net/post/1992/thread


Saturday, September 11, 2021

John 10:28 - No One Can Snatch the Sheep From the Hand of Jesus

Isaiah 43:13 - Yea, since the day was I am he; and there is none that can deliver out of my hand: I will work, and who can hinder it? -- American Standard Version.

John 10:28 - and I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, and no one shall snatch them out of my hand.  -- American Standard Version.

These two verses are sometimes put together and offered as proof that Jesus is Jehovah. Evidently, since it is Jehovah, the God of Jesus (Micah 5:4), who is speaking in Isaiah 43:13, what is being imagined and assumed is that Jesus, by his words recorded in John 10:28, was declaring himself to be Jehovah of Isaiah 43:13. 

Such evidently overlook the fact that it is the God of Jesus who has given the sheep to Jesus, and it is the God and Father of Jesus (Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3) who has given to Jesus the authority to judge and thus to give life. (Ezekiel 34:2-24; John 5:19,21-23,27-29; 10:11-17,29) Thus, in verse 29, Jesus, in effect, acknowledges that no one can snatch the sheep from his hand, because of his God and Father, who is greater than all. "My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all. No one is able to snatch them out of my Father's hand." Who is the Father of Jesus except He who is the God of Jesus? -- Micah 5:4; Ephesians 5:4.

One can find many scriptures in the Old Testament where Jehovah speaks of himself as doing this or that, and yet the actual fulfillment is performed by others than Jehovah. For instance, Jehovah appeared to Moses and said: "I have come down to deliver them  [the children of Israel] out of the hand of the Egyptians, and to bring them up out of that land. (Exodus 3:8) And a few verses later, Jehovah spoke to Moses: "I will send you to Pharaoh, that you may bring forth my people, the children of Israel, out of Egypt." (Exodus 3:10) Did Moses become Jehovah because of this?

See also the study:
"The One Shepherd"
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/2016/11/good-shepherd.html

Wednesday, September 8, 2021

Revelation 1 and Daniel 7:9-14 -- All About Jesus?

By Ronald R. Day, Sr.
(Needs to be edited)


One has claimed that everything in Revelation 1 is about Jesus.  While we are not sure what is meant by the statement, we do know that the comment was made evidently to defend the trinitarian -- or perhaps the oneness -- philosophy. However, we present our responses below:

In Revelation 1:1,2 John speaks of (1) God - Jehovah (2) Jesus and (3) himself (4) the angel and (5) the servants of Jesus.

In Revelation 1:4,5 John tells who he is writing to and whose message he is writing: the letter is two the seven churches, from (1) He who is, was and is to come, and (2) the seven spirits and (3) Jesus, who is the firstborn of the dead, the ruler of the kings of the earth. He who is, was and is to come is not Jesus, but the one person who is "God" in Revelation 1:1.

In Revelation 1:6 John speaks of (1)Jesus who has made his followers to a kingdom of priests and (2) the God of Jesus.

In Revelation 1:7 John speaks of (1) the time when Jesus comes in the figurative clouds, speaking of a time after the last day has begun, and when (2) all, including those who pierced him, will have been raised from the dead.

In Revelation 1:8 John quotes Jehovah God, He who is, was and is to come, of verse 4.

In Revelation 1:9,10 John speaks of (1) himself, and (2) the servants of Jesus in the seven churches, and (3) of "God" in the phrase "word of God." He goes on to speak of a voice he hears behind him.

In Revelation 1:11,12 John relates what the voice is speaking to him, instructing him to write what he sees in a book that was to be sent to seven churches. John turns to see the voice and sees seven golden lampstands.

In Revelation 1:13-16, John describes who he sees in the midst or middle of the lampstands.

In Revelation 1:17-18, the one whom John sees speaks, saying, "Don't be afraid. I am the first and last, the Living one. I was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore. I have the keys of Death and Hades." (World English) Thus, he who saw in these verses was not God, who does not die, but rather Jesus, who is the first and the last of the "firstborn of the dead." -- verse 5.

John sees He who is, was and is to come, the One sitting on the throne, and he also sees the slain lamb, who takes the book from the right hand of He who is, was and is to come, who is sitting on the throne. (Revelation 1:4,8; 4:2,8,9,10; 5:1,6,7) Throughout the Revelation, He who is, was and is to come, the One sitting on the throne, is not Jesus, but Jesus is represented as the slain lamb who is worthy to take the book from Him who sat on the throne.

Regarding the above, the statement was made regarding verse 13 that the one like the son of man is Jesus, and cross referenced to Daniel 7:13

Our reply:

Revelation 1:13 - And in the midst of the lampstands was one like a son of a man, clothed with a robe reaching down to his feet, and with a golden sash around his chest.

Yes, this one is Jesus. In the Greek, the expression, like a son of a man, is not the same as the definite designation that Jesus usually gave to himself. More correctly, Jesus usually referred to himself as "Son of the Man," which is obviously a Messianic title referring to the promised son of the man, David. In Revelation 1:23, the Greek for man in "a son of man" is indefinite: a son of a man. This is not saying, as some claim, that Jesus is still with the terrestial, earthly bodily glory of flesh (1 Corinthians 15:39-41). Rather Jesus appears to John in the 'likeness' of a son of a man. 

Daniel 7:13 - I saw in the night-visions, and, behold, there came with the clouds of the sky one like a son of man, and he came even to the ancient of days, and they brought him near before him.

In Daniel 7, Jesus is likewise depicted as "one like a son of man." Jesus was brought before He who is the "Ancient of Days," and therefore, Jesus is not depicted as being the "Ancient of Days," as many have claimed. Jesus as the "one like a son of a man" in Daniel 7:13 does correspond to Revelation 1:13; 14:14.

Revelation 1:13 - And in the midst of the lampstands was one like a son of man, clothed with a robe reaching down to his feet, and with a golden sash around his chest.
Revelation 14:14 - I looked, and behold, a white cloud; and on the cloud one sitting like a son of man, having on his head a golden crown, and in his hand a sharp sickle. -- World English.

In both of these scriptures, as well as Daniel 7:13, Jesus is not presented as the "Son of the Man," that is, the son of the man, David (Matthew 1:1; 9:6,27; 10:23; 11:19; 12:8,23,32,40; 13:37,41; 16:13,27,28; 17:9,12,22; 18:11; 19:28; 20:18; 22:42; 24:27,30,37,39,44; 25:13,31; 26:2,24; 26:45; Luke 1:32,69; 3:31; John 7:42; Acts 13:34; Romans 1:3; 2 Timothy 2:8; Revelation 3:7; 22:16), but as being "like" a son of a man. He is not actually a human being, but he appears "like" a human.

But the real point is that he who is like a son of a man is brought before He who is "Ancient of Days." In some vague manner, some seem to confuse the one "like a son of a man" with the Ancient of Days. Jesus, being the one brought before the Ancient of Days, is not the Ancient of Days before whom he brought.

The Ancient of Days corresponds to He who is on the throne, He who is, was and is to come, of Revelation 1:4,8; 4:8-10; 5:1,7; 6:16; 7:10,15; 19:4; 21:5.

He who is like a son of a man in Daniel 7:13 corresponds to the figurative "lamb" of Revelation 5:6,8,12,13; 6:1,16; 7:9,10,14,17 and he who is like a son of a man in Revelation 1:13; 14:14. In Daniel 7:13, the one like a son of man is brought before the Ancient of Days; in Revelation 5:7, the lamb is pictured as coming before He who is the throne, and takes the book out of the right hand of him who is on the throne. Jesus, therefore is not being pictured in Daniel 7 as the Ancient of Days, but as the one who is brought before the Ancient of Days.

See also our study on the Ancient of Days.

Nevertheless, our trinitarian friend still insisted that Jesus is the Ancient of Days in Daniel 7.

Daniel 7:9 I saw until thrones were placed, and one who was ancient of days sat: his clothing was white as snow, and the hair of his head like pure wool; his throne was fiery flames, [and] the wheels of it burning fire. 

This does not describe Jesus, but rather Jehovah, who is the Ancient of Days. Most scholars who believe in the trinity show Ancient of Days to be the Father, not the Son, although they present Jesus as being the eternal God. Jesus is identified later, not as the Ancient of Days, but as the one who was brought to the Ancient of Days. -- Daniel 7:13.

The time period is in after Satan is abyssed. (Revelation 20:3). The Ancient of Days (Jehovah) sits on the throne, and thrones are placed, corresponding to Revelation 20:4. The Ancient of Days (Jehovah) does not judge directly, since the God and Father of Jesus has "given all judgment to the Son." (John 5:22) Not only to the Son is the judgment given, but Paul notes in question form: "Do you not know that the saints (consecrated ones) will judge the world?" (1 Corinthians 6:2) That Daniel 7:22 reiterates that the "judgment was given to the saints of the Most High" and in Revelation 20:4 we read that "judgment was given to" those who were sitting thrones as John saw them.  

Daniel 7:13 I saw in the night-visions, and, behold, there came with the clouds of the sky one like a son of a man, and he came even to the ancient of days, and they brought him near before him.
Daniel 7:14 There was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all the peoples, nations, and languages should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed.

It is the Ancient of Days -- the God and Father of Jesus -- who has made Jesus both Lord and Christ (Ezekiel 34:23,24; Isaiah 61:1,2; Acts 2:36), and has exalted him to the highest position in the universe, far above the angels, next to the only Most High.-- Acts 2:33,36; 5:31; Philippians 2:9; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; 1 Corinthians 15:27; Hebrews 1:4,6; 1 Peter 3:22.

The One who gives this dominion is therefore Jehovah, the Ancient of Days. The dominion is given to Jesus, the one who appears in the likeness of a son of a man. Thus, the one in likeness of a son of a man in Daniel corresponds to the one depicted figuratively a slain lamb in Revelation 5:6,7. The Ancient of Days corresponds to He who is sitting on the throne, He who is, was and is to come. -- Revelation 4:8;  5:1,7.

What we do not find in any of these verses is that Jehovah, the Ancient of Days, is more than one person, or that He is three persons, or that Jesus is a person of Jehovah, etc.

One claims that since Jesus is depicted in Revelation 1:14 with head and hair like white wool, that this means that Jesus is the Ancient of Days spoken of in Daniel 7:9? Actually, we don't have any reason to think so.

Isaiah 1:18 - Come now, and let us reason together, saith Jehovah: though your sins be as scarlet, they shall be as white as snow; though they be red like crimson, they shall be as wool. -- American Standard Version.

Jehovah here speaks to Isaiah, and he likens justification from sin as being made "white as snow", as wool. "White" is a symbol of righteousness, justified, straight, not crooked.

Daniel 7:9-10 - I beheld till thrones were placed, and one that was ancient of days did sit: his raiment was white as snow, and the hair of his head like pure wool; his throne was fiery flames, [and] the wheels thereof burning fire.[10] A fiery stream issued and came forth from before him: thousands of thousands ministered unto him, and ten thousand times ten thousand stood before him: the judgment was set, and the books were opened.

This speaks of Jehovah as the Ancient of Days, not Jesus.

Revelation 1:14-15 - And his head and his hair were white as white wool, [white] as snow; and his eyes were as a flame of fire; [15] and his feet like unto burnished brass, as if it had been refined in a furnace; and his voice as the voice of many waters.

This speaks of Jesus.

Both Jehovah and Jesus are righteous; thus Jehovah is depicted as wearing white raiment in Daniel's vision, while Jesus is depicted as having a white head and hair in John's vision.

The descriptions have similarities although not exactly the same. Do the similarities mean that we must create a lot of trinitarian assumptions beyond what is written, and then add those assumptions to, and read those assumptions into what is written? We certainly do not think so. The Bible is fully at harmony with itself without adding all the trinitarian assumptions to and reading those assumptions into the Bible.

We were told that we should also note Daniel 10:5,6.

Daniel 10:5-6 - I lifted up my eyes, and looked, and, behold, a man clothed in linen, whose loins were girded with pure gold of Uphaz: [6] his body also was like the beryl, and his face as the appearance of lightning, and his eyes as flaming torches, and his arms and his feet like burnished brass, and the voice of his words like the voice of a multitude.

The person Daniel sees here is described as "a man." Obviously, it was not actually a man, but it was an angel. If this is the same one spoken of in Chapter 9, this angel is Gabriel. 

The white linen symbolizes purity and righteousness. His “loins [from the waist down to the knees] were girded with fine gold of Uphaz.” Hence the linen garment was a robe, an outer garment, so that if this person moved and his legs were exposed, gold was seen.

In regard to “Uphaz,” Isaiah 13:12 reads, “I will make a man[‘s life] more precious than fine gold; ... than the golden wedge of Ophir.” The Chaldaic Uphaz is another form of the Aramaic word Ophir. This particular fine gold came from a portion of Turkey and must have been a glazed, shiny gold to make it very striking in appearance.

“His body also was like the beryl” means the appearance of his skin was like beryl, and the word “beryl” is usually chrysolite, which is gold in color. This was a glorified being in the sense that the angel was a messenger from beyond our world, with human appearance and attired in a white linen robe and gold-colored clothing similar to his skin. When Daniel looked at the skin of this being, it was like chrysolite, “chryso” being “gold” and “lithos” being “stone.” Thus chrysolite is a golden stone and also a symbol of wisdom.

“His face [was] as the appearance of lightning.” The Greek astrape in the New Testament, sometimes translated “lightning,” means “bright shining.” The word translated “lightning” here in Daniel 10:6 is the Hebrew equivalent. While it can be applied to "lightning", such is not inherent in the word itself. The angel's face shone forth with a bright light. In other words, although the being's appearance had the body of a human, Daniel knew he was no ordinary person.

“And his eyes as lamps of fire.” The eyes were more electric; similarly, in Revelation 1:14, Jesus is spoken of as having a penetrating gaze (“eyes as a flame of fire”); that is, Jesus can see through any sham, hypocrisy, or mere formalism.

“His arms and his feet like in colour to polished brass.” Brass, chrysolite, and lamps of fire, as well as the clothing, produced a basic coloration of white and gold. “Polished brass” has a high shine that is retained for a long time, especially if lacquered.

“The voice of his words like the voice of a multitude [many people].” By this Daniel would know this was a superhuman being who possessed power and intelligence and would be a source of true information.

This being was not the Almighty Jehovah, nor do we have any reason to think the "man" was Jesus.

It is claimed that in Revelation 1 the Father and Son are presented as "one person."

While John did, in the book of Revelation, see both Jesus (the slain lamb) and the "one God" (1 Corinthians 8:6), who is, was and is to come, depicted, and while Jesus and his God are in unity which could be likened to that of one person (trinitarians usually do not say that Father and Son are both one person, but rather one being, essence, etc.), we have no scriptural reason to believe they are actually one person, any more than the oneness of the Father, the Son, and the church, means that they are all actually one person or one being. -- John 10:30; 17:11,21-22.

It was claimed Jesus prayed for to this oneness or unity to happen again in the garden of Gethsemane before he was taken captive in the book of John. I am not sure what the above is meant to say. It appears to be a reference to John 17. It would seem to be saying that Jesus was not one with his Father while he was saying the prayer, but that he was praying that he might again be one with his Father. Jesus did say earlier that he and his God and Father are one. (John 10:30) Later in the prayer of John 17, Jesus prayed that his followers have this same oneness with him and his Father. (John 17:11,21-23) In verse 3, Jesus prayed for a glory that he had before the world of mankind had been made through him. (John 1:10) While he was in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), Jesus did not have that glory, but he did have the sinless glory that is a little lower than the angels. (Hebrews 2:9) Paul describes that glory as being of the fleshly substance, terrestrial, earthly, of dust, etc., in contrast with the spiritual substance that is the glory of the celestial, heavenly. (1 Corinthians 15:35-40) Jesus, in John 17:5, was praying to again have the celestial bodily glory which he did not have at the time of the prayer.

One of our related studies:
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/2016/10/john10-30.html


Start:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Oi300_FvFz0&lc=UgyYOCI0cmwNpGGijsF4AaABAg.8qHJofsYBY28sdBiRpdTql

Saturday, July 31, 2021

John 14:28 – The Father Is Greater Than I

By Ronald R. Day, Sr. (ResLight; RLBible)

(This study needs to edited) 



The claim is being made that Jesus' words in John 14:28 means:


The Father is “greater” than the incarnate Christ in terms of position because Christ’s humanity is a creation, though in His divinity He is equal to the Father…. This verse is a clear reference to the Hypostatic Union of Christ.


As is often the case with trinitarians, it is simply assumed that acceptance of the trinity dogma should considered the default reasoning,  and that it is up to others to disprove that which being promoted as the default position. Of course, there is nothing directly in the scriptures where the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob bluntly states: I am not more than one person. Why should there be? In reality, the default assumption is that Yahweh is only person, not that he is more than one person. Indeed, throughout the Bible, in what God has revealed of Himself by means of His Holy Spirit, we find that Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, is always presented as one person, and never once presented as more than one person. Additionally, we find that he God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is identified as one person who is the God and Father of Jesus. (Acts 3:13-26; Ephesians 1:3; Hebrews 1:1,2; 1 Peter 1:3) Thus, the default reasoning should be that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is one person, not that He is three persons. Nor do we find any reason within the Bible for adding to what God has revealed through the prophets and the apostles that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is three persons.  (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Acts 3:13-26; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:1,2,9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.


The truth is, since the Bible no where identifies Jesus as the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and since the Bible no where says one word about there being more than one person in the only true God, we have no reason to imagine and assume that what is being suggested above, that the idea of a hypostatic union in which Jesus has two alleged natures at once, that is, that he is both fully man, a little lower than the angels, and at the same time that he is fully God, the Supreme Being over all. Thus, the imaginations and assumptions that are being placed upon Jesus’ words so as to make them appear to support the added-on trinitarian dogma is not the basis we should accept for such belief.


One of the odd things about this is that the following words of Jesus as recorded in John 14:29 are often referred as proof that Jesus is the only true God. Those who do such, in effect, would separate Jesus’ statement in John 14:28 from his following statement in John 14:29 so as to make it appear that his first statement is not his alleged God being speaking, while the second statement is the God Jesus speaking. And such an application of Jesus’ words would have to applied, not only throughout the Gospels, but also in the Revelation, as well as many of the Old Testament prophets and all of the books of the Bible. If one analyzes the implications of such applications, it would become obvious that, in many cases, it would result in self-contradictions.


In John 14:1 Jesus is recorded as stating: ““Don’t let your heart be troubled. Believe in God. Believe also in me.” In this verse, is “God” three persons, or one person? Is Jesus saying to his disciples, you believe in the three persons of the “trinity”; believe also in me”? Obviously, Jesus is using the word “God” here as referring to only one person.


In John 14:9, however, rather than claiming that Jesus is speaking as a man, many trinitarians claim that Jesus spoke as God. We are pointing this out only to show how the trinitarians will go back and forth in applying and forcing their “hypostatic union” assumption upon the scripture, applying words that they would like use to prove that he is the Most High as allegedly being the God Jesus speaking, while words that would show that he is not the Most High as meaning that it was the man Jesus.  In reality, it was the man Jesus who spoke all of these words attributed to Jesus in John 14, since Jesus was indeed in the days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7) while he spoke these words.


Click Here regarding Hebrews 2:9. Hebrews 2:9 applies to Jesus throughout all the time describe in Hebrews 5:7 as the days of his flesh. Thus everything that Jesus said during the days of his flesh was the man Jesus Christ speaking, that man who gave himself as ransom for all, who was put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit. — 1 Timothy 2:5,6; 1 Peter 3:18.

Revelation 1:8 – The Lord God, Who Was, Is, And Is To Come (Video Script)

(The text below was copied from the old site that no longer exists, without editing. This still needs to be edited. Links may not work.) 


Revelation 1:7

Behold, he is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, including those who pierced him. All the tribes of the earth will mourn over him. Even so, Amen.


Revelation 1:8

“I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord God, “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.” — World English Bible Version.


Should we assume that the “the Lord God” “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty” in Revelation 1:8 is Jesus?


The most simple and straightforward scriptural conclusion is that in Revelation 1:8, “the Lord God” “who is and was and who is to come” is not Jesus, but rather the unipersonal “God” of Revelation 1:1,4.


However, many trinitarians and some others do not accept the simple and straightforward conclusion, but would imagine and assume  that in Revelation 1:8 Jesus himself claimed to be the Almighty.


The phrase “is to come” is often taken out of context of what is said in verse 8 and associated with the word “coming” in Revelation 7, thus giving the inference that both are speaking of the same “coming”.


It is often further claimed that since in verse 7 it is Jesus who is being referred to as “coming”, that it is Jesus who is being quoted in verse 8 who states that he “is to come”..


Yes, the words in Revelation 1:7 are indeed the words of Jesus.


Nevertheless, in Revelation 1:8, John begins to quote the God and Father of Jesus (Ephesians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 3:5,12): “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord God, “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.” — World English.


All through the Revelation given to John, Jesus is distinguished from “God”.


All through the Revelation, Jesus is distinguished from ‘he who is, was and is to come’.


Revelation 1:1

This is the Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things which must happen soon, which he sent and made known by his angel to his servant, John. — World English Bible version.


We find that, in Revelation 1:1, “God” is clearly distinguished from “Jesus Christ”, as it should be.


It is “God” who gives the revelation to “Jesus Christ”. “Jesus Christ”, in turn gives the revelation to his servants by means of John. — Revelation 1:1.


Revelation 1:1 speaks of Jesus with the title “Christ”, that is: “Jesus Christ”. “Christ” means “Anointed”.


Who anointed Jesus?


Isaiah 61: 1 – The Spirit of the Lord Yahweh is on me; because Yahweh has anointed me to preach good news to the humble; he has sent me to bind up the broken-hearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening [of the prison] to those who are bound. — World English.


The Messiah is prophetically quoted as saying: “Yahweh has anointed me.” — Isaiah 61:1, World English.


Thus, the Anointed One — the Christ — recognizes “Yahweh” (Jehovah) as the one who anointed him.


In the words recorded as Luke 4:14-23, Jesus identified himself as the one whom Yahweh anointed as spoken of in Isaiah 61:1.


This means that “God” in Psalm 45:7; Acts 2:36; 10:38; and Hebrews 1:9 is “Yahweh”.


It also means that the unipersonal “God” of Revelation 1:1,2,4,6,8,9 is not Jesus, but the “Lord Yahweh” of Isaiah 61:1 who anointed Jesus, thus making him “Jesus Christ” of Revelation 1:1.


Also in Isaiah 61:1, note that the Messiah refers to his God as “the Lord Yahweh” and in verse two as "our God."


Since we have identified “God’ who anointed Jesus as as Christ (Revelation 1:1) as being “the Lord Yahweh”, this further means that in Revelation 1:8, it is this same one — “the Lord Yahweh” of Isaiah 61:1, who is referred to in the World English and many other translations as the “the Lord God”.


Thus, “the Lord God” of Revelation 1:8 in the World English Bible version is the Lord Yahweh of Isaiah 61:1, and is not Jesus, but rather the one who anointed Jesus, making him “Jesus Christ” as shown in Revelation 1:1.


Revelation 1:4

John, to the seven assemblies that are in Asia: Grace to you and peace, from God, who is and who was and who is to come; and from the seven Spirits who are before his throne;

Revelation 1:5

and from Jesus Christ, the faithful witness, the firstborn of the dead, and the ruler of the kings of the earth. To him who loves us, and washed us from our sins by his blood;

Revelation 1:6

and he made us to be a kingdom, priests to his God and Father; to him be the glory and the dominion forever and ever. Amen. — World English Bible version.


Revelation 1:4,5 clearly distinguishes Jesus from he ‘who is, was and is to come’. It is the unipersonal “God” of Revelation 1:1 who is identified in Revelation 1:4 as being “who is and who was and who is to come.”


Thus, in Revelation 1:8, “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.” is not Jesus, but rather the God of Jesus, “God” who has given the revelation to Jesus. — Revelation 1:1.


Nor does “is to come” in Revelation 1:8 refer to the same thing as the “coming” in Revelation 1:7.


As far as we know, no one claims that when the Almighty says “who was”, that this means that He was coming from somewhere or that he was going to somewhere in the past.


Likewise, we know of no one who claims that when He says “who is”, that this means He is presently going somewhere or coming from somewhere.


In other words, the Almighty was not saying that he was coming from or to somewhere in the past, or that he is coming from or to somewhere in the present, and thus, He was likewise not saying that he will be coming from or coming to somewhere in the future.


Consequently, most Greek Bible scholars conclude that Revelation 1:8 speaks of God’s being, his eternal existence, past, present and future, even if they believe that this verse is in reference to Jesus.


Nevertheless, the context (Revelation 1:1,4) tells us that, in Revelation 1:8, it is the Almighty Yahweh, the God and Father of Jesus who is speaking as the one who was, is and is to come.


Accordingly, the conclusion is that Jesus is not the one who was, is, and is to come in Revelation 1:8.


The peculiar phrase in Revelation 1:8 only belongs to Yahweh, not to Jesus.


Yahweh has existed from all eternity past, he exists now, and he exists for all time to come. This is basically what Yahweh is saying in Revelation 1:8.


“Is to come” simply extends the thought of God’s existence into the infinite future, just as “who was” is speaking of God’s past, and “is” is speaking his being in the present. Thus, it is all inclusive of past, present and future.


The summation is that the most direct scriptural conclusion is that “the Lord God, ‘who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty’” in Revelation 1:8 is “God” of Revelation 1:1,4, not Jesus, as has been demonstrated.


For further study, see:


Alpha and Omega, the First and the Last

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=325


Revelation 1:4 – Who Is, Was, To Come – Jesus?

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=1097


Revelation 1:8 – The God of Jesus Speaks

http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/09/18/ao-01/


Revelation 1:1,8 and the Unipersonal God

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=1393


Revelation 1:8 – Is Yahweh or Jesus Being Quoted?

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=66


Revelation 1:17,18; 2:8 – The First and the Last

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=911


Revelation 21:6 – God Who Sits on the Throne

http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/09/18/ao-2/


Revelation 22:13 – I am Alpha and Omega

http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/09/18/ao-03/


The video of the above is online at:

http://youtu.be/R8qRpSXDXbk


By Ronald R. Day, Sr. (ResLight, RLBible)

Friday, July 30, 2021

Spirit and Greek Gender

Many note that certain translations refer to the Holy Spirit as “he”, “him”, “his”, etc., and present such scriptures as an argument that the Holy Spirit is a male person. Some even have made the erroneous claim that the Textus Receptus never refers to the Holy Spirit as an “it”, or that the Greek New Testament always refers to the Holy Spirit with masculine pronouns. Actually, the Textus Receptus does indeed refer to the Holy Spirit with neuter pronouns, not masculine pronouns, as is also true of all the known New Testament Greek manuscripts that are usually used for translation.

The only exception I know of is when the holy spirit is being associated with being the Comforter, as in John 15:25. Since the Greek word for “Comforter” is masculine, masculine pronouns are used to agree with this. This is often called “gender agreement”, but such agreement in Koine Greek does not necessarily mean that what is being spoken of is actually being designated as a “he” or “she” or “it”. The same is true of Biblical Hebrew, and is also true of many other languages.

The Koine Greek word for “spirit” is neuter in form, and thus it usually takes neuter forms of pronouns. Many translations, however, based the preconception that God's Holy Spirit is a person, add masculine personal pronouns to many scriptures referring to the Holy Spirit.

The Biblical Hebrew word for spirit is feminine, and thus usually takes feminine forms of pronouns. Biblical Hebrew does not have a neuter gender. God's Holy Spirit, however, is definitely not a female, although I have come across some who have made such a claim.

The point is, however, that if translators view the Holy Spirit as being a person, they may supply the words “he”, “his”, “him”, etc., even though the Greek form is neuter, and thus, strictly speaking should be “it”. The usage of translations that supply masculine pronouns for the Holy Spirit as proof that God’s Holy Spirit is a person, however, would actually be “circular reasoning”, for it would be saying, in effect, that since we believe that the Holy Spirit is a person, we have supplied masculine pronouns related the Holy Spirit, and thus, because we have supplied these masculine pronouns, these masculine pronouns prove that the Holy Spirit is a person. Such is actually a form of fallacious reasoning.

The King James Version uses the neuter pronoun “it” of “the Spirit” four times. — John 1:32; Romans 8:16, 26; 1 Peter 1:11.

In reality, since both Hebrew and Greek most often uses gender in a different manner than such is used in English, the usage of either masculine and/or neuter pronouns in Koine Greek as well as Biblical Greek cannot be used to determine whether the Holy Spirit is a male person or an “it”. Likewise, in Biblical Hebrew the usage of feminine pronouns certainly does not designate the Holy Spirit as being a female person.

By Ronald R. Day, Sr. (ResLight, RLBible)

Written By Others
(I do not necessarily agree with all conclusions given)

Gender of the Holy Spirit (Wikipedia)

Pronouns, Subjects, Objects and Owners



Wednesday, July 28, 2021

John 14:24 - Did Jesus Disclaim Being the Word of God?

By Ronald R. Day

John 14:24 - He who doesn't love me doesn't keep my words. The word which you hear isn't mine, but the Father's who sent me. 

It has been claimed that Jesus, by his words recorded in John 14:24, was denying that he is the Logos of John 1:1-15, and evidently also of Revelation 19:13.

John 1:14,15,29,30 definitely shows that the Logos spoken in John 1:1 is the Son of God, Jesus. Denying that the Logos became flesh, or that when the Logos became flesh he ceased being the Logos does not actually fit what is stated.

The name "Logos of God" -- applied to Jesus -- signifies one who speaks, who delivers, the words of God. Of course, Jesus is not literally "the Word." Revelation 19:13 shows that this is a titular name. A comparison can be made in that Jesus also refers to himself as "the truth". (John 14:6) Does this mean that Jesus is literally "the truth"? Obviously, Jesus is referring to himself as the embodiment of truth related to his God and Father, Jehovah. (Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3) Jesus reflects the glory of his God perfectly, and he came to declare the truth about His God. (John 1:18; 1 John 5:20) Thus, in the same manner, Jesus is the embodiment of Word of His God, for he represents his God and speaks the words of his God, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. (Exodus 3:13,14; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Isaiah 61:1; John 3:34; 5:19; 6:29; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,42; 10:36; 12:44-50; 14:10,24; 17:1,3,8; Acts 3:13-26; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Galatians 4:4; Hebrews 1:1,2; 1 John 4:9,10) This is what Jesus actually claimed in John 14:24, that the words he spoke on behalf of his God were not his own words, but that of his God. Thus, instead of not identifying himself as being the Logos of God, Jesus was actually stating that he is the Logos of his God. 

Saturday, July 3, 2021

Ephesians 4:30 - Grieve Not the Holy Spirit

 And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption. -- Ephesians 4:30, King James Version.

Many trinitarians (and some others) may point to Ephesians 4:30 as proof that the Holy Spirit is a person. "God," however, in the expression, "the holy spirit of God", obviously is referring to only one person, and the "holy spirit" is presented as be a possession of that one person who is God. This is in harmony with Ephesians 4:6, where only the Father is presented as being  the "one God". Likewise in Ephesians 4:13, "God" is again presented as being only one person, and "Christ" (meaning the anointed) is distinguished from being that one person, since he is presented as being the son of that one person. 

The scriptures show that God's Holy Spirit is is likened to God's finger, at least in as God's Holy Spirit represents the power of God. (Matthew 12:28; Luke 11:20) One's finger is, of course, and extension of one's self, but one would not say that one's finger is another person of oneself. Regardless, what one's finger does is what is directed by the owner of that finger; what is done by one's finger is what is done by the person to whom the finger belongs. Likewise, with God and and His Holy Spirit. The point is that as one's finder is an extension of the person to whom the finger belongs, so God's Holy Spirit is an extension of God to whom the Holy Spirit belongs. God's Holy Spirit could be used as an extension of God as more or less figuratively being God's mouth, His eyes, His ears, His heart, His disposition, His will, etc. Of course, God's Holy Spirit, being an extension of God Himself, could certainly be spoken of as as being grieved. This does not mean that we need to imagine, assume, add to, and read into the scriptures that God is three persons, and that His Holy Spirit is one of the persons of Himself.

Because of their desire to make God's Holy Spirit appear to be a person, many translations add a personal pronoun to the Bible in this verse (and many other verses pertaining to the Holy Spirit). For instance, the New King James Version adds the pronoun "whom":

And do not grieve the Holy Spirit of God, by whom you were sealed for the day of redemption.

In the Greek, the word for spirit is neuter, and thus, in harmony with the Koine Greek syntax, all pronouns relating to spirit are neuter. IF the spirit were referring to a person, it could still be neuter in the Greek.  One cannot depend on the gender of pronouns in the Koine Greek to determine whether an object is referring to a person or not. Thus, supplying the pronoun "whom" in an English translation does not mean that we need to imagine and assume the God's Holy Spirit is actually a "him", a masculine person. There is certainly no reason to add to what Paul wrote anywhere in Ephesians 4 that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is three persons, and that one those persons is God's Holy Spirit.

John 14:16,26; 15:26 – The Comforter – Is It A Person?

 (This study has not yet been fully edited; links may not work)

In John 14:16, we read, “I will pray the Father, and He shall give you  another Comforter, even the Spirit of Truth”. And again in John 14:26, “but the Comforter, the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, He shall teach you all things”. And again in John 15:26, “When the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, He shall testify of me”.

The claim is that in all three of these passages, we have a perfect statement of  the three Divine Persons, acting in perfect unity, yet each Person in the same relative position – the Father as the Fountain of all authority; the Son as obeying the Father, revealing, and teaching, and praying, in His prophetic and priestly offices; and then the Holy Spirit proceeding from the Father, by the command of the Son, as the anointing and powerful Comforter.

As is always the case, in all of the scriptures referred to, one has to assume beyond what is written, and add to and read into those scriptures the idea of the three divine persons in one God.

Most translations refer to the holy spirit in the above scriptures in the masculine. It is only in reference to the holy spirit as the comforter that the masculine is ever used in the Greek concerning the holy spirit. All other references to the holy spirit, in the Greek, is neuter. This has to do with the way the Greek language is expressed, and in no instance can one use one or the other Greek gender used to prove that the holy spirit is or is not a person.

In 1 John 4:2, John states: “By this you know the Spirit of God.” When he uses the word “God” in this verse, is he speaking of “God” as a unipersonal God, or is he speaking of “God” as three persons? Most trintarians will say that “God” here refers to the “God the Father,” without thinking about how this makes the God to whom the holy spirit belongs as one person, not three. Indeed, all through the New Testament, God is most often used to refer the God and Father of Jesus as one person, not three persons.

The Bible reveals the holy spirit as a extension of God, figuratively as his finger, his mouth. (Matthew 12:28; Luke 11:20; 1 Kings 8:24; 2 Chronicles 6:4; 36:12,21; Ezra 1:1; Isaiah 1:20; 40:5; 45:23; 48:3; 58:14; 62:2; Jeremiah 9:12,20; Ezekiel 33:7; Micah 4:4; Matthew 4:4; Mark 12:36; Acts 1:17; 28:25; Hebrews 3:7; 9:8; 10:15,16; 2 Peter 1:21) As such it does indeed have the attributes of personality of its Owner, the unipersonal God. However, the scriptures never, ever, reveal the holy spirit to be a separate and distinct person of its Owner. Such an idea has to be assumed, added to and read into the expressions used of God’s holy spirit.

As regards the rendering in English, since the masculine usage in the verses should not be considered as stating that the Comforter is  a person, then the verses can be understood as: John 14:16-26: “I will pray to the Father, and He shall give you  another Comforter, even the Spirit of Truth”. “but the Comforter, the Holy Spirit, which the Father will send in my name that will teach you all things”. And again in John 15:26, “When the Comforter is come which I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceeds from the Father, that will testify of me”.

Related Studies:

Isaiah 61:1 — The Spirit of Yahweh On the Anointed One

Ephesians 3:11-15 - Must We See Trinity in What Paul Wrote?

2 Corinthians 1:21,22 – Christ, God and the Spirit

Romans 8:9 – Spirit of God and Spirit of Christ

Romans 5:5,6 – God’s Love, Holy Spirit, Christ’s Death

Acts 5:3,4 – Ananias Lied to God, Not to Men

Links to Other Bible Students’ Sites

How Does the Holy Spirit Work? (Christian Questions Radio)

Does the Holy Spirit Speak? (Christian Questions Radio)

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